Chapter 07: Body Systems: Anatomy and Physiology

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1. Which of the following terms best describes the study of how the body functions?

a. Anatomy
b. Histology
c. Pathophysiology
d. Physiology

d

2. A disease process is best described by which of the following terms?

a. Anatomy
b. Histology
c. Pathophysiology
d. Physiology

c

3. Which of the following statements is the best example of why it is important to understand anatomy?

a. To describe how the organ systems work
b. To describe the location of injury
c. To diagnose an organ malfunction
d. To have a complete understanding of the disease process

b

4. A paramedic is on scene with a patient who is having difficulty in breathing. Which of the following would be important to understand to assist with good patient care?

a. The pathophysiology of the skin
b. The physiology of the brain
c. The physiology of the kidney
d. The physiology of the lung

d

5. Which of the following statements best describes homeostasis?

a. Constant interstitial environment
b. General stability of internal environment
c. Instability of the cellular environment
d. Labile environment

b

6. Which of the following functions is the best example of homeostasis?

a. Absorption
b. Active transport
c. Body temperature
d. Digestion

c

7. Which of the following is the best example of homeostasis?

a. Body temperature
b. Candy in sunlight
c. Water in a freezer
d. Water in a puddle

a

8. Which of the following statements best describes the anatomic position?

a. Lying face down
b. Lying face up
c. Sitting erect
d. Standing erect

d

9. A patient has injured his arm and has sustained a cut to the back of the hand. Which of the following correctly describes the anatomic position of this person's injury?

a. Dorsal surface
b. Inferior surface
c. Supine surface
d. Volar surface

a

10. Which of the following terms best describes the imaginary plane that divides the body from one hip to the other on the anterior surface of the abdomen?

a. Frontal
b. Midsagittal
c. Sagittal
d. Transverse

d

11. Which of the following statements would most accurately describe injuries to a patient's pelvis, right arm, and leg?

a. The injuries are all appendicular.
b. The injuries are all dorsal.
c. The injuries are all limb injuries.
d. The injuries are all part axial.

a

12. Which of the following is a component of the axial skeleton?

a. Arms
b. Legs
c. Neck
d. Pelvis

c

13. Which of the following is contained within the mediastinum?

a. Liver
b. Lungs
c. Stomach
d. Trachea

d

14. A patient is stabbed and the knife enters the heart. Which of the following is the inner most layer that the knife passes through before entering muscle fibers?

a. Epicardium
b. Mediastinum
c. Parietal pericardium
d. Pleural cavity

a

15. Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding cellular function?

a. Cells are large units that function independently.
b. Each cell is an organ system.
c. Organs are created from several types of cells.
d. Organ systems are created from several types of cells.

c

16. Which of the following statements best defines human cells?

a. All human cells are eukaryotes.
b. All human cells are prokaryotes.
c. Human cells have no DNA.
d. Human cells have no nucleus.

a

17. Where are most organelles of the cell located?

a. Within the cytoplasm
b. Within the lipid bilayer
c. Within the nucleus
d. Within the plasma membrane

a

18. What is the name of the fluid inside the nucleus?

a. Nematode
b. Nuclear
c. Nucleolus
d. Nucleoplasm

d

19. Which of the following chemical reactions place within the cytoplasm?

a. Cell division
b. Glycolysis
c. Protein packaging
d. Protein synthesis

b

20. Which organelle is responsible for detoxification?

a. Cytoplasmic membrane
b. Endoplasmic reticulum
c. Golgi apparatus
d. Ribosome

b

21. Which organelle is responsible for cellular propulsion?

a. Centriole
b. Flagella
c. Microvilli
d. Mitochondria

b

22. Which of the following is the primary function of the nucleus?

a. Cell detoxification
b. Cell reproduction
c. Protein packaging
d. Protein transport

b

23. Which of the following is contained with the nucleolus?

a. Centrioles
b. DNA
c. Ribosome
d. RNA

d

24. Which bests describes the process by which cells reproduce?

a. Cell division
b. Cell generation
c. No reproduction occurs
d. They multiply exponentially

a

25. Which of the following processes is the term used to describe most cell reproduction in the body?

a. Glycolysis
b. Mitochondria
c. Mitosis
d. Paracrine

c

26. What is the first step in cellular respiration?

a. Glandular
b. Glucose
c. Glycogen
d. Glycolysis

d

27. Which of the following statements best defines the term anaerobic?

a. Excess oxygen
b. To oxygenate
c. With oxygen
d. Without oxygen

d

28. Which of the following is the best the definition of diffusion?

a. Active movement from high concentration to low concentration
b. Active movement from low concentration to high concentration
c. Passive movement from high concentration to low concentration
d. Passive movement from low concentration to high concentration

c

29. What material is moving during osmosis?

a. Membrane
b. Particles
c. Solutes
d. Solvents

d

30. Which of the following types of epithelial cells are taller than they are wide?

a. Columnar
b. Cuboidal
c. Squamous
d. Transitional

a

31. Of the following, where are epithelial cells located?

a. Bone surfaces
b. Brain tissue
c. Cartilage surfaces
d. Interior of hollow organs

d

32. Which type of tissue that is composed of bundles of strong, white, collagenous fibers of protein in parallel rows?

a. Adipose tissue
b. Alveolar tissue
c. Cartilage
d. Tendons

d

33. Which of the followings statements is the most accurate in reference to the characteristic of connective tissue?

a. Cells are connected side by side.
b. It is the least abundant type of tissue in the body.
c. These tissues are connected with a nonliving material between cells.
d. These tissues are limited in distribution.

c

34. Which of the following words is best defined as the ability to actively shorten in length?

a. Conductivity
b. Contractility
c. Elasticity
d. Excitability

b

35. As a paramedic lifts a stretcher, which type of muscle is being used?

a. Anucleated
b. Cardiac
c. Skeletal
d. Smooth

c

36. Which of the following terms can be used to describe smooth muscle?

a. Anucleated
b. Involuntary
c. Striated
d. Voluntary

b

37. Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding nervous tissue?

a. A synaptic gap is located between nerve cells.
b. All nervous tissue contains myelin.
c. Dendrites and axons are physically connected.
d. The nerve cell is made of two major parts.

a

38. Which of the following is accurate statement regarding nervous tissue?

a. Dendrites contain the cell body.
b. Neuroglia are the supporting cells of the nervous tissue.
c. Schwann cells form the myelin and give nervous cells the term gray matter.
d. Wire-like cells carry the nervous impulse from cell to cell.

b

39. Which of the following is an organ system in the human body?

a. Brain
b. Connective
c. Endocrine
d. Heart

c

40. Which of the following statements best describes the integumentary system?

a. It is composed of only skin cells.
b. It is the largest organ system.
c. It is the lightest organ system.
d. Its main function is protection.

b

41. Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding the epidermis?

a. It is composed of tightly packed squamous epithelial cells.
b. The epidermis is the inner layer of skin.
c. The stratum corneum are dead cells and provide waterproof barrier.
d. The stratum germinativum are dead cells and provide a water-permeable layer.

a

42. Which of the following best describes the location of the skin layer that may be the site of a blister?

a. Dermal-epidermal junction
b. Dermis
c. Epidermis
d. Subcutaneous tissue

a

43. Which of the following is the main function of hair?

a. Body temperature regulation
b. Excretion of sweat
c. Production of goose bumps
d. Protection from physical injury

d

44. Which of the following anatomic structures are responsible for so-called goose bumps?

a. Arrector pilli
b. Dermis
c. Epidermis
d. Subcutaneous tissue

a

45. Which of the following structures is responsible for production of the nail?

a. Blood vessels
b. Dermis
c. Epidermis
d. Subcutaneous tissue

c

46. What gives nails their pink appearance?

a. Blood vessels
b. Epidermal cells
c. Indentations
d. Keratin

a

47. Which glands are responsible for secreting fluid to dispel heat?

a. Apocrine glands
b. Merocrine glands
c. Sebaceous glands
d. Sebum

b

48. Which of the following glands open into hair follicles?

a. Apocrine glands
b. Merocrine glands
c. Sebaceous glands
d. Sebum

b

49. Which of the following is responsible for blood cell production?

a. Endocrine system
b. Nervous system
c. Skeleton
d. Skin

c

50. Which of the following minerals is the bone responsible for maintaining?
a. Calcium
b. Phosphorus
c. Potassium
d. Sodium

a

51. Which of the following is considered part of the axial skeleton?

a. Femur
b. Hyoid bone
c. Phalange
d. Tibia

b

52. You are on scene with a patient who has kyphosis. Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding this condition?

a. This condition has nothing to do with the vertebral column.
b. This is a smooth muscle condition.
c. This condition is an exaggeration of the lumbar curvature.
d. This condition is an exaggeration of the thoracic curvature.

d

53. Which of the following is considered part of the appendicular skeleton?

a. The facial bones
b. The sacrum
c. The skull
d. The ulna

d

54. What is the appropriate term for the location of the pubic arch and the location where the two halves of the pelvis join?

a. Coccyx
b. Ileum
c. Ischium
d. Pubic symphysis

d

55. A patient has fallen, injuring the "tip" of his elbow. Which of the following is the anatomic name for this location?

a. Olecranon
b. Radial head
c. Ulnar styloid
d. Wrist

a

56. Which bone of the upper arm helps form the distal portion of the shoulder joint?

a. Femur
b. Humerus
c. Radius
d. Ulna

b

57. Which of the following is known as the "shin" bone?

a. Femur
b. Fibula
c. Hip
d. Tibia

d

58. Which of the following is one of the bones that form the knee joint?

a. Femur
b. Humerus
c. Ileum
d. Ulna

a

59. The joints between the teeth and the sockets in the mandible and maxilla are classified as which type of joint?

a. Fontanels
b. Gomphoses
c. Sutures
d. Syndesmosis

b

60. Which of the following is an example of a synovial joint?

a. Fontanel
b. Saddle
c. Suture
d. Syndesmosis

b

61. Which of the following is a purpose of the musculoskeletal system?

a. Circulation of the blood
b. Platelet regulation
c. Red blood cell production
d. White blood cell maintenance

c

62. Which of the following is one of the autonomic functions of the muscular system?

a. Control of appetite
b. Mood control
c. Movement of digestive tract
d. Taste control

c

63. Which of the following is a basic property of muscle?

a. Conductivity
b. Constructability
c. Evaporativity
d. Excitability

d

64. A physician states that the bowel is no longer moving forward. Which type of muscle is no longer contracting?

a. Cardiac
b. Skeletal
c. Smooth
d. Spontaneous

c

65. Which of the following accurately describes the ion exchange during acetylcholine release?

a. Ca++ exits the cell, creating a net negative charge inside the cell.
b. K+ enters the cell, creating a positive charge inside the cell.
c. Magnesium enters the cell, creating a positive charge inside the cell.
d. Na+ floods the cell, creating a positive charge inside the cell.

d

66. Which of the following is the cause of the muscle weakness in a patient myasthenia gravis?

a. Defected acetylcholine molecules
b Diseased acetylcholine receptors on motor plate
c. Increased K+ channels on the muscle membrane
d. Lack of Na+ channels on the muscle membrane

b

67. Which of the following is a function of the muscular system?

a. Absorption
b. Active cooling
c. Electrolyte transport
d. Maintenance of posture

d

68. Which of following is the most accurate statement regarding muscle movement?

a. Isometric contraction causes the muscle length to shorten.
b. Isotonic contraction causes muscle tension to increase.
c. Skeletal muscles always work in pairs for movement.
d. Skeletal muscle movement is a result isometric contraction.

c

69. A paramedic is on scene with a patient who reports that moving his leg inward causes muscle pain. Which group of muscles is most likely affected?

a. Abductors
b. Adductors
c. Extensors
d. Flexors

b

70. Which of the following is one of the three main functions of the nervous system?

a. Creating forward motion
b. Maintaining posture and balance
c. Monitoring internal environments
d. Movement of a an extremity

c

70. Which of the following is one of the three main functions of the nervous system?

a. Creating forward motion
b. Maintaining posture and balance
c. Monitoring internal environments
d. Movement of a an extremity

b

72. Which of the following is a function of the peripheral nervous system?

a. Absorption of nutrients
b. Communication to the rest of the body
c. Coordination of thought
d. Metabolize toxins

b

73. Which of the following is considered a higher function of the central nervous system?

a. Coordination
b. Movement
c. Muscle movement
d. Thought

d

74. Which of the following is the toughest layer of the brain?

a. Arachnoid mater
b. Dura mater
c. Pia mater
d. Subarachnoid mater

b

75. In which space are the venous vessels located?

a. Epidural
b. Extradural
c. Piadural
d. Subdural

d

76. Which of the following is the most correct statement regarding the cerebral spinal fluid?

a. CSF functions to absorb shock.
b. CSF gets eliminated through the fourth ventricles.
c. CSF is produced by axons.
d. CSF protects and bathes the skull.

a

77. Where is the cerebral spinal fluid produced?

a. Capillary sinus
b. Choroid plexus
c. Dural sinus
d. Spinal cord

b

78. Which of the following is a division of the brainstem?

a. Dural sinus
b. Medulla
c. Parietal
d. Temporal

b

79. Which part of the midbrain is responsible for hearing and visual reflexes?

a. Midbrain
b. Medulla
c. Pons
d. Vegetative functions

a

80. Which of the following are components of the diencephalons?

a. Brainstem and spinal cord
b. Cerebral hemispheres
c. Midbrain and pons
d. Thalamus and hypothalamus

d

81. Which of the following anatomic locations is responsible for temperature regulation for the body?

a. Hypothalamus
b. Medulla
c. Pons
d. Thalamus

a

82. A patient has had a complex partial seizure and exhibits repetitive behavior. Which of the following lobes of the cerebrum are most likely affected?

a. Frontal
b. Occipital
c. Parietal
d. Temporal

d

83. Which lobe of the cerebrum controls emotion?

a. Frontal
b. Occipital
c. Parietal
d. Temporal

a

84. Which of the following is a function of the cerebellum?

a. Fine movements
b. Memory
c. Speech
d. Thought

a

85. An intoxicated patient has exhibited signs of a lack of coordination and appears off balance. Which portion of the brain is most likely affected?

a. Cerebellum
b. Cerebrum
c. Frontal lobe
d. Midbrain

a

86. What is the name of the nervous system that carries information from the body to the central nervous system?

a. Afferent
b. Autonomic
c. Efferent
d. Somatic

a

87. Which of the following is a true statement regarding the sense of smell?

a. The nerve endings are located in the mouth.
b. The nerve stems from the spinal cord.
c. The nerves are not sensitive.
d. The nerves fatigue easily.

d

88. At what level of the spinal column is the spinal cord considered to "stop"?

a. Coccyx
b. L1-L2
c. S1-S2
d. T1-T2

b

89. What is the function of the spinal cord?

a. Conducts impulses
b. Generates nervous impulses
c. Interprets impulses
d. Terminates impulses

a

90. Which part of the nervous system is responsible for digestion?

a. Afferent
b. Autonomic
c. Central
d. Somatic

b

91. Which of the following cranial nerves is a parasympathetic nerve?

a. I
b. IX
c. X
d. XI

c

92. Where is the origination of the majority of the cranial nerves?

a. Brainstem
b. Cerebral hemisphere
c. Frontal lobe
d. Spinal cord

a

93. Which nerve controls olfaction?

a. Cranial nerve I
b. Cranial nerve II
c. Cranial nerve III
d. Cranial nerve IV

a

94. Which of the following nerves is responsible for the sense of taste?

a. Cranial nerve IX
b. Cranial nerve X
c. Cranial nerve XI
d. Cranial nerve XII

a

95. Which of the following are only under control of the sympathetic nervous system?

a. Blood vessels
b. Digestive tract
c. Heart
d. Lungs

a

96. Which part of the autonomic nervous system is responsible for responding to stressful situations?

a. Afferent
b. Efferent
c. Parasympathetic
d. Sympathetic

d

97. A patient is having respiratory difficulty during an allergic reaction. Which of the following receptors is most affected?

a. Alpha 1
b. Alpha 2
c. Beta 1
d. Beta 2

a

98. Which of the glands are responsible for releasing calcium from the bones and inhibiting its excretion by the kidneys?

a. Adrenal gland
b. Pancreas
c. Parathyroid
d. Thalamus

c

99. Which hormone secreted by the adrenal gland regulates glucose secretion?

a. Aldosterone
b. Cortisol
c. Estrogen
d. Testosterone

b

100. Which of the following is considered part of the circulatory system?

a. Endocrine system
b. Lymphatic system
c. Nervous system
d. Neural system

b

101. Which of the following is a waste product that is removed from tissues by the circulatory system?

a. Nitrogen
b. Nutrients
c. Oxygen
d. Protein.

a

102. Which of the following is a component of the cardiovascular system?

a. Blood vessels
b. Lymph nodes
c. Lymph vessels
d. Lymphatic fluid

a

103. Which part of the cardiovascular system is under both parasympathetic and sympathetic control?

a. Blood
b. Blood vessels
c. Heart
d. Lungs

c

104. Which of the following constitutes the largest volume of plasma?

a. Albumin
b. Globulins
c. Prothrombin
d. Water

d

105. Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding red blood cells?

a. An excess is called anemia.
b. They carry oxygen to tissues.
c. They contain a nucleus.
d. They live for years.

b

106. Which of the following most accurately describes the location of the heart?

a. Anterior to the sternum
b. Inferior to the clavicles
c. Inferior to the diaphragm
d. To the right of the sternum

b

107. What is the proper term for the top of the heart?

a. Apex
b. Base
c. Intercostals
d. Precordial

b

108. What generally occurs to a ventricular contraction with an increase in preload?

a. Decrease in force
b. Decrease in speed
c. Increase in force
d. Increase in speed

c

109. What is the name of the "law" that states the greater the stretch, the greater the contraction?

a. Biot's law
b. Boyles law
c. Cushing's law
d. Starling's law

d

110. What is the function of the pulmonary veins?

a. Deliver blood to the left atrium
b. Deliver blood to the left ventricle
c. Deliver blood to the lungs
d. Deliver blood to the systemic circulation

a

111. Which blood vessel transports blood to the right atrium?

a. Aorta
b. Pulmonary artery
c. Pulmonary vein
d. Vena cava

d

112. Which of the following chambers of the heart has the thickest muscular wall and pumps blood to the systemic circulation?

a. Left atrium
b. Left ventricle
c. Right atrium
d. Right ventricle

b

113. Deoxygenated blood passes from the right atrium to the right ventricle through which of the following valves?

a. Aortic
b. Bicuspid
c. Pulmonic
d. Tricuspid

d

114. Following the path of blood that leaves the lung, which of the following is the first chamber of the heart that it encounters?

a. Left atrium
b. Left ventricle
c. Right atrium
d. Right ventricle

a

115. Blood flows from the right ventricle to which of the following structures?

a. Left atrium
b. Left ventricle
c. Lungs
d. Systemic circulation

c

116. Which of the following arteries does the circumflex artery branch from?

a. Aorta
b. Left anterior descending artery
c. Left coronary artery
d. Right coronary artery

c

117. The coronary arteries are the first vessels to receive blood after which of the following has occurred?

a. Left atrium contraction
b. Left ventricle contraction
c. Right atrium contraction
d. Right ventricle contraction

b

118. Which of the following five stages is the depolarization phase of the cardiac cycle?

a. Phase 0
b. Phase 1
c. Phase 2
d. Phase 3

a

119. Which of the following occurs during phase 2 of the action potential?

a. Ca+ enters the cell
b. K+ enters the cell
c. Magnesium enters the cell
d. Na+ enters the cell

a

120. Which of the following is the primary pacemaker of the heart?

a. AV node
b. Bundle of His
c. Purkinje fibers
d. SA node

d

121. Which of the following pacemaker sites has an intrinsic rate of 20 to 40 impulses per minute?

a. AV node
b. Bundle of His
c. Purkinje fibers
d. SA node

c

122. Which of the following is the smallest blood vessel?

a. Arteriole
b. Artery
c. Capillary
d. Venule

c

123. Following the flow of blood, which vessel leads into the capillary bed?

a. Arteriole
b. Artery
c. Vein
d. Venule

a

124. Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding venules?

a. Constrict in times of shock
b. Hold very small amounts of blood volume
c. Largest of the venous vessels
d. Lead into arteries

a

125. Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding the lymph system?

a. Large amounts of blood flow through this system.
b. Large amounts of red blood cells flow through this system.
c. The lymph system has no part in the immune system.
d. There is a unilateral flow of fluid toward general circulation.

d

126. Which of the following is one of the three primary functions of the lymphatic system?

a. Production of lymphocytes
b. Production of platelets
c. Removal of excessive coagulation factors
d. Removal of red blood cells

a

127. Which of the following structures extends from the epiglottis to the glottis?

a. Alveoli
b. Laryngopharynx
c. Oropharynx
d. Trachea

b

128. Which of the following is considered a structure of the upper airway?

a. Alveoli
b. Bronchi
c. Larynx
d. Trachea

c

129. Which of the following structures prevents foreign matter from entering the trachea?

a. Cricoid ring
b. Larynx
c. Nasopharynx
d. Oropharynx

b

130. Which of the following is a function of the larynx?

a. Passage of air into the esophagus
b. Passage of food into the lungs
c. Protection of the nasopharynx
d. Speech production

d

131. As air passes the larynx, which of the following is the next structure that the air should pass as it enters the lungs?

a. Alveoli
b. Bronchi
c. Oropharynx
d. Trachea

d

132. Which layer of the blood vessel is under sympathetic control?

a. Tunica adventitia
b. Tunica elastic
c. Tunica intima
d. Tunica media

d

133. Which of the following is the largest of the cartilages that comprise the larynx?

a. Arytenoid
b. Cricoid
c. Cricothyroid
d. Thyroid

d

134. What is the bifurcation of the trachea called?

a. Alveoli
b. Arytenoids
c. Carina
d. Cartilaginous

c

135. What is the primary function of the alveoli?

a. Air flow
b. Blood flow
c. Gas exchange
d. Nutrient exchange

c

136. What is the role of the pleural fluid?

a. Increases heat production during respiration
b. Increases risk of infection
c. Reduces friction
d. Reduces respiratory rate

c

137. Which of the following is an accurate description of the visceral pleura of the lung?

a. It cannot be penetrated.
b. It does not move with the chest wall.
c. It is adhered to the lung surface.
d. It is the layer that is tightly adhered to the chest wall.

c

138. Which of the following is a general function of the digestive system?

a. Absorption of molecules through the lungs
b. Digestion of food material
c. Excretion of waste through the kidneys
d. Secretion of food particles to organs

b

139. Which of the following is a specific function of the salivary glands?

a. Secretes enzymes to break down fats
b. Secretes enzymes to break down complex proteins
c. Secretes enzymes to break down proteins
d. Secretes enzymes to break down starches

d

140. Which of the following is true statement regarding the intestines?

a. Fluid is absorbed in the colon.
b. Nutrients are absorbed in the stomach.
c. The colon secretes chime.
d. The stomach has little function in digestion.

a

141. Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding the function of bile?

a. It helps with the digestion of fat.
b. It helps with the digestion of proteins.
c. It helps with the digestion of starches.
d. It helps with the digestion of sugars.

a

142. Which of the following is a function of the urinary system?

a. Regulation of blood volume and pressure
b. Regulation of coordination
c. Regulation of heart rate
d. Regulation of nutrients in the GI tract

a

143. Which of the following anatomic differences between men and woman accounts for the increased incidence of urinary tract infections in females?

a. Females have a much shorter urethra than males.
b. Females have a smaller bladder than males.
c. The bladder is lower in the pelvic cavity in females.
d. The internal sphincter is weaker in females.

a

144. Where does initial kidney filtration take place?

a. Bladder
b. Bowman's capsule
c. Renal pyramids
d. Ureter

b

145. Following a drop of filtered urine after it leaves the kidney, which structure does it enter next in the urinary system?

a. Bladder
b. Nephron
c. Ureter
d. Urethra

c

146. Which part of the nephron is responsible for emptying the final urine into the collecting duct?

a. Bowman's capsule
b. Distal tubule
c. Loop of Henle
d. Renal corpuscle

b

147. What is the appropriate name for the network of capillaries in the kidney?

a. Bladder
b. Bowman's capsule
c. Glomerulus
d. Nephron

c

148. Where does sperm maturation take place in males?

a. Ductus deferens
b. Epididymis
c. Seminal vesicles
d. Testosterone

b

149. Which structure transports the egg from the ovary to the uterus in the female reproductive system?

a. Cervix
b. Fallopian tube
c. Uterus
d. Vagina

b

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