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A&P 2

The nasal cavity, pharynx, and larynx constitute the ________ portion of the airway.
A) conducting
B) exchange
C) respiratory
D) sinus
E) primary

C

The respiratory epithelium of the conducting airways consists of
A) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.
B) moist cuboidal epithelium.
C) simple squamous epithelium.
D) ciliated squamous epithelium.
E) surfactant cells.

A

The larynx, trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles all make up the
A) upper respiratory tract.
B) lower respiratory tract.
C) internal respiratory tract.
D) alveoli of the respiratory tract.
E) respiratory mucosa.

B

The respiratory mucosa consists of
A) epithelium and underlying layer of areolar tissue.
B) dense irregular connective.
C) stratified squamous cells.
D) fibrocartilage.
E) All of the answers are correct.

A

Tuberculosis results from an infection by the bacterium
A) Clostridium difficile.
B) Staphylococcus aureus.
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
D) Vancomycin-resistant streptococcus.
E) Tuberculin plumonae.

C

________ is the most common lethal inherited disease affecting individuals of Northern European descent.
A) MRSA
B) Congestive heart failure
C) Cystic fibrosis
D) Myasthenia gravis
E) Parkinson's disease

C

________ generally causes a rapid increase in the rate of mucus production in the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses.
A) Exposure to noxious stimuli
B) Exposure to unpleasant stimuli
C) Exposure to allergens
D) Exposure to debris or pathogens
E) All of the answers are correct.

E

The respiratory defense system is important because it
A) helps filter the air.
B) helps warm the air.
C) keeps out debris.
D) keeps out pathogens.
E) All of the answers are correct.

E

Air entering the body is filtered, warmed, and humidified by the
A) upper respiratory tract.
B) lower respiratory tract.
C) lungs.
D) alveoli.
E) bronchioles.

A

Inhaling through the nostrils is preferred over the mouth because
A) less resistance to flow.
B) it combines olfaction with respiration.
C) it allows better conditioning of the inhaled air.
D) bacteria won't be inhaled from the oral cavity.
E) it dries out the mouth.

C

Harry suffers from cystic fibrosis and has severe breathing difficulties. His problems result from
A) genetic mutation in cilia production.
B) laryngospasm.
C) thick secretions that are difficult to transport.
D) lack of neural control of respiration.
E) excessive mucus secretions in the trachea.

C

A patient with a connective tissue disease experiences increased pulmonary vascular resistance. Over a period of time you would expect to observe
A) increased cardiac output from the right ventricle.
B) increased cardiac output from the left ventricle.
C) increased thickness of the right ventricular wall.
D) distension of the pulmonary veins from the right lung.
E) no appreciable changes in heart structure or function.

C

The nasopharynx is divided from the rest of the pharynx by the
A) hard palate.
B) soft palate.
C) cribriform plate.
D) internal nares.
E) pharyngeal septum.

B

The ________ is shared by the respiratory and digestive systems.
A) pharynx
B) esophagus
C) trachea
D) windpipe
E) right mainstem bronchus

A

Which of the following organs is not part of the lower respiratory system?
A) oropharynx
B) trachea
C) larynx
D) bronchi
E) alveoli

A

The conchae
A) divide the nasal cavity into a right and a left side.
B) provide an opening into the pharynx.
C) provide a surface for the sense of smell.
D) create turbulence in the air to trap particulate matter in mucus.
E) provide an opening to paranasal sinuses.

D

Functions of the nasal cavity include all of the following, except
A) filtering the air.
B) warming the air.
C) humidifying the air.
D) acting as a damping chamber when coughing.
E) acting as a resonating chamber in speech.

D

The openings to the nostrils are the
A) external nares.
B) internal nares.
C) vestibules.
D) conchae.
E) nasal apertures.

A

The portion of the nasal cavity contained within the flexible tissues of the external nose is the
A) nasopharynx.
B) vestibule.
C) internal chamber.
D) conchae.
E) nasal septum.

B

The portion of the pharynx that receives both air and food is the
A) nasopharynx.
B) oropharynx.
C) laryngopharynx.
D) aeropharynx.
E) internal pharynx.

B

The nasal cavity is separated from the oral cavity by the
A) hard palate.
B) soft palate.
C) cribriform plate.
D) internal nares.
E) pharyngeal septum.

A

The common passageway shared by the respiratory and digestive systems is the
A) larynx.
B) glottis.
C) vestibule.
D) pharynx.
E) trachea.

D

The auditory tubes open into the
A) nasopharynx.
B) oropharynx.
C) laryngopharynx.
D) larynx.
E) nasal cavity.

A

The palatine tonsils lie in the walls of the
A) nasopharynx.
B) oropharynx.
C) laryngopharynx.
D) larynx.
E) nasal cavity.

B

The ________ is lined by stratified squamous epithelium.
A) nasopharynx
B) trachea
C) oropharynx
D) larynx
E) nasal cavity

C

Physical damage to the lamina propria of the nasal mucosa is likely to result in
A) epistaxis.
B) nasal congestion.
C) nosebleeds.
D) a deviated septum.
E) epistaxis or nosebleeds.

E

Which of the following is not true about the pharynx?
A) shared by the integumentary and respiratory systems
B) nasopharynx is superior
C) oropharynx connects to oral cavity
D) laryngopharynx ends at esophagus opening
E) solids, liquids, and gases pass through

A

Which of the following is not a function of the nasal mucosa?
A) humidify the incoming air
B) dehumidify the outgoing air
C) dehumidify the incoming air
D) trap particulate matter
E) cool outgoing air

C

Components of the upper respiratory system include all of the following, except the
A) lips.
B) nose.
C) nasal cavity.
D) pharynx.
E) paranasal sinuses.

A

The larynx contains ________ cartilages.
A) 14
B) 6
C) 9
D) 2
E) 5

C

The glottis is
A) the soft tissue that hangs off the end of the soft palate.
B) a flap of elastic cartilage.
C) the opening to the larynx.
D) the opening to the pharynx.
E) part of the hard palate.

C

The vocal folds are located within the
A) nasopharynx.
B) oropharynx.
C) larynx.
D) trachea.
E) bronchi.

C

The elastic cartilage that covers the opening to the larynx during swallowing is the
A) thyroid cartilage.
B) cricoid cartilage.
C) corniculate cartilage.
D) cuneiform cartilage.
E) epiglottis.

E

The largest cartilage of the larynx is the ________ cartilage.
A) thyroid
B) cricoid
C) cuneiform
D) arytenoid
E) epiglottic

A

The ring-shaped cartilage just inferior to the thyroid cartilage is the ________ cartilage.
A) epiglottis
B) cuneiform
C) corniculate
D) cricoid
E) arytenoid

D

The paired cartilages that articulate with the superior border of the cricoid cartilage are the ________ cartilages.
A) cricothyroid
B) innominate
C) cuneiform
D) corniculate
E) arytenoid

D

A common site to place a tracheostomy tube is through the ligament that connects the cricoid cartilage to the ________ cartilage.
A) thyroid
B) cuneiform
C) corniculate
D) epiglottic
E) vestibular

A

The placement of a tube directly into the trachea to bypass the larynx is termed a(n)
A) intubation.
B) tracheostomy.
C) tunnelization.
D) trachectomy.
E) catheterization.

B

The thyroid cartilage is attached to the cricoid cartilage by the
A) intrinsic ligaments.
B) extrinsic ligaments.
C) vestibular folds.
D) cricothyroid ligament.
E) intrinsic laryngeal muscles.

D

A pair of ligaments covered by laryngeal epithelium that function in sound production are the
A) intrinsic ligaments.
B) extrinsic ligaments.
C) ventricular folds.
D) vocal folds.
E) intrinsic laryngeal muscles.

D

Air passing through the glottis vibrates the vocal folds and produces
A) speech.
B) articulation.
C) phonation.
D) whistling.
E) ululation.

C

Tension on the vocal cords is regulated by the
A) movement of the arytenoid cartilages.
B) extrinsic ligaments.
C) contraction of laryngeal muscles.
D) movement of the arytenoid cartilages and contraction of laryngeal muscles.
E) extrinsic and intrinsic ligaments.

D

The laryngeal cartilage not composed of hyaline cartilage is the
A) arytenoid.
B) corniculate.
C) cricoid.
D) epiglottis.
E) thyroid.

D

An acute infection of the throat that can lead to swelling and closure of the glottis and cause suffocation is known as
A) laryngitis.
B) laryngospasm.
C) acute epiglottitis.
D) strep throat.
E) acute pharyngitis.

C

Contraction of the intrinsic laryngeal muscles can
A) move the cricoid cartilage.
B) close the glottis.
C) constrict the trachea.
D) move food from the larynx to the esophagus.
E) assist in breathing during exercise.

B

During swallowing, the
A) intrinsic laryngeal muscles contract.
B) extrinsic laryngeal muscles contract.
C) glottis closes.
D) epiglottis is depressed.
E) All of the answers are correct.

E

Tina is singing a song. At a certain point in the song she forces a large volume of air out of the glottis and at the same time increases the tension on her vocal cords. The sound that she produces is
A) low pitched and loud.
B) high pitched and loud.
C) low pitched and soft.
D) high pitched and soft.
E) medium pitched and soft.

B

The adult human trachea is about ________ in diameter and contains ________ tracheal cartilages.
A) 1.0 cm; 15-20
B) 1.0 cm; 10-15
C) 2.5 cm; 15-20
D) 2.5 cm; 40-50
E) 4.5 cm; 60-80

C

During a choking episode, most foreign objects are lodged in the ________ bronchus due to its larger diameter and steeper angle.
A) right primary
B) left primary
C) right secondary
D) left secondary
E) medial

A

Which of the following statements about the trachea is false?
A) is lined by pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
B) is reinforced with C-shaped cartilages
C) contains many mucous glands
D) alters its diameter in response to the autonomic nervous system
E) is reinforced with D-shaped cartilages

E

The airway that connects the larynx to the bronchial tree is the
A) trachea.
B) bronchiole.
C) laryngopharynx.
D) alveolar duct.
E) bronchus.

A

The ________ branch from the trachea at the carina.
A) terminal bronchioles
B) secondary bronchi
C) tertiary bronchi
D) primary bronchi
E) alveolar ducts

D

The C shape of the tracheal cartilages is important because
A) large masses of food can pass through the esophagus during swallowing.
B) large masses of air can pass through the trachea.
C) it facilitates turning of the head.
D) the bronchi are also C-shaped.
E) it permits the trachea to pinch shut prior to sneezing.

A

Secondary bronchi supply air to the
A) lungs.
B) lobes of the lungs.
C) lobules of the lungs.
D) alveoli.
E) alveolar ducts.

B

The interlobular septa divide the lungs into
A) lobes.
B) pulmonary lobules.
C) alveolar sacs.
D) vital capacity and residual volume.
E) visceral pleura and fibrous trabeculae.

B

The actual sites of gas exchange within the lungs are
A) bronchioles.
B) terminal bronchioles.
C) pleural spaces.
D) alveoli.
E) interlobular septa.

D

The respiratory membrane of the gas exchange surfaces consists of
A) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.
B) moist cuboidal epithelium.
C) simple squamous epithelium.
D) ciliated squamous epithelium.
E) surfactant cells.

C

The right lung is to ________ as the left lung is to ________.
A) three lobes; two lobes
B) two lobes; two lobes
C) two lobes; three lobes
D) three lobes; three lobes
E) four lobes; three lobes

A

The most superior portion of the lung is termed the
A) base.
B) apex.
C) cardiac notch.
D) hilus.
E) epipleurium.

B

The number of lobes in the right lung is
A) greater than the number of lobes in the left lung.
B) less than the number of lobes in the left lung.
C) equal to the number of lobes in the left lung.

A

Damage to the type II pneumocytes of the lungs would result in
A) a loss of surfactant.
B) an increased rate of gas exchange.
C) decreased surface tension in the alveoli.
D) expansion of alveoli.
E) All of the answers are correct.

A

Primary bronchi are to ________ as secondary bronchi are to ________.
A) extrapulmonary bronchi; intrapulmonary bronchi
B) lobar bronchi; intrapulmonary bronchi
C) intrapulmonary bronchi; lobar bronchi
D) trachea; pharynx
E) secondary bronchi; alveolar ducts

A

Roughly ________ terminal bronchioles arise from each tertiary bronchus.
A) 1500
B) 3000
C) 6500
D) 10,000
E) 100,000

C

Respiratory function deteriorates as a result of pneumonia because inflammation
A) causes fluids to leak into the alveoli.
B) causes respiratory bronchioles to swell and dilate.
C) causes the lungs to leak air into the thorax.
D) reduces movement of the epiglottis.
E) reduces the size of the pleural cavity.

A

The resulting pain and inflammation when pleural fluid is unable to prevent friction between the opposing pleural surfaces is known as
A) pleurisy.
B) pulmonary hypertension.
C) asthma.
D) emphysema.
E) COPD.

A

A pulmonary embolism can be caused by ________ becoming trapped in a pulmonary artery.
A) blood clots
B) masses of fat
C) air bubbles
D) circulating objects in the blood
E) All of the answers are correct.

E

Blockage of pulmonary blood flow by a clot or similar obstruction is
A) emphysema.
B) COPD.
C) anoxia.
D) pulmonary embolism.
E) pneumothorax.

D

The condition resulting from inadequate production of surfactant and the resultant collapse of alveoli is
A) respiratory distress syndrome.
B) COPD.
C) anoxia.
D) pulmonary embolism.
E) pneumothorax.

A

Asthma is
A) a collapsed lung.
B) an acute condition resulting from unusually sensitive, irritated conducting airways.
C) an obstructive tumor.
D) characterized by fluid buildup in the alveoli.
E) caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

B

Which of these descriptions best matches the term
bronchiolar smooth muscle?
A) accessory muscle of expiration
B) accessory muscle of inspiration
C) primary muscle of inspiration
D) contraction increases airway resistance
E) affects lung compliance

D

Which respiratory organ(s) has a cardiac notch?
A) right lung
B) left lung
C) right primary bronchus
D) left primary bronchus
E) both the right and the left lungs

B

The process by which dissolved gases are exchanged between the blood and interstitial fluids is
A) pulmonary ventilation.
B) external respiration.
C) internal respiration.
D) cellular respiration.
E) breathing.

C

Determination of blood gases includes testing an arterial sample for
A) pH.
B) PO2.
C) PCO2.
D) PO2 and PCO2 only.
E) pH, PO2, and PCO2.

E

The unit of measurement for pressure preferred by many respiratory therapists is
A) mm Hg.
B) torr.
C) cm H2O.
D) psi.
E) centigrade.

B

When there is no air movement, the relationship between the intrapulmonary and atmospheric pressure is that
A) they are equal.
B) intrapulmonary pressure is greater than atmospheric.
C) atmospheric pressure is less than intrapulmonary.
D) atmospheric pressure is more than intrapulmonary.
E) intrapulmonary pressure is less than atmospheric.

A

External respiration involves the
A) movement of air into and out of the lungs.
B) diffusion of gases between the alveoli and the circulating blood.
C) exchange of dissolved gases between the blood and the interstitial fluid.
D) binding of oxygen by hemoglobin.
E) utilization of oxygen by tissues to support metabolism.

B

Which direction does carbon dioxide move during internal respiration?
A) from the blood into the tissue cells
B) from the blood into the lungs
C) from the lungs into the atmosphere
D) from the tissue cells into the blood
E) from the lungs into the blood

D

Boyle's law states that the pressure of a gas is:
A) inversely proportional to volume of its container.
B) always higher in the atmosphere than in the lungs.
C) directly proportional to temperature.
D) inversely proportional to temperature.
E) directly proportional to the volume of its container.

A

Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is
A) greater than intraalveolar pressure.
B) less than the pressure in the atmosphere.
C) less than intrapulmonic pressure.
D) equal to the pressure in the atmosphere.
E) greater than the pressure in the atmosphere.

E

During quiet breathing,
A) only the internal intercostal muscles contract.
B) inspiration involves muscular contractions and expiration is passive.
C) inspiration is passive and expiration involves muscular contractions.
D) inspiration and expiration are both passive.
E) inspiration and expiration involve muscular contractions.

B

What is one atmosphere of pressure?
A) 760 mm Hg
B) 1000 mm Hg
C) 105 mm Hg
D) 45 mm Hg
E) 650 mm Hg

A

If the volume of the lungs increases, what happens to the air pressure inside the lungs?
A) decreases
B) increases and possibly damages the lungs
C) increases twice the amount of the increase in volume
D) remains constant
E) increases

A

What occurs if intrapulmonic pressure is 763 mm Hg?
A) hyperventilation
B) exhalation
C) pause in breathing
D) apnea
E) inhalation

B

During exercise, which of the following contract for active exhalation:
A) rectus abdominis and internal intercostal muscles
B) diaphragm and internal intercostal muscles
C) rectus abdominis and diaphragm muscles
D) diaphragm and external intercostal muscles
E) pectoralis major and serratus anterior muscles

A

The term ________ describes the result from an injury that permits air to leak into the intrapleural space.
A) pleurisy
B) pneumonia
C) pneumothorax
D) pulmonary edema
E) emphysema

C

Quiet breathing is to ________ as shallow breathing is to ________.
A) eupnea; diaphragmatic breathing
B) eupnea; costal breathing
C) costal breathing; eupnea
D) costal breathing; diaphragmatic
E) diaphragmatic breathing; eupnea

B

________ involves active inspiratory and expiratory movements and calls on accessory muscles to assist with inhalation, while exhalation involves contraction of the internal intercostal muscles and sometimes abdominal muscles too.
A) Eupnea
B) Forced breathing
C) Costal breathing
D) Vital breathing
E) Passive breathing

B

________ is the amount of air that moves into the respiratory system during a single respiratory cycle.
A) Residual volume
B) Expiratory reserve volume
C) Inspiratory reserve volume
D) Tidal volume
E) Inspiratory capacity

D

________ is the amount of air that you can inhale above the resting tidal volume.
A) Residual inhaled volume
B) Expiratory reserve volume
C) Inspiratory reserve volume
D) Enhanced tidal volume
E) Inspiratory capacity

C

Which of the following muscles might be recruited to increase inspired volume?
A) sternocleidomastoid
B) pectoralis minor
C) scalenes
D) serratus anterior
E) All of the answers are correct.

E

Expiratory movements are produced by contraction of the ________ muscle.
A) scalene
B) diaphragm
C) internal intercostal
D) external intercostal
E) serratus anterior

C

When the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract,
A) the volume of the thorax increases.
B) the volume of the thorax decreases.
C) the volume of the lungs decreases.
D) the lungs shrink.
E) expiration occurs.

A

Which of these descriptions best matches the term external intercostal?
A) accessory muscle of expiration
B) accessory muscle of inspiration
C) primary muscle of inspiration
D) contraction increases airway resistance
E) affects lung compliance

C

Increasing the alveolar ventilation rate will
A) decrease the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli.
B) decrease the rate of oxygen diffusion from the alveoli to the blood.
C) increase the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli.
D) decrease the rate of carbon dioxide diffusion from the blood to the alveoli.
E) hardly affect either the partial pressure or diffusion of gases.

A

Pulmonary ventilation refers to the
A) movement of air into and out of the lungs.
B) movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood.
C) movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the interstitial space.
D) movement of dissolved gases from the interstitial space to the cells.
E) utilization of oxygen.

A

Alveolar ventilation refers to the
A) movement of air into and out of the lungs.
B) movement of air into and out of the alveoli.
C) movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood.
D) movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the alveoli.
E) utilization of oxygen by alveolar cells to support metabolism.

B

The function of pulmonary ventilation is to
A) remove carbon dioxide from the blood.
B) supply oxygen to the blood.
C) maintain adequate alveolar ventilation.
D) remove air from dead air space.
E) prevent gas exchange in the bronchioles.

C

If a patient inhales as deeply as possible and then exhales as much as possible, the volume of air expelled would be the patient's
A) tidal volume.
B) inspiratory reserve volume.
C) expiratory reserve volume.
D) reserve volume.
E) vital capacity.

E

________ = respiratory rate × (tidal volume - anatomic dead space).
A) Vital capacity
B) Respiratory minute volume
C) Pulmonary ventilation rate
D) Alveolar ventilation rate
E) External respiration rate

D

Boyle's Law of Gases states that
A) the pressure and volume of a gas are equal.
B) as the temperature goes up, the pressure goes up.
C) the total gas pressure is equal to the sum of the partial pressures.
D) the concentration of dissolved gas is proportional to its partial pressure.
E) if the volume goes up, the pressure goes down.

E

Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is
A) less than the pressure in the atmosphere.
B) greater than the pressure in the atmosphere.
C) equal to the pressure in the atmosphere.
D) greater than intraalveolar pressure.
E) less than intrapulmonic pressure.

B

As an astronaut is lifted into Earth's orbit, what is the first change to take place in response to the drop in cabin pressure?
A) increased hematocrit
B) renal hypoxia
C) increased alveolar ventilation rate
D) decreased alveolar PO2
E) decreased hemoglobin saturation

D

While playing in an intramural football game, Joe is tackled so hard that he breaks a rib. He can actually feel a piece of the rib sticking through the skin and he is having a difficult time breathing. Joe probably is suffering from
A) a collapsed trachea.
B) an obstruction in the bronchi.
C) a pneumothorax.
D) decreased surfactant production.
E) a bruised diaphragm.

C

Which of the following can be calculated if the tidal volume and respiratory rate are known?
A) minute volume
B) inspiratory reserve volume
C) expiratory reserve volume
D) anatomical dead space
E) forced vital capacity

A

Henry's law states that
A) gas volume and temperature are directly proportional.
B) gas volume and pressure are inversely proportional.
C) the volume of gas that will dissolve in a solvent is proportional to the solubility of the gas and the gas pressure.
D) in a mixture of gases such as air, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of the gases in the mixture.
E) gas pressure is inversely proportional to gas volume.

C

Dalton's law states that
A) gas volume and temperature are directly proportional.
B) gas volume and pressure are inversely proportional.
C) the volume of gas that will dissolve in a solvent is proportional to the solubility of the gas and the gas pressure.
D) in a mixture of gases such as air, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of the gases in the mixture.
E) gas pressure is inversely proportional to gas volume.

D

The partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood is approximately
A) 40 mm Hg.
B) 45 mm Hg.
C) 50 mm Hg.
D) 70 mm Hg.
E) 100 mm Hg.

E

The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in venous blood is approximately
A) 40 mm Hg.
B) 45 mm Hg.
C) 50 mm Hg.
D) 70 mm Hg.
E) 100 mm Hg.

B

The partial pressure of oxygen in the interstitial space of peripheral tissues is approximately
A) 40 mm Hg.
B) 45 mm Hg.
C) 50 mm Hg.
D) 70 mm Hg.
E) 100 mm Hg.

A

The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the interstitial space of peripheral tissues is approximately
A) 35 mm Hg.
B) 45 mm Hg.
C) 55 mm Hg.
D) 70 mm Hg.
E) 100 mm Hg.

B

Decompression sickness is a painful condition that develops when a person is exposed to a sudden drop in atmospheric pressure. Bubbles of ________ gas are responsible for the problem.
A) nitrogen
B) oxygen
C) carbon dioxide
D) helium
E) carbon monoxide

A

Each of the following factors affects the rate of external respiration, except the
A) PO2 of the alveoli.
B) PCO2 of the blood.
C) thickness of the respiratory membrane.
D) diameter of an alveolus.
E) solubility of oxygen in plasma.

D

The partial pressure of oxygen in atmospheric air at sea level is
A) greater than the partial pressure of oxygen in atmospheric air at the top of Mt. Everest.
B) less than the partial pressure of oxygen in atmospheric air at the top of Mt. Everest.
C) equal to the partial pressure of oxygen in atmospheric air at the top of Mt. Everest.

A

The partial pressure of carbon dioxide is greatest in
A) venous blood.
B) alveolar air.
C) expired air.
D) inspired air.
E) arterial blood.

A

A SCUBA diver has been deep underwater and suddenly rises to the surface too fast. Why does the diver get decompression sickness?
A) Pressure decreases and carbon dioxide rushes into cells.
B) Pressure changes too fast and the carbon dioxide in the blood forms bubbles.
C) Pressure decreases too fast and nitrogen gas in the blood forms bubbles.
D) The gas in the SCUBA tank had too much pressure and rapid ascent forces too much air into the blood.
E) Pressure increases too fast and too much oxygen enters the blood and forms bubbles.

C

Dalton's Law of gases relates to:
A) partial pressure of a gas in a mixture of gases
B) temperature and pressure of gases
C) solubility of gases
D) gas pressure and saturation of hemoglobin
E) volume and gas pressure

A

The chloride shift occurs in order to
A) force oxygen out of the blood and into tissues.
B) transport bicarbonate ions into the blood plasma.
C) produce salt for the cytosol of blood cells.
D) produce carbonic acid.
E) pump hydrochloric acid out of gastric cells.

B

About 70% of carbon dioxide is transported in deoxygenated blood
A) as dissolved CO2 in the blood plasma.
B) as bicarbonate ions bound to hemoglobin in red blood cells.
C) combined with hemoglobin as carbaminohemoglobin.
D) as bicarbonate ions in the blood plasma.
E) as carbonic acid in the red blood cells.

D

Carbon dioxide and water combine to form
A) hydrochloric acid.
B) oxygen.
C) carbonic acid.
D) carbaminohemoglobin.
E) nitric acid.

C

When does oxyhemoglobin form during respiration?
A) during external respiration
B) immediately after carbon dioxide enters the blood
C) when the chloride shift occurs
D) during pulmonary ventilation
E) during internal respiration

A

At a PO2 of 70 mm Hg and normal temperature and pH, hemoglobin is ________ percent saturated with oxygen.
A) 10
B) 25
C) 50
D) 75
E) more than 90

E

Most of the oxygen transported by the blood is
A) dissolved in plasma.
B) bound to hemoglobin.
C) in ionic form as solute in the plasma.
D) bound to the same protein as carbon dioxide.
E) carried by white blood cells.

B

Most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is transported as
A) solute dissolved in the plasma.
B) carbaminohemoglobin.
C) bicarbonate ions.
D) solute dissolved in the cytoplasm of red blood cells.
E) carbonic acid.

C

Which of the following factors would increase the amount of oxygen discharged by hemoglobin to peripheral tissues?
A) decreased temperature
B) decreased pH
C) increased tissue PO2
D) decreased amounts of DPG
E) All of the answers are correct.

B

Each 100 ml of blood leaving the alveolar capillaries carries away roughly ________ ml of oxygen.
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 50
E) 75

B

Under quiet conditions, blood returning to the heart retains about ________ of its oxygen content when it leaves the lungs.
A) 25 percent
B) 50 percent
C) 75 percent
D) 90 percent
E) 100 percent

C

For maximum loading of hemoglobin with oxygen at the lungs, the
A) PCO2 should be high.
B) pH should be slightly acidic.
C) PO2 should be about 70 mm Hg.
D) DPG levels in the red blood cells should be high.
E) PCO2 should be low.

E

Carbonic anhydrase
A) is in RBCs.
B) is an enzyme.
C) can increase the amount of bicarbonate ion in plasma.
D) can decrease the amount of bicarbonate ion in plasma.
E) All of the answers are correct.

E

The percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the pH is 7.6 is
A) greater than the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the pH is 7.2.
B) less than the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the pH is 7.2.
C) equal to the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the pH is 7.2.

A

Which statement about the chloride shift is false?
A) involves a movement of chloride ion into RBCs
B) depends on the chloride-bicarbonate countertransporter
C) involves a movement of bicarbonate ions into the plasma
D) is driven by a rise in PCO2
E) causes RBCs to swell

E

The percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the temperature is 38 degrees centigrade is
A) greater than the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the temperature is 43 degrees centigrade.
B) less than the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the temperature is 43 degrees centigrade.
C) equal to the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the temperature is 43 degrees centigrade.

A

Low pH alters hemoglobin structure so that oxygen binds less strongly to hemoglobin at low PO2. This increases the effectiveness of
A) external respiration.
B) internal respiration.
C) carbon dioxide transport.
D) hemoglobin synthesis.
E) acid-base balance.

B

Hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when the BPG level is high is
A) greater than hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when the BPG level is low.
B) less than hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when the BPG level is low.
C) equal to hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when the BPG level is low.

B

The most important chemical regulator of respiration is
A) oxygen.
B) carbon dioxide.
C) bicarbonate ion.
D) sodium ion.
E) hemoglobin.

B

A 10-percent increase in the level of carbon dioxide in the blood will
A) decrease the rate of breathing.
B) increase the rate of breathing.
C) decrease pulmonary ventilation.
D) decrease the alveolar ventilation rate.
E) decrease the vital capacity.

B

The term hypercapnia refers to
A) the cessation of breathing.
B) elevated PCO2.
C) elevated PO2.
D) an increase in pH.
E) labored breathing.

B

The apneustic centers of the pons
A) inhibit the pneumotaxic and inspiratory centers.
B) provide stimulation to the inspiratory center.
C) monitor blood gas levels.
D) alter chemoreceptor sensitivity.
E) generate the gasp reflex.

B

All of the following provide chemoreceptor input to the respiratory centers of the medulla oblongata, except the
A) olfactory epithelium.
B) medullary chemoreceptors.
C) aortic body.
D) carotid body.
E) All of the answers are correct.

A

Sympathetic input to the smooth muscle tissue in bronchioles causes all of these except
A) bronchoconstriction.
B) a bigger lumen.
C) less airway resistance.
D) activation of beta-two receptors.
E) relaxation.

A

In quiet breathing,
A) inspiration and expiration involve muscular contractions.
B) inspiration is passive and expiration involves muscular contractions.
C) inspiration involves muscular contractions and expiration is passive.
D) inspiration and expiration are both passive.
E) inspiration is deep and forceful.

C

Breathing that involves active inspiratory and expiratory movements is called
A) eupnea.
B) hyperpnea.
C) diaphragmatic breathing.
D) costal breathing.
E) shallow breathing.

B

The normal rate and depth of breathing is established by the ________ center.
A) apneustic
B) pneumotaxic
C) inspiratory
D) expiratory
E) ventral respiratory

C

Prolonged inspirations can result from stimulating the ________ center.
A) apneustic
B) pneumotaxic
C) expiratory
D) baroreceptor
E) chemoreceptor

A

The pneumotaxic center of the pons
A) sets the at-rest respiratory pattern.
B) prolongs inspiration.
C) modifies the rate and depth of breathing.
D) suppresses the expiratory center in the medulla.
E) stimulates the dorsal respiratory group.

C

Higher brain centers that alter the activity of the respiratory centers include all of the following, except
A) cortical association areas.
B) the precentral motor gyrus.
C) the limbic system.
D) the hypothalamus.
E) Broca's center.

B

The Hering-Breuer reflex
A) functions to increase ventilation with changes in blood pressure.
B) alters pulmonary ventilation when the PO2 changes.
C) alters pulmonary ventilation when the PCO2 changes.
D) protects the lungs from damage due to overinflation.
E) is an important aspect of normal, quiet breathing.

D

Pneumotaxic centers in the pons
A) inhibit the apneustic centers.
B) promote passive or active exhalation.
C) receive input from the hypothalamus and cerebrum.
D) modify respiratory rate and depth.
E) All of the answers are correct.

E

Blocking afferent action potentials from the chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies would interfere with the brain's ability to regulate breathing in response to
A) changes in PCO2.
B) changes in PO2.
C) changes in pH.
D) changes in blood pressure.
E) changes in PCO2, PO2, and pH.

E

Damage to the phrenic nerves would
A) increase respiratory rate.
B) increase the tidal volume.
C) force reliance on costal breathing.
D) result in greater pressure differences between the lungs and the outside air.
E) have little effect on ventilation.

C

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