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A

The various techniques by which scientists manipulate DNA in the lab are called
A. genetic engineering
B. biotechnology
C. recombinant DNA
D. gel electrophoresis
E. gene probes

D

The function of the dideoxy (dd) nucleotides that are used in the Sanger method of DNA sequencing is to
A. denature DNA into single strands
B serve as primers
C be a fluorescent tag
D. incorporate into newly replicated DNA strands and stop elongation.
E. none

B

Which type of mutation leades to a frameshift mutation?
A. missense
B. deletion
C. nonsense
D. Base substitution
E. All

B

Thermococcus litoralis and Thermus aquaticus are thermophilic bacteria that are
A. used as cloning vectors.
B. sources of heat stable DNA polymerases.
C. genetically engineered bacteria
D. principal sources of retriction endonucleases
E. None

E

The site where the old DNA strands separate and new DNA strands will be synthesized is called the
A. primer
B. Okazaki fragment
C. template
D rolling circle
E. replication fork

B

Enzymes that catalyze removing electrons from one substract and adding electrons to another are called:
A. phosphotranferases
B. oxidoreductases.
C. decarboxylases
D. aminotransferases
E. ligases

A

Sequences of DNA that are identical when read from the 5' to 3' direction on one strand and 3' to 5' direction o the other strand are
A palindromes
B reverse transcriptase
C restriction endonucleases
D Ligases
E DNA polymerases

D

The commercial product Frostban contains a genetically engineered strain of
A. Escherichia coli
B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
C. Thermus aquaticus
D. Pseudomonas syringae
E. Pseudomonas fluorescens

C

All of the following are correct about DNA fingerprinting, except
A. it displays the unique pattern of an individuals DNA fragments
B. it can be used to analyze evidence when only minute amounts of DNA are found
C. it cannot be used on specimens older than 5 years
D. it is routine to use it as trial evidence in the US
E. it can be used on hair and saliva

D

This is often used in forensic science to distinguish one sequence of DNA from another by comparing the sequence of the strands at specific loci:
A. cloning
B. gene therapy
C. antisense therapeutic
D. DNA fingerprinting
E. none

B

Which of the following methods determines which genes are actively transcribed in a cell under a variety of conditions?
A. DNA fingerprinting
B. microarray analysis
C. gene mapping
D. Western blot
E. antisense therapy

B

The ____ is a group of proteins needed for DNA synthesis that assembles at the origin of replication.
A. septum
B. replisome
C. prospore
D. none

E

Recombinant strains of this organism are released to colonize plant roots to produce an insecticide to destroy invading insects.
A. Escherichia coli
B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
C. Thermus aquaticus
D. Pseudmonas syringae
E. Pseudomonas fluorescens

D

In eukaryotes, the Krebs cycle takes place:
A. in the nucleus
B. in the endoplasmic reticulum
C. in the cell membrane
D. in the mitochondria
E. in the cytoplasm

D

Which of the following is considered a cardinal growth temperature?
A. the minimum temperature
B. the maximum temperature
C. the optimum temperature
D. all choices

C

The formation of citric acid from oxaloacetic acid and an acetyl group begins:
A. glycolysis
B. electron transport system
C. Krebs cycle
D. fermentation
E. oxidative phosphorylation.

E

A microorganism that has an optimum growth temperature of 37 degrees C but can survive short exposure to high temps is called a/an
A. extremophile
B. thermophile
C. psychrophile
D. facultative psychrophile
E. thermoduric

D

The term chemotroph refers to an organism that:
A. used CO2 for its carbon source
B. must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs
C. gets energy from sunlight
D. gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds
E. does not need a carbon source

A

All of the following are exoenzymes, except:
A. ATP synthase
B. streptokinase
C. penicillinase
D. collagenase
E. elastase.

A

Which enzyme fills in the spaces between the Okazaki fragments with the correct nucleotides?
A. DNA ligases
B. DNA polymerases
C. DNA helicases
D. DNA gyrases
E. primases

D

At 4:00 pm a closed flask of sterile broth is inoculated with 10,000 cells. The lag phase last 1 hour. At 9:00 pm the culture enters stationary phase with a population of 65 million cells. At what time is the population half maximal?
A. 6:30 pm
B. 7:20 pm
C. 8:20 pm
D. 8:40 pm

D

When bacteria that are living in a freshwater stream moved to seawater, then what would happen?
A. It would be in a hypotonic solution.
B. It would gain water.
C. It would be in a isotonic solution.
D. It would shrivel.
E. none would happen

C

An open system in which the growth rate is maintained by the removal and addition of media at such a rate as to maintain a constant cell density is called a
A. manostat
B. chemostat
C. turbidostat
D. Culturostat

C

Enzymes catalyze a reaction by
A, decreasing the amount of energy released by the reaction.
B. increasing the amount of energy released by the reaction
C. decreasing the activation energy of the reaction.
D. increasing the activation energy of the reaction.

D

In order for a retrovirus to insert itself into the host's DNA, it must do which of the following?
A. DNA ->DNA
B. DNA->RNA
C. RNA->RNA
D. RNA->DNA
RNA->protein

E

The fluoresecent in situ hybridization (FISH) probes are applied to intact cells and observed microscopically for the presence and location of
A. DNA
B. RNA
C. proteins
D. recombinant DNA
E. specific genetic marker sequence on genes.

A

All of the following pertain to transcription, except it
A. occurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm.
B. occurs before tranlation.
C. requires a template DNA strand
D. requires a template DNA strand
E. is part of the process of protein synthesis

A

The following pertain to ribosomes during protein synthesis, except they:
A. contain codons within their rRNA molecules
B participate only in translation
C. bind to the 5' end of mRNA by their small subunit.
D use their large subunit to supply enzymes
E. shift to the right along the mRNA strand from one codon to the next.

E

RNA molecules differ from DNA molecules because only RNA
A. has ribose
B. has uracil
C. is typically one strand of nucleotides
D. does not have thymine
E.all

D

Which if the following choice is true in case of a microaerophile?
A. it grows best in an anaerobic jar.
B. It grows with or without oxygen.
C. It needs normal atmospheric levels of oxygen.
D. It requires a small amount of oxygen but won't grow at normal atmospheric levels
E. none

D

The length of the lag phase of growth can vary depending on
A. the condition of the microorganisms
B. the nature of the growth medium.
C. the temperature
D. all

C

Much of what was previously though to be junk DNA has been found to have which purpose?
A. It codes for antibiotic resistance proteins.
B. it codes for repressor proteins
C. it codes for RNA regulatory molecules
D. it codes for repain enzymes to fix mutations.
E. none of these

C

As the electron transport carriers shuttle electrons, they actively pump _____ into the outer membrane compartment setting up a concentration gradient called the proton motive force.
A. ATP
B. phosphate
C. hydrogen ions
D. oxygen
E. NADH

C

Exergonic reactions
A include synthesis of large carbohydrates
B only occur in heterotrophs
C occur during aerobic cellular respiration
D do not occur in anaerobic cellular respiration
E occur when ADP binds to inorganic phosphate to form ATP

C

The operon segment composed of the gene that codes for a protein repressor is called the
A operator
B structural locus
C regulator
D. promoter
E none

A

When glucose is broken down by glycolysis during bacterial fermentation, how many ATP are generated?
A. 2 ATP
B. 3 ATP
C 24 ATP
D 36 ATP
E 38 ATP

D

Enzyme activity can be controlled by
A. allosteric regulation
B covalent modification
C. feedback (end product) inhibition
D. all of these

A

Which is incorrect about purines?
A only found in DNA, not in RNA
B. are nitrogenous bases
C. always paired with a specific pyrimidine
D. include adenine and guanine
E. found within nucleotides

B

Which step involves transformation?
A target DNA removed from cells and isolated
B cloning host takes up a plasmid
C target DNA and plasmid treated with the same restriction endonuclease
D. desired protein is produced by cloning host
E gene is amplified by multiplication of cloning host

B

The portion of the tRNA molecule that binds to the codon on the mRNA is called the
A. c-codon
B. anticodon
C. complementary codon
D. paracodon

A

The movement of substances from higher to lower concentration across a semi-permeable membrane that must have a specific protein carrier but no energy expenditure is called
A facilitated diffusion
B diffusion
C active transport
D osmosis
E endocytosis

C

Metabolic channeling involves the localization of ____ in different parts of a cell in order to influence the activity of metabolic pathways.
A. activators
B. repressors
C. subtrates and enzymes
D. inhibitors

E

Which of the following drugs is/are produced by genetic engineering and approved for human use?
A human growth hormone
B Factor VIII
C. insulin
D. tissue plasminogen activator
E all

B

For the reaction A + B -> C + D the equilibrium constant (Keq) is defined as
A [A][B]/[C][D]
B [C][D]/[A][B]
C [A][D]/[B][C]
D [B][C]/[A][D]

D

As organism that grows slowly in the cold but has an optimum growth temperature of 32 degrees C is called a
A extremophile
B thermophile
C psychrophile
D facultative psychrophile
E thermoduric

B

When a recipient cell acquires a piece of naked DNA from the environment, it is called
A conjugation
B transformation
C transduction
D transfection

C

DNA strands can be clipped crosswire at selected positions by using enzymes called
A palindromes
B reverse transcriptase
C restriction endonucleases
D ligases
E DNA polymerase

A

The majority of organisms live or grow in habitats between
A. pH 6 and 8
B pH 3 and 4
C pH 5 and 6
D pH 7 and 9
E pH 8 and 10

C

Which of the following require the cell to use ATP?
A facilitated diffusion
B diffusion
C endocytosis
D osmosis
E none are correct

B

The enzymes that can proofread replicating DNA, detect incorrect bases, excercise them, and correctly replace them are
A DNA ligases
B DNA polymerase
C. DNA helicases
D DNA gyrases
E primases

A

Individuals with xeroderma pigmentosa lack a functioning
A. photolyase
B. DNA polymerase III
C. DNA ligase
D. Ribozyme
E. RNA polymerase

C

The deliberate removal of genetic material from one organism and combining it with the genetic material of another organism is a specific technique called
A. genetic engineering
B. biotechnology
C. recombinant DNA technology
D. gel electrophoresis
E. gene probes

C

Enzymes that are regularly found in a cell are termed:
A. exoenzymes
B. endoenzymes
C. constitutive enzymes
D. induced enzymes
E. conjugated enzymes

E

Analysis of DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis involves
A. larger fragments move slowly and remain closer to the wells.
B. DNA has an overall negative changes and moves to the positive pole
C. DNA fragments are stained to see them
D. an electric current through the gel causes DNA fragments to migrate.
E. all choices

E

Eukaryotic chromosomes differ from prokaryotic chromosomes because only eukaryotes have
A. histone proteins.
B. chromosomes in a nucleus
C. several to many chromosomes
D. elongated, not circular, chromosomes
E. all are correct

E

The decline in growth rate during the death phase is due to all of the following except:
A. the depletion of nutrients
B. the depletion of oxygen
C. the excretion of biochemical pollutants
D. the excretion of organic acids
E. the decrease in temperature of the culture

B

The microorganism that does not have catalase or superoxide dismutase would find it difficult to live in an environment with
A. carbon dioxide
B. oxygen
C. high salt
D. temperature above 37 degrees C
E high acidity

D

If a codon for alanine is GCA, then the anticodon is
A. GCA
B. CGT
C. ACG
D. CGU
E. UGC

A

The primers in PCR are
A. synthetic DNA oligonucleotides
B. bacterial enzymes
C. short RNA strands
D. DNA polymerases
E. reverse transcriptases

C

The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which the rate of multiplication equals the rate of cell death is the:
A. lag phase
B. log phase
C. stationary phase
D. death phase
E. all correct

B

In the cell, energy released by electrons is often used to phosphorylate:
A. ATP
B. ADP
C. pyruvic acid
D. oxygen
E. NAD

B

Synthesis of an inducible enzyem requires
A. repressor alone bound to operator
B. substrate bound to repressor
C. substrate bound to promoter
D. corepressor and repressor binding to the operator
E. none

C

Barophiles are microorganisms able to tolerate:
A. a pH of 1 to 2
B. high solute concentration
C. High atmosperic pressure
D. high osmotic pressure
E. intense ultraviolet light

B

The breakdown of peptidoglycan to N-acetymuramic acid, N-acetylglucosamine and peptides is an example of :
A. anabolism
B. catabolism
C. phosphorylation
D. fermentation
E. biosynthesis

A

Formation of peptide bonds between amino acids to build a polypeptide would be called:
A. Anabolism
B. phosphorylation
C. fermentation
D. exergonic
E. glycolysis

C

Which of the following in incorrect about termination codons?
A. they are also called nonsense codons
B. where the bond between the final tRNA and the polymerase is broken
C. the include AUG
D. They include UAA, UAG, UGA
E. they do not have corresponding tRNA

A

Each FADH2 that enters the electron transport system gives rise to _____ ATP
A. 2
B. 3
C 24
D. 36
E 38

C

The Western Blot technique detects
A. DNA
B. RNA
C. proteins
D. recombinant DNA
E. specific genetic marker sequence on genes

E

The most likely place where an exoenzyme participates in a chemical reaction is:
A. mitochondria
B. within the cell membrane
C. lysosomes
D. cytoplasm
E. outside of the cell

E

All of the following are characteristics that make plasmids good cloning vectors, except
A. they are small
B. they are well characterized
C. they can be transferred into appropriate host cells
D. they can carry genetic markers, such as antibiotic resistance genes
E. they can accept a relatively large amount of foreign DNA

D

Which of the following is a possible fate for an exogenote?
A. integration into the host chromosome
B. independent replication and functioning
C. degradation to nucleotides
D. all of the choices

D

The E.coli that normally live in the human large intestines and produce Vitamin K that the body uses would be best termed a ____ relationship.
A. parasitic
B. saprobic
C. commensal
D. mutualistic
E. none

C

The term phototroph refers to an organism that:
A. uses CO2 for its carbon source
B. must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs
C. gets energy from sunlight
D. gets energy from oxidizing chemical compounds
E. does not need a carbon source

E

A mutation that changes a normal codon to a stop codon is called a
A. point mutation
B. silent mutation
C. back mutation
D. missense mutation
E. nonsense mutation

C

The DNA of microorganisms is made up of subunits called
A. histones
B. amino acids
C. nucleotides
D. mRNA
E. polymerase

B

All of the following are desirable features in a microbial closing host, except it
A. can be grown in large quantities
B. has a slow growth rate
C. is capable of accepting plasmid vectors
D. will secret a high yield of proteins from expressed foreign genes
E. has a genome that is well delineated

B

At 4:00 pm a closed flask of sterile broth in inoculated with 10,000 cells. The lag phase last 1 hour. At 9:00 pm, the log phase culture has population of 65 million cells. The approximate number of generations that has occurred is
A. 5
B. 13
C. 21
D. 27

B

Which of the following microorganisms would find hypotonic conditions most detrmental?
A. bacteria
B. protozoa
C. fungi
D. algae
E. cyanobacteria

A

What is the minimum number of aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase enzymes needed to attach amino acids to all the various tRNA molecules?
A. 20
B. 61
C. 64
D. as many as there are different tRNAs

B

Which of the following types of mutation may play an important role in driving evolution because they are often nonletal and, therefore, remain in the gene pool?
A. nonsense
B. missense
C. frameshift
D. deletion

C

Which of the following is the correct order for binary fission?
A. a septum forms at midcell, the cell elongates, replicates ifs chromosome, and separates the chromosome into the two parts of the cell
B. the cell elongates, a septum forms at midcell, the cell replicates its chromosomes, and separates the chromosomes into the two parts of the cell
C. the cell elongates, replicates its chromosome, and separates the chromosome into the two parts of the cell, and a septum forms at midcell.
D. none

A

Enteric bacteria commonly occupy the human intestine and primarily produce:
A. CO2 and H2 gases
B. methane gas
C. lactic acid
D. alcohol
E. butyric acid

D

Posttranscriptional modifications that yield eukaryotic mRNAs include which of the following?
A. splicing to remove introns
B. 5' poly (A) tracts
C. 3' caps
D. all choices

B

You inoculate a culture into a test tube containing broth and take it out of the incubator the next day. You see the culture is growing at the bottom of the tube. You conclude the culture must be:
A. aerobic
B. anaerobic
C. facultative anaerobe
D. microaerophillic
E. aerotolerant

B

DNA polymerase III
A. is needed for adding nucleotides during mRNA synthesis.
B. synthesizes new DNA only in the 5' to 3' direction
C. cannot add nucleotides to the lagging strand
D. synthesizes an RNA primer
E. all are correct

E

Enzymes that can function at boiling water temperature or other harsh condition would be termed:
A. denatured
B. ribozymes
C. abzymes
D. exoenzymes
E. extremozymes

C

If you have the sequence of mRNA that is AUAUGC, then the DNA antisense strand is
A. AUAUGC
B. UAUACG
C. TATACG
D. CGUAUA

B

Photosynthesis is responsible for producing >50% of Earth's oxygen. During photosynthesis inorganic ____ is fixed into organic compounds like ____ without the help of sunlight.
A. H2O, oxygen
B. CO2, C6H12O6
C. H20, C6H12O6
D. CO2, Oxygen
E. all are correct

C

The antiparallel arrangement within DNA molecules refers to
A. each base bonding at the 1' position of the sugar
B. a purine always bonding to a pyrimidine
C. one helix strand that runs from the 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction
D. an original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA stran comprising a new DNA molecule
E. none

B

A nonprotein component of an enzyme that is loosely attached to the protein component is referred to as a(n)
A. apoenzyme
B. coenzyme
C. holoenzyme
D. prosthetic group

A

Which is incorrect about pyrimidines?
A. are only found in DNA, not in RNA
B. they are always paired with a specific purine
C. they include cytosine and thymine
D. they are found within nucleotides
E. they are nitrogenous bases

D

The enzymes that help pack DNA into the cell by coiling the DNA into a tight bundle are
A. DNA ligases
B. DNA polymerases
C. DNA helicases
D. DNA gyrases
E. primases

A

In the TCA cycle, two carbons in the form of ____ are added to oxaloacetate at the start of the cycle
A. acetyl - CoA
B. ethanol
C. carbon dioxide
D. methanol

A

Which PCR step synthesizes complementary DNA strands?
A. add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72 degreesC
B. cool DNa to between 50deg C and 72deg C
C. add primers
D. heat target DNA to 94deg C
E. repeat the cycle of heating and cooling

B

RNA polymerase II of eukaryotes is responsible for transcribing
A. rRNA
B. mRNA
C. tRNA
D. all

B

In the process of ___, ATP is synthesized when excited electrons from chlorophyll P700 pass through a serios of electron carriers then return to chlorophyll P700
A. photosynthesis
B. cyclic photophosphorylation
C. acyclic photophosphorylation
D. noncyclic photophosphorylation

A

Amplification of DNA is accomplished by
A. polymerase chain reaction
B. DNA sequencing
C. gene probes
D. Southern blot.
E. all

D

Cyanide will cause rapid death in humans because it:
A. stops glycolysis
B. stops the TCA cycle from turning.
C. stops the electron transport chain at coenzyme Q.
D. block cytochrom c oxidase
E. inhibits the ATP synthase

C

The process in which one or more nucleic acid molecules are rearranged or combined to produce a new nucleotide sequence is called
A. transformation
B. conjugation
C. recombination
D. transductioin

B

Which of the following methods of enumerating cells is the only one to detect live cells?
A. direct microscopic count
B. viable plate count
C. turbidity
D. coulter counter
E. flow cytometer

D

Which PCR step causes the denaturation of double-stranded DNA?
A add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72degC
B. cool DNA to between 50degC and 65degC
C. add primers
D. heat target DNA to 94degC
E. repeat the cycle of heating and cooling

C

Both DNA sequencing and polymerase chain reactions require special ____ to initiate synthesis of a new DNA molecule
A. RNA promoters
B. fluorescent nucleotides
C. primers
D. thermophilic polymerases
E. endonucleases

D

The development of virulent, toxin-producing bacterial strains due to the presence of a temperate phage can occur in
A. bacterial conjugation
B. transformation
C. generalized transduction
D. specialized transduction
E. all choices

C

Mixed acid fermentation:
A. produces butyric acid
B. occurs in all bacteria
C. produces acids plus CO2 and H2 gases
D. is seen in streptococcus and lactobacillus
E. all produces ethanol

A

When amino acids are deaminated, they can be used as a source of:
A. glucose
B. fat
C. vitamins
D. minerals
E. carbon

D

When DNA is heated to just below boiling (90degC - 95degC),
A. the sugar phosphate is backbone of the DNA strand breaks
B. the sugar, phosphate, and base come apart in each nucleotide
C. the helix unwinds but hydrogen bonds between the bases remain intact.
D. the two DNA strands separate completely
E. nothing happens until the boiling point is reached (100degC)

C

When bacterial genes are transferred to another bacterium by a virus, it is called
A. conjugation
B. transformation
C. transduction
D. transfection

A

Most electron carriers are:
A. coenzymes
B. enzymes
C. hydrogens
D. inorganic phosphate
E. all choices

C

In the eukaryote, the respiratory chain is located in the ___, whereas the majority of ATP is produce by the respiratory chain in the ____ of a prokaryote.
A. lysosome, flagella
B. golgi body, mitochondria
C. mitochondria, outer membrane space
D. mitochondria, ribosome
E. SER, nucleus

C

Individuals with xeroderma pigmentosa cannot repair their mutations caused by
A. nutrous acid
B. acridine dyes
C. ultraviolet light
D. ethidium bromide
E. bisulfite

D

Semiconservative replication refers to
A. each base bonding at the 1' positioin of the sugar.
B. a purine always bonding to a pyrimidine
C. one helix strand that runs from the 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction
D. an original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule.
E. none

E

Which of the following is not involved in the step that occurs between glycolysis and the TCA cycle?
A. reduction of NAD
B. decarboxylation of pyruvic acid
C. coenzyme A attaches to an acetyl group
D. dehydrogenation of pyruvic acid
E. pyruvic acid accepts electrons from NADH

C

Mutations that result in the death of an organism when expressed are called _____ mutations
A. dominant
B. recessive
C. lethal
D. conditional

B

Geneticists can make complimentary DNA copies of messenger, transfer, and ribsomal RNA by using
A. palindromes
B. reverse transcriptase
C. restriction endonucleases
D. ligases
E. DNA polymerases

E

The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) has been used in all of the following fields, except
A. forensics
B. evolutionary studies
C. gene mapping
D. medicine
E. none, useful in all these fields

E

Enzymes are usually named based on
A. the substrates they act on.
B. their molecular structure
C. the type of reaction they catalyze
D. all of the choices
E. the substrates they act on and the type of reaction they catalyze

D

Gene probes can be labeled for detection with
A. enzymes
B. fluorescent dyes
C. radioisotopes
D. all choices
E. none of choices

A

A culture with constant environmental conditions maintained through continual provision of nutrient and removal of waste is called ____ culture system
A. continuous
B. batch
C. fed-batch
D. semicontinuous

D

Plant roots provide various growth factors for soil bacteria, and the bacteria help fertilize the plant by supplying it with minerals. This is an example of:
A. antagonism
B. commensalism
C. parasitism
D. synergism
E. mutualism

D

Split genes
A. are common in prokaryotes and eukaryotes
B. only have exons initially transcribed to mRNA
C. have introns located only at the beginning and end of a coding region.
D. use spliceosomes to excise introns and then join exons.
E. all are correct

E

Transgenic animals
A. can be engineered to become factories for manufacturing proteins
B. are often obtained from germ line engineering
C. will pass the genes on to their offspring
D. commonly include mice
E. all are correct

C

Given a log phase bacterial culture with 1x10^6 cells per ml and a generation time of 30 minutes, how long does it take the culture to reach a density of 6.4x10^7 cells per ml?
A. 1 hr
B. 2 hrs
C. 3 hrs
D 4 hrs

D

Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated on the shelf of a refrigerator, out on a lab benchtop, on the shelf of a 37degC incubator and on the shelf of a 50degC incubator. After incubation, there was not growth at 37degC and 50degC, slight growth on the benchtop, and abundant growth at refrigeration, What term could be used for this species?
A. halophile
B. mesophile
C. anaerobe
D. psychrophile
E. capnophile

A

The non-transcribed region of DNA to which RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription is called the
A. promoter
B. operator
C. operon
D. exon
E. intron

C

Which of the following is a serious concern when performing PCR?
A. high temperture
B. restriction enzymes are difficult to obtain in adequate quantities
C. introduction and amplification of contaminating DNA
D. exposure to radiation by the lab personnel
E. it is a very time consuming process

C

The limitation on microbial growth rate at high nutrient level is
A. the rate of protein synthesis
B. the rate of DNA replication
C. The saturation of the transport proteins for nutrient uptake
D. all choices

D

Organisms that grow near deep-sea volcanic vents are likely to be
A. psychrophilic
B. psychrotrophic
C. mesophilic
D. thermophilic

C

Cultures of a bacterial species were inoculated out on the incubator shelf, in an anaerobic jar and in a candle jar. After incubation there was moderate growth of cultures in the candle and anaerobic jars, but heavy growth of the culture on the incubator shelf. This species is a/an:
A. aerobe
B. anaerobe
C. facultative anaerobe
D. microaerophile
E. capnophile

B

The energy required to bring the substrates of a reaction together in the correct way to reach the transition is called
A. free energy
B. activation energy
C. enthalpy
D. entropy

B

During aerobic cellular respiration, the final electron acceptor is:
A. pyruvic acid
B. oxygen
C. nitrate
D. cytochrome c.
E. FAD

D

An organic nutrient that cannot be synthesized by the organism and must be provided is called a/an:
A. element
B. macronutrient
C. water
D. growth factor
E. trace element

B

An organism with a temperature growth range of 45degC to 60degC would be called a/an:
A. extremophile
B. thermophile
C. psychrophile
D. facultative psychrophile
E. thermoduric

E

Among the microorganisms, various genomes can include:
A. chromosomes
B. plasmids
C. mitochondrial DNA
D. chloroplast DNA
E. all choices

E

In eukaryotes, glycolysis takes place:
A. in the mitochondria
B. in the endoplasmic reticulum
C. in the cell membrane
D. in the nucleus
E. in the cytoplasm

E

A sequence of bases on a gene that does not code for protein is called a/an
A. promoter
B. operator
C. operon
D. exon
E. intron

D

Enzymes that are produced only when substrate is present are termed
A. exoenzymes
B. endoenzymes
C. constitutive enzymes
D. induced enzymes
E. conjugated enzymes

A

Which is incorrect about inducible operons?
A. they have genes turned off by a buildup of end product
B. They are often for catabolic pathways
C. they are normally turned off
D. they are turned on by the substrate of the enzyme
E. they include the lac operon

C

The reactions of fermentatioin function to produce ___ molecules for use in glycolysis
A. pyruvic acid
B. ATP
C. NAD
D. NADH
E. glucose

B

At 4pm a closed flask of sterile broth is inoculated with 10000 cells. The lag phase last 1 hr. At 9pm the log phase culture has a population of 65 million cells. The mean time generation is approximately
A. 10 minutes
B. 20 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 40 minutes

C

When determinig the sequence of nucleotides in an unknown sample of DNA, which method is used to sequence the DNA?
A. PCR
B. Cloning
C. Sanger
D. Southern blot hybridization

B

In which pathway is the most NADH generated?
A. electron transport system
B. Krebs cycle
C. glycolysis
D. alcoholic fermentation
E. mixed acid fermentation

D

All of the following pertain to RNA virus replication, except
A. positive-sense viruses first replicate a negative stran as a template
B. retrovirus synthesize DNA from their RNA genome
C. retroviruses carry reverse transcriptase into the host cell
D. negative-sense viruses directly undergo translation
E. all choices

C

An apoenzyme
A. is part of a simple enzyme
B. is also called a coenzyme
C. contains the active site
D. is often an inorganic metal ion
E. is an RNA molecule

C

Facultative anaerobes usually possess:
A. catalase only
B. superoxide dismutase only
C. both catalase and superoxide dismutase.
D. neith catalase and superoxide disutase
E. alternative mechanisms for dealing with oxygen

C

Organisms that grow near deep-sea volcanic vents are likely to be
A. alkylophilic
B. acidophilic
C. barophilic or barotolerant
D. picrophile

B

If the DNA sequence is ATTCCGGA, the mRNA trascript would be
A. TAAGGCCT
B. UAAGGCCU
C. ATTCCGGA
D. GUUAATTG
E. CAAGGUTA

B

The genetic code is said to be _____ because more than one codon will specify a particular amino acid.
A. ambiguous
B. degenerate
C. multiplicative
D. repetitious

C

In Griffith's experiment with Streptococcus pneumonia rough non-encapsulated Strepticocci were converted into smooth encapsulated Strepticocci in the presence of the heat killed smoth encapsulated Streptococci. What is the term that describes this process?
A. transduction
B. conjugation
C. transformation
D. cloning

C

Enzymes function as catalysts by
A. bringing the substrates together at the active site, in effect concentrating them.
B. bringing the substrates together at the active site, correctly oriented for the reaction.
C. bringing the substrates together at the active site, in effect concentration them and bringing the substrates together at the active site correctly oriented for the reaction.
D. none of the choices

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