During a normal start up at your air station, the EGI initiates a _______ alignment using the most recent position available, a validated GPS position, or a position from the non-volatile memory.
Gyro Compass Align- FM 1A-117
The default EGI output to the CDU is the _____.
Blended Solution (INS/GPS)- FM 1A-117
Pitot pressure is supplied from the pitot tubes to the two _______. In turn, they provide pitot static, barometric pressure and temperature to the CAAS.
ADCs- FM 1A-122
The _____ integrates aircraft attitude data, navigation information, and operator selected values to compute the desired flight path.
Flight Director- FM 1B-4
The EGIs are sources for ______.
Pitch, roll, attitude, heading, aircraft velocities and acceleration (VS)- FM 1B-5
The ADCs are sources for ______.
IAS, Altitude and backup vertical speed- FM 1B-5
If the currently selected NAV source becomes invalid while in air, the other data source must be manually selected.
False- FM 1B-6
When ground personnel are within _______ of the aircraft, the H3 radio shall be placed in MAN or STBY to prevent inadvertent HF transmission.
25 ft- FM 1B-24
The F4 radio contains a SAR guard module that has two receivers tuned to Marine band channel 16 and 70. Channel 16 is for voice only while the channel 70 receiver listens for distress messages only.
False- FM 1B-113
Lead turn is limited to begin no more than _______ before the destination FPP.
1 mile- FM 1B-113
The rate of turn indicator is driven by turn rate data received from the currently selected EGI.
True- FM 1B-121
Two, redundant flight director partitions operate in a primary-secondary relationship, with the primary system providing flight director mode and guidance to CAAS, and the secondary system monitoring and comparing tehoutputs of the primary system to the secondary system to identify error/disagreement.
True- FM 1B-130
Flight Director roll commands are limited to _______.
Lessor of a standard rate turn or 22 deg AOB- FM 1B-130
Engagement of a flight director NAV mode requires that the pilot with the flight transfer control have the desired mode selected on the ________.
CDI- FM 1B-132
_______ controls the steering source for the flight director.
FLT XFER- FM 1B-135
If there is a FLT XFER control while the flight director is engaged, the flight director has to be reset and EICAS will display the GUIDE MODE OFF advisory.
True- FM 1B-136
When using the WX/RCT mode of the Primus 700 RADAR, any target detected within the ________ field cannot be calibrated and should be considered very dangerous. All targets in this field are displayed as fourth level precipitation, magenta.
Blue- FM 1C-3
_______ will be most useful in sea-search applications by providing maximum resolution and sensitivity for over-water use.
GMAP 1- FM 1C-4
GMAP1 is set for good terrain-mapping operations and is optimized for over land use.
False- FM 1C-4
The SAR mode of the DF-430 enables monitoring of _______.
121.5, 243.0, 406.025, 406.028, Argos Beacons, maritime 156-174, COSPAS/ SARSAT message decoding- FM 1C-8
Due to the set/reset conditions in CAAS it is not unusual for the engine starter advisory to still be on after the engine has passed 65% Ng. If this condition occurs manually disengage the engine starter if the advisory is still on past __________.
70% Ng- FM 2A-8
During the backup tail rotor servo check when you place the tail rotor servo switch in BACKUP, the NO. 1 TAIL ROTOR SERVO caution and NO. 2 TAIL ROTOR SERVO ON and BACKUP PUMP ON advisories should come on ________________________.
Within 3 seconds- FM 2A-10
Flight at night or in IMC requires fully operational AFCS. AFCS off training at night in VMC is permitted.
True- FM 2A-19
Conducting an indirect deployment of the dewatering pump from above _______ should be avoided to prevent damage to the pump.
25 ft- FM 2C-9
Which is not a method for RS deployment- direct, harness, catenary or free fall.
Catenary- FM 2C-10
The ________________________ is for extreme situations only. The procedure should be considered a last resort, but is also ideal for rescue of small children and for rescues in swift water.
Physical Grip recovery- FM 2C-13
A practice physical grip survivor recovery shall only be practiced over water. Training hoist evolutions utilizing this recovery shall be limited to a hoisting altitude of __________.
10 ft- FM 2C-13
During hoist operations "Cease Commands" indicates that the pilot no longer requires commands to maneuver. During Rescue Swimmer operations, it means______.
Conning commands are no longer required and the pilot is visual with the swimmer. FM 2C-22
The SLDMB may be deployed _______.
From a hover below 25 ft or between 25 and 150 ft at < 80 KIAS. FM 2C-28
An instrument approach to the water shall be used whenever sufficient visual reference to maintain a hover can not be established at _______.
300 ft AWL- FM 2C-59
During a PATCH or MATCH, the _______ is the point where the aircraft actually ends up in a hover.
Missed Approach Point- FM 2C-60
During a MATCH, the Final Approach Fix is ______ downwind of the Hover Fix.
2.0 NM- FM 2C-63
Which CAAS failures will result in a land ASA Possible situation?
Loss of 2 DCUs or Loss of 4 MFDs- FM 3-36
The WOW switch will automatically set ___________ displays on both outboard MFD's (1 and 4) when you lift off.
PFD- CW 2-3
A red "drag-line" on the VSI indicates a rate of descent greater than ______.
700 FPM- CW 2-9
The wind arrow is not displayed at speeds of _____________ or less.
4 kts- CW 2-18
Fuel flow data is represented by a digital readout on the EICAS display. It is measured through the use of fuel flow sensors.
False- CW 3-12
What navigation mode is not a selectable course source on the NAV page or with the CDI?
ADF- CW 4-6
CAAS uses ___ to compute weight and balance, fuel, and power requirements for display.
Perf Default- CW 5-12
Once MOD FPLN is executed, the flight plan points from the previous active flight plan are dropped from CAAS.
True- CW 5-26
When you select Hover Armed on the PFD, the hover page is automatically configured when groundspeed drops below ________ and removed when groundspeed increases to above ________.
50 kts GS and 55 kts GS- CW 6-9
The hover indicator is driven by heading and drift velocity data received from the currently selected _________.
EGI- CW 6-9
When looking at the hover page, ___________ of lateral or longitudinal drift would correspond to the hover bars moving to the outer ring of the compass rose.
40 kts GS- CW 6-10
CDU1, CDU2, and CDU3 shall have full capability on the Flight Director Select Page.
False- CW 6-17
When using the Flight Director, engaging a "select" mode will not capture the current value of the associated flight parameter
False- CW 6-22
Captured Flight Director modes are indicated on the PFD in what color?
Green- CW 6-25
Armed Flight Director modes are indicated on the PFD in what color?
White- CW 6-25
To exit a holding pattern, select EXIT HOLD in the CDU. If you are in an active holding pattern and you select EXIT HOLD, the aircraft will ________.
Finish its current turn in holding & depart pattern next time acft crosses holding fix- CW 8-8
Search pattern parameters cannot be modified once the pattern is active.
True- CW 8-10
A hot start is indicated if TGT reaches _______ °C befor idle speed is reached?
851- FM 3-5
Should the APU T-handle illuminate without a generator on the line, what fire extinguisher is available?
Reserve- FM 2A-4
During the starting engines checklist after both engines are stabilized at idle, Ng's shall be greater than ______% and shall be within ____% of each other.
63, 3- FM 2A-8
A possible post shut-down fire is indicated by TGT rising above _____ °C.
540- FM 3-34
If the stabilator fails any part of the systems check prior to flight the helicopter _____.
Shall not be flown until problem is corrected- FM 2A-7
During the Secure checklist, rotor brake pressure applied shall be a MAXIMUM of _____ PSI.
180- FM 2A-14
IAW M3710.1F, the use of checklists in the H60 is______.
Mandatory- M3710 3-7
You are shut down at an FBO and your APU will not start. An AC power cart is available for you to use and another MH-60T is available with a pneumatic buddy start hose. Which procedure should you use?
Normal Start Checklist- FM 2B-5
Which of the following provides the most complete list of items that must be checked in a hover upon first takeoff of the flight?
Flt controls, system inst, flt inst, radar, power- FM 2A-12
During the pilot's preflight inspection, the 406 EPIRB should be checked to ensure that:
Function switch is in Armed position- FM 2A-2
Application of the rotor brake with the rotors turning and the engine(s) operating:
Could damage equipment- FM 1A-66
If there is a "mis-compare" of the two stabilator actuators, the AFCC computer will not:
Cause the stabilitor to move to ZERO degress pitch- FM 1A-94
Unlike RADALT hold which automatically switches to BARALT hold if it fails, the BARALT hold will not automatically switch to RADALT hold if it fails.
True- FM 1A-100
What won't happened regarding an automatic approach commenced at 70 KIAS?
Aircraft will climb or descend to get on approach path and then decel- FM 1A-105
The only way to adjust lateral or longitudinal ground speeds in a coupled hover is through the use of the LAT VEL or LONG VEL controls respectively.
False- FM 1A-106
Which is NOT a means to terminate a climb during an automatic departure?
Depress and Release cyclic trim release- FM 1A-107
During an automatic approach to a Hover, if the HVRALT is set to 35 feet the approach will be made to a coupled hover at:
40 ft followed by vertical descent to 35 ft- FM 1A-104
Stab Check Parameters
34-42 down, moves 5-12, then back to original position- FM 2A-7
Which is NOT one of the three major subsystems of the AFCS?
Pitch Bias Actuator- FM 1A-87
With the De-ice Master switch in the auto position, _____ is NOT automatically activated when ice is detected by the ice detector system.
Pitot Heat (windshield, engine, blade will turn on)- FM 1A-141
What de-ice systems are powered by the AC Secondary Bus.
T/R De-Ice and CP windshield anti-ice- FM 1A-69
With a Main Module Failure Imminent, which de-ice systems have you lost.
M/R and T/R because no AC Mon or AC Secondary bus on line w/ only APU Gen- FM 1A-69
The APU fuel consumption at rated power is _____ pounds per hour.
150- FM 1A-45
The function of the APU accumulator is to _____?
provide hydraulic pressure for driving the APU starter- FM 1A-45
What type of power is required for APU operation?
DC- FM 1A-43
Illumination of the APU GEN caution can indicate _____.
APU not operating and APU gen switch turned on- FM 1A-44
The ECS will not automatically shutdown when?
System overpressure as indicated with ECS HI PRESS advisory- FM 1A-140
The main generators are driven by the accessory modules.
True- FM 1A-68
The major load for the No. 1 AC primary Bus is the Backup hydraulic pump. What is the minimum number of generators that must be on to operate the Backup hydraulic pump?
1- FM 1A-68
Illumination of the NO. 1 or NO. 2 GEN BRNG caution indicates _____.
Worn or failed main bearing on respective generator- FM 3-33
What receives AC power through the use of separate windings from the engine driven alternator?
DECU (incl Np overspeed), Ignitor assembly and Ng speed signal- FM 1A-15
If a main generator fails and is not recoverable, what equipment will not be usable until the APU is started and the APU generator placed on line?
MRH De-ice- FM 1A-69
If an APU start sequence fails or a monitored parameter is exceeded during operation, the Electronic Sequencing Unit (ESU) will not automatically shutdown the APU when ____.
APU oil temp high (greater than 148°C)- FM 1A-43
If the APU is automatically shutdown, APU BITE indicators may reset and failure indications maybe lost in the APU Control switch is turned off.
True- FM 1A-43
When on external power only, which AC busses are powered?
#1 & #2 AC Pri, AC Essen, AC Secondary and AC Monitor- FM 1A-69
The Hydromechanical Unit receives signals from the cockpit. Which are they?
PAS - PCL, LDS - Collective- FM 1A-13
At what percentage will Np Overspeed Protection System secure the engine?
120%- FM 1A-16
Engine starter dropout normally occurs at _____ Ng?
52-65% Ng- FM 1A-19
A(n) _____ engine start system is used on the General Electric T700-GE-401C engine?
Pneumatic- FM 1A-19
To manually disengage the engine starter, you must _____.
Pull down on the PCL- FM 1A-19
If the No. 2 Engine oil pressure is indicating in the lower red range, there are NO critical memory procedures required
False- FM 3-13
Oil from the engine main bearing sumps A, B, and C is cooled by a(n) _____ heat exchanger as it passes through the cooler.
Fuel to Oil- FM 1A-18
What is the best description of the function of the Anti-Ice and Start Bleed Valve?
Provides anti-ice to engine front frame swirl vanes and decreases chance of compressor stalls during start/ low power setting- FM 1A-20
If electrical power is disrupted or the circuit breaker is pulled for the engine Anti-ice, the engine Anti-ice and Start Bleed valve will _____.
Open- FM 1A-20
The Digital Electronic control Unit (DECU) monitors and maintains TGT below 851°C. This limit is increased (by) _____ for single/dual engine operation.
Turn Contgy Pwr On- FM 1A-16
What happens to the fuel scheduling in the HMU during a DECU failure?
HMU designed to schedule fuel flow higher than required- FM 1A-14
If the temperature limiter in the DECU is operating properly, what will occur if power demand increases after the temperature limit is reached?
Nr will droop- FM 1A-15
How would you know if the engine start control valve failed to close?
Engine starter advisory remains on above 65% Ng- FM 1A-19
To return to automatic engine control from ECU lockout, what must occur?
The PCL must first be placed in IDLE then returned to the FLY detent- FM 1A-12
If the Boost pump switch on the lower console is off, how is fuel being delivered to the engine?
Drawn from tank by suction from engine- FM 1A-13
With NO. 1 ENGINE CHIP and NO. 1 ENGINE OIL caution illuminates?
Turn on the contingency power switch- FM 1A-14
Placing an engine in ECU lockout deactivates:
Np governing, TGT limiting and load sharing- FM 1A-14
During shutdown you notice that the TGT remains or climbs above (a)_______C. (b) What is the appropriate immediate response?
(a) 540° (b) Ignition Off, starter engage, motor until TGT is below 300°C,Disengage starter
ECU lockout deactivates the automatic TGT limiting, NP governing, load sharing, and NP overspeed protection systems.
While in ECU lockout, the power available spindle allows the engine to vary power in response to the collective signals.
Which of the following is not true regarding the DECU fault indication feature:
Fault codes are displayed immediately after engine shutdown when 400 Hz power is available.
During a crossbleed engine start, what percent Ng is the MINIMUM operating speed for the engine providing the air source?
90%- FM 1A-19
What will the cockpit indications be if you have a fire in the APU compartment?
Fire light on Master Warning Panel and APU T-handle illumintated- FM 1A-135
Will pulling the T-handle arm the system and release extinguishing agent?
No- FM 1A-139
What will cause one of the five fire sensors to react?
Infrared radiation caused by fire or extreme heat- FM 1A-135
With AC power on the aircraft which fire bottle(s) can be discharged?
Main and Reserve- FM 1A-139
Following the total loss of tail rotor control the aircraft will yaw left or right, depending on the collective setting and will pitch when the tail rotor control pedals are moved.
True- FM 3-18
Which control axis is NOT provided with a boost servo?
Roll- FM 1A-87
Which of the following is a function of the pilot-assist servos?
Reduce cockpit control forces and SAS feedback- FM 1A-87
The three main rotor primary servos each have _____ independent redundant stages?
Two- FM 1A-85
On deck, loss of the collective boost servo (through shutdown or loss of hydraulic pressure) will cause the collective to move rapidly from the down position to the mid-position if not held by hand.
True- FM 2A-9
Which statement is false concerning the Radar altimeter?
It is a pitot/ static instrument- FM 1A-124
What is the color of a Blade Inspection Method (BIM) indicator that is indicating low blade pressure?
Black- FM 1A-63