NUR314 - Health Assessment - Exam 3 - Quiz questions

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Multple Choice Review Questions exclusive to Health Assessment Online Self Study Course, 5th Edition, Quiz 4, and Exam 3 Practice Quiz ADDED 05/08: Quiz 5

Functions of the skin include:

A. protection, prevention, perception, and production of vitamin D.
B. temperature regulation, communication, and identification.
C. All of the above.
D. None of the above.

C. All of the above.

You are conducting an in-service on aging skin for nurses and students assigned to a medical floor at the local hospital. Which of the following pieces of information is essential for your in-service to include?

A. The loss of collagen increases the risk of shearing, tearing injuries.
B. Thinning and flattening of the stratum corneum increases absorption of chemicals.
C. Diminished vascularity and increased vascular fragility lead to senile purpura.
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Casey Galen, a student nurse, conducts a dermatology in-service for nurses and students assigned to a medical surgical floor at the local hospital. Ms. Galen stresses the impact of accumulated risk factors in skin disease and breakdown. Such factors include:

A. loss of protective cushioning of the epidermal and dermal skin layers.
B. decreased vascular fragility.
C. lifetime of environmental trauma.
D. All of the above.

C. lifetime of environmental trauma.

Mrs. Jones is a 65-year-old patient who presents with complaints of skin spots during a dermatology follow-up. As the health care provider, you note some hyperpigmentation in this aging adult. On examination, you would expect to see:

A. café au lait spots and hemangioma.
B. keratosis and lentigines.
C. linea nigra and chloasma.
D. None of the above.

B. keratosis and lentigines.

Casey Galen, a student nurse, conducts a dermatology in-service for nurses and students assigned to a medical surgical floor at the local hospital. Casey covers skin changes indicative of prolonged sun exposure and shows slides of precancerous lesions. Which of the following is descriptive of a precancerous keratotic lesion?

A. Raised, thickened areas of pigmentation, which look crusted, scaly, and warty
B. A raised, thickened, crusted area of dark pigmentation that looks "stuck on" and greasy
C. A raised, rough plaque of red-tan pigmentation with a silver-white scale
D. A raised, thickened, dry area of decreased pigmentation with a tightly packed set of papules

C. A raised, rough plaque of red-tan pigmentation with a silver-white scale

John, a baby boy, is admitted to the transition nursery for a comprehensive physical, medications, and a bath prior to being transferred to the postpartum floor. Before you conduct the physical assessment, you review common skin variations of the newborn. Which of the following conditions requires further evaluation by the in-house neonatal nurse practitioner?

A. Cutis marmorata, which is a mottling of the trunk and extremities
B. Harlequin pattern, a condition that causes one side of the body to appear deep red and the other side pale, with a distinct demarcation down the midline
C. A grouping of café au lait spots
D. Erythema toxicum, a condition that causes punctuate macular-papular rash on cheeks, truck, back, and buttocks

C. A grouping of café au lait spots

Today is your last day of an emergency room (ER) rotation. A mother brings her 3-year-old child to the ER to be examined after a fall. The child is dressed in clothing that, although clean, is worn and wrinkled. The child sits quietly without fidgeting, arms in her lap, staring at the floor; she remains silent when you try to engage her. As her mother explains the circumstances of the fall and the resulting injuries, you wonder about the possibility of physical abuse. An x-ray is ordered to rule out fracture of the left arm. Which of the following physical findings might suggest abuse?

A. An x-ray depicting a simple fracture of the left arm
B. A skinned knee with torn pants midway down same leg
C. Three bite marks on the right upper arm/shoulder area
D. None of the above

C. Three bite marks on the right upper arm/shoulder area

An example of a primary lesion is a(n):

A. erosion.
B. ulcer.
C. urticaria.
D. port-wine stain.

C. urticaria.

Jesse Carter, a student nurse, has been assigned to teach fourth-graders about hygiene. Part of her lesson will focus on the apocrine glands. Which of the following statements is true?

A. The apocrine glands, a type of sweat gland, are mainly located in the axillae, anogenital area, nipples, and navel.
B. These glands produce a thick, milky secretion and open into the hair follicles.
C. The apocrine glands become active during puberty and decrease functioning in aging adults.
D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

Mr. Cook is a 53-year-old patient who comes to the clinic for routine follow-up for his chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following is indicative of COPD?

A. Acrocyanosis
B. Circumoral cyanosis
C. Pitting of nails
D. Clubbing of nails

D. Clubbing of nails

You are preparing the equipment that will be used to examine patients in the dermatology clinic. The equipment needed to assess the skin, its appendages and, if necessary, lesions include:

A. strong direct lighting (artificial light preferred), ruler, pen light, goniometer, gloves, filtered ultraviolet light, glass slide, and KOH.
B. strong direct lighting (natural daylight preferred), ruler, pen light, monometer, gloves, filtered ultraviolet light, glass slide, and KOH.
C. strong direct lighting (artificial light preferred), ruler, pen light, microscope, gloves, filtered ultraviolet light, glass slide, and KOH.
D. strong direct lighting (natural daylight preferred), ruler, pen light, magnifier, gloves, filtered ultraviolet light, glass slide, and KOH.

D. strong direct lighting (natural daylight preferred), ruler, pen light, magnifier, gloves, filtered ultraviolet light, glass slide, and KOH.

Essential components of a patient history for dermatology disorders include:

A. a previous history of skin disorders plus symptom analysis (or HPI) of current problems and allergies.
B. self-care behaviors, occupation, and hobbies.
C. prescribed medications, over-the-counter medications, herbs, and substance use.
D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

Mrs. Davids is a 55-year-old patient who presents with complaints of spots in her nails. As the health care provider, you know that the components of a nail examination include:

A. contour, consistency, and color.
B. shape, surface, and circulation.
C. clubbing, pitting, and grooving.
D. texture, toughness, and translucency.

A. contour, consistency, and color.

Mr. Holmes is a 54-year-old patient who comes to the clinic for an initial dermatology assessment. On examination, you note a suppurative, inflammatory skin lesion due to an infected hair follicle. Which of the following terms best describes this lesion?

A. Furuncle
B. Pustule
C. Fissure
D. Acne

A. Furuncle

The term used to describe the shape of a lesion as being circular is:

A. scaphoid.
B. annular.
C. confluent.
D. zosteriform.

B. annular.

The sloughing of necrotic inflammatory tissue that causes a deep depression in the skin that extends into the dermis is called:

A. gangrene.
B. dermanecrosis.
C. ulceration.
D. maceration.

C. ulceration.

Mrs. Wilder, a 42-year-old patient, presents to the dermatology clinic with a confluent and extensive patch of petechiae and ecchymoses; flat macular hemorrhage is called a:

A. purpura.
B. hemangioma.
C. hematoma.
D. telengiectasia.

A. purpura.

Mr. Verdana is a 41-year-old gentleman who presents with a complaint of skin problems. On examination you note single-chambered, superficial lesions containing free fluid > 1 cm in diameter, which are called:

A. furuncles.
B. vesicles.
C. wheals.
D. bullae.

D. bullae.

Which of the following terms describes "compact, desiccated flakes of skin from shedding of dead skin cells"?

A. Crust
B. Scale
C. Dandruff
D. Plaque

B. Scale

Elevated skin lesions that are greater than 1 cm in diameter are called:

A. bullae.
B. papules.
C. nodules.
D. furuncles.

C. nodules.

A scooped-out, shallow depression in the skin is called a/an:

A. ulcer.
B. excoriation.
C. fissure.
D. erosion.

D. erosion.

An elevated cavity containing thick, turbid fluid is a:
A. cyst.
B. vesicle.
C. bulla.
D. pustule.

D. pustule.

A solid, circumscribed palpable skin lesion, which is less than 1 cm in diameter, is a:

A. nodule.
B. bulla.
C. papule.
D. vesicle.

C. papule.

An elevated cavity containing free fluid that is less than 1 cm in diameter is a(n):

A. wheal.
B. vesicle.
C. bulla.
D. edema.

B. vesicle.

Mr. Shea is a 51-year-old patient who presents with complaints of a skin lesion. On examination, you note a linear skin lesion that runs along a nerve route. Which of the following terms best describes this lesion?

A. Zosteriform
B. Annular
C. Dermatome
D. Shingles

A. Zosteriform

Lichenification is/are:

A. tightly packed sets of papules.
B. thickening of the skin.
C. due to prolonged, intense scratching.
D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

Which of the following statements about hair is correct?

A. In humans, hair is vestigial.
B. In humans, hair is necessary to protect from cold or trauma.
C. Humans have one type of hair.
D. None of the above.

A. In humans, hair is vestigial.

Which of the following statements about sweat glands is correct?

A. Sweat glands are located everywhere on the skin except the palms and soles.
B. Sweat glands are eccrine glands that produce a thick, milky secretion and open into the hair follicles.
C. Eccrine glands mature by the time an infant is 2 months old.
D. All of the above

C. Eccrine glands mature by the time an infant is 2 months old.

Mrs. Black, a 29-year-old patient who is pregnant, comes to the office with concerns about skin changes. As the health care provider, you know that some skin changes occur during pregnancy as a result of increased pigmentation, including:

A. café au lait spots.
B. keratosis.
C. linea nigra.
D. lentigines.

C. linea nigra.

A flat macular hemorrhage is called a(n):

A. purpura.
B. ecchymosis.
C. petechiae.
D. hemangioma.

A. purpura.

Jesse Carter, a student nurse, has been assigned to teach fourth-graders about hygiene. She decides to begin the teaching module with a short lecture on the skin. Which of the following facts will Jesse include while discussing the skin's protective and adaptive properties?

A. The skin regulates body temperature. Heat is stored in fat pads or released through sweating.
B. The skin protects against infection. Normal skin flora fights off the invasion of microorganisms that can enter the body and cause infection.
C. The skin is an organ of excretion. It removes a significant amount of metabolic wastes, which are the byproducts of cellular decomposition such as minerals and urea.
D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

Jesse Carter, a student nurse, has been assigned to teach fourth-graders about hygiene. She decides that her teaching module will cover the oil-producing glands. Which of the following will Jesse include while discussing the skin's sebaceous glands?

A. The sebaceous glands produce sebum, a protective oily substance that prevents water loss from the skin.
B. Dry skin results from the loss of oil and is treated by moisturizers.
C. Sebaceous glands are located everywhere on the skin; they are most abundant in the scalp, forehead, face, and chin.
D. All of the above.

A. The sebaceous glands produce sebum, a protective oily substance that prevents water loss from the skin.

Jesse Carter, a student nurse, has been assigned to teach fourth-graders about hygiene. While preparing, Jesse adds information about the sweat glands. Which of the following will Jesse include while discussing this topic?

A. There are two types of sweat glands: the eccrine and the sebaceous.
B. The evaporation of sweat, which is a dilute saline solution, increases body temperature.
C. Eccrine glands produce sweat and are mainly located in the axillae, anogenital area, and navel.
D. Newborn infants do not sweat; they use compensatory mechanisms to control body temperature.

D. Newborn infants do not sweat; they use compensatory mechanisms to control body temperature.

Mr. Kinder is a 59-year-old patient who comes to the clinic for follow-up after an emergency room visit. On examination of the abdomen, you note ascites. Ascites is:
A. a bowel obstruction.
B. a proximal part of the large intestine.
C. an abnormal enlargement of the spleen.
D. an abnormal accumulation of serous fluid within the peritoneal cavity.

D. an abnormal accumulation of serous fluid within the peritoneal cavity.

Borborygmi is/are:

A. a midline longitudinal ridge in the abdomen.
B. normal hyperperistaltic bowel sounds.
C. an inflammation of the peritoneum.
D. obesity.

B. normal hyperperistaltic bowel sounds.

Mr. Walker is a 56-year-old man who comes to the ambulatory health center for a routine health assessment. On examination, you note hepatomegaly, which is:

A. enlargement of the liver.
B. bowel protrusion through abdominal musculature.
C. inflammation of the peritoneum.
D. a burning sensation in the upper abdomen.

A. enlargement of the liver.

Linea alba is/are the:

A. midline abdominal muscles extending from the rib cage to the pubic bone.
B. ligament extending from the pubic bone to the anterosuperior iliac spine.
C. midline tendinous seam joining the abdominal muscles.
D. angle formed by the twelfth rib and the vertebral column.

C. midline tendinous seam joining the abdominal muscles.

Pyrosis is:

A. an inflammation of the peritoneum.
B. a burning sensation in the upper abdomen.
C. a congenital narrowing of the pyloric sphincter.
D. an abnormally sunken abdominal wall.

B. a burning sensation in the upper abdomen.

Splenomegaly is defined as a(n):

A. outflow obstruction of the stomach.
B. abnormal enlargement of the spleen.
C. enlargement of the liver.
D. sunken abdominal wall.

B. abnormal enlargement of the spleen.

Viscera is the term given to:

A. bowel obstruction.
B. the midline longitudinal ridge in the abdomen.
C. a proximal part of the large intestine.
D. internal organs.

D. internal organs.

Pyloric stenosis is defined as a(n):

A. abnormal enlargement of the pyloric sphincter.
B. inflammation of the pyloric sphincter.
C. congenital narrowing of the pyloric sphincter.
D. None of the above.

C. congenital narrowing of the pyloric sphincter.

The spleen is:

A. a soft, lobulated gland behind the stomach.
B. a soft mass of lymphatic tissue on the posterolateral wall.
C. a bean-shaped, retroperitoneal gland.
D. None of the above.

B. a soft mass of lymphatic tissue on the posterolateral wall.

The pancreas is:

A. a soft, lobulated gland behind the stomach.
B. a soft mass of lymphatic tissue on the postlateral wall.
C. a bean-shaped, retroperitoneal gland.
D. None of the above

A. a soft, lobulated gland behind the stomach.

The liver is:

A. a soft, lobulated gland behind the stomach.
B. a soft mass of lymphatic tissue on the postlateral wall.
C. a bean-shaped, retroperitoneal gland.
D. None of the above.

D. None of the above.

Mrs. Walker is a 68-year-old patient who is in very good health and comes to the clinic for a routine health assessment. Even though she is in good health, she shows signs of aging. Which is true for older adults?

A. Decreased salivation leads to dry mouth.
B. Gastric acid secretion increases.
C. Liver size increases.
D. None of the above.

A. Decreased salivation leads to dry mouth.

Which is true about a newborn's umbilical cord?

A. It contains two veins.
B. It contains one artery.
C. It contains two arteries.
D. None of the above.

C. It contains two arteries.

Which of the following refers to the four layers of large, flat abdominal muscles?

A. Linea alba
B. Rectus abdominus
C. Ventral abdominal wall
D. None of the above

C. Ventral abdominal wall

Mr. Jeffries is a 48-year-old patient who comes to the clinic for a follow-up after an emergency room visit. On examination, you note a soft mass of lymphatic tissue immediately under the diaphragm, which is the:

A. gallbladder.
B. liver.
C. cecum.
D. spleen.

D. spleen.

A soft, lobulated gland located behind the stomach is the:

A. pancreas.
B. liver.
C. gallbladder.
D. spleen.

A. pancreas.

Mr. Bowers is a 39-year-old patient who presents to the clinic, and you examine the abdomen. The right upper quadrant of the abdomen contains which of the following organs?

A. Spleen
B. Liver
C. Cecum
D. Left ureter

B. Liver

The left upper quadrant of the abdomen contains which of the following organs?

A. Stomach
B. Gallbladder
C. Ureter
D. Ovary

A. Stomach

The right lower quadrant of the abdomen contains which of the following organs?

A. Duodenum
B. Liver
C. Sigmoid colon
D. Appendix

D. Appendix

Mr. Sanchez is a 48-year-old patient who presents for a routine health assessment, and you examine his abdomen. The left lower quadrant contains which of the following organs?

A. Pancreas
B. Sigmoid colon
C. Kidney
D. Gallbladder

B. Sigmoid colon

Mrs. Griffin is a 31-year-old patient who is pregnant. She comes to the clinic complaining of "morning sickness." The cause of this ailment is:

A. hormone changes.
B. esophageal reflux.
C. an increase in water being reabsorbed from the colon.
D. unknown.

D. unknown.

Mr. Kimbel is a 71-year-old patient who comes to the clinic with his daughter, who is concerned about a mole on her father's abdomen. You know that moles:

A. are common on the abdomen.
B. are uncommon on the abdomen.
C. always require a biopsy.
D. are no cause for concern.

A. are common on the abdomen.

Bowel sounds are:

A. high pitched.
B. air and fluid moving through the small intestine.
C. irregular.
D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

Finding mild tenderness is normal when:

A. palpating the kidneys.
B. palpating the sigmoid colon.
C. palpating the uterus.
D. None of the above.

B. palpating the sigmoid colon.

For the spleen to be palpable, it must be:

A. enlarged three times its normal size.
B. enlarged twice its normal size.
C. located superficially under the 11th rib.
D. rotated to the left side.

A. enlarged three times its normal size.

The left kidney usually:

A. can be felt easily.
B. can only be felt when the person breathes deeply.
C. is 1 cm lower than the right kidney.
D. cannot be felt.

D. cannot be felt.

Umbilical hernias in infants:

A. appear at 2 to 3 weeks of age.
B. are more prominent when the baby cries.
C. disappear by the time the baby is 1 year old.
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

The abdomen normally moves when a person breathes until the age of ____ years.

A. 4
B. 7
C. 14
D. 75

B. 7

Increased deposits of subcutaneous fat on the abdomen occur in:

A. toddlers.
B. teenagers.
C. aging adults.
D. pregnant women.

C. aging adults.

Which of the following physiologic processes takes place within the musculoskeletal system?

A. Hematopoiesis
B. Hemolysis
C. Hemoptysis
D. Hemianopsia

A. Hematopoiesis

Cartilage is which of the following?

A. Acellular
B. Avascular
C. Asynchronous
D. Atherosclerotic

B. Avascular

The functional unit of the skeletal system is the:

A. bursa.
B. articulation.
C. joint.
D. epiphysis.

C. joint.

Skeletal muscle is differentiated from other types of muscle by which of the following characteristics?

A. It is involuntary in its activity.
B. It is semivoluntary in nature.
C. It is under contractual regulation.
D. It is under voluntary control.

D. It is under voluntary control.

Bundles of muscle fibers that compose skeletal muscle are identified as:

A. fasciculi.
B. fasciculations.
C. ligaments.
D. tendons.

A. fasciculi.

The spinous processes that are prominent at the base of the neck are:

A. T7 and T8.
B. C7 and T1.
C. T12 and L1.
D. L3 and L4.

B. C7 and T1.

The shape of the spinal column and the resilient intervertebral disks facilitate:

A. greater mobility of the spinal column.
B. the ability to coordinate movement between the upper extremities and lower extremities.
C. ease and coordination of head and neck movement.
D. the ability to absorb a great deal of shock.

D. the ability to absorb a great deal of shock.

The shock absorber of the vertebral disks in the spine is which of the following?

A. Nucleus pulposus
B. Costal facet
C. Vertebral bursae
D. Nucleus fasciculi

A. Nucleus pulposus

The knee joint is the articulation of three bones, which are:

A. the femur, fibula, and patella.
B. the femur, radius, and olecranon process.
C. the fibula, tibia, and patella.
D. the femur, tibia, and patella.

D. the femur, tibia, and patella.

A pregnant woman is most likely to demonstrate which of the following alterations in her posture, which is directly related to her pregnancy?

A. Kyphosis
B. Lordosis
C. Scoliosis
D. List

B. Lordosis

Mrs. Bicker brings her infant son to the health clinic for a routine examination. When performing Ortolani's maneuver on the newborn infant, you feel a clunk as you abduct the infant's legs and flexed knees. The presence of a "clunk" is indicative of:

A. tibial torsion.
B. genu valgum.
C. hip dislocation.
D. talipes equinovarus.

C. hip dislocation.

Osteoporosis in older adults is due to which of the following factors?

A. Resorption of bone at a greater rate than deposition
B. Loss of water content and thinning of the intervertebral disks of the spinal column
C. A redistribution of fat and subcutaneous tissue
D. Loss of intervertebral cushioning resulting in an increased amount of weight-bearing on the long bones

A. Resorption of bone at a greater rate than deposition

Which of the following muscles may be congenitally absent in certain individuals?

A. Palmaris shortus
B. Palmaris longus
C. Peroneus secondus
D. Synovin membranous

B. Palmaris longus

Mrs. Moyer comes to the ambulatory health center for a routine assessment. After her examination, you suspect rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following characteristics differentiates rheumatoid arthritis from other MS conditions?

A. Stiffness associated with RA occurs mostly at night.
B. Pain associated with RA is worse at night.
C. RA involves symmetric joints.
D. Activity increases pain in the RA-affected joint.

C. RA involves symmetric joints.

Assessing an older adult patient's ability to engage in activities of daily living is a part of which assessment?

A. Developmental
B. Functional
C. Cultural
D. Screening

B. Functional

Mr. Lee comes to the office for a routine health assessment. As part of it, you perform a screening MS exam. This consists of all the following except:

A. inspection and palpation of joints integrated with each body region.
B. observation of ROM as the individual proceeds through motions required for preparation for the exam and during the exam.
C. testing muscle strength of the major muscle groups.
D. age-specific measures.

C. testing muscle strength of the major muscle groups.

A thickened synovial membrane is described as feeling:

A. rigid.
B. pliable.
C. constricted.
D. boggy.

D. boggy.

Crepitation is an audible sound that is produced by:

A. roughened articular surfaces moving over each other.
B. tendons or ligaments that slip over bones during motion.
C. joints that are stretched when placed in hyperflexion or hyperextension.
D. an inflamed bursa.

A. roughened articular surfaces moving over each other.

An increase in fluid within a bursa is manifested by which of the following characteristics?

A. A decrease in the expected ROM of the joint
B. Crepitus heard when putting the joint through ROM
C. A bulge that appears on the opposite side of the joint after pushing on the other side
D. Subluxation of the joint after flexing and extending the joint

C. A bulge that appears on the opposite side of the joint after pushing on the other side

Fluid within the bursa that results in synovial thickening is also described by which of the following terms?

A. Subluxation
B. Ankylosis
C. Effusion
D. Effleurage

C. Effusion

Heberden's and Bouchard's nodes are hard and nontender and are associated with:

A. osteoarthritis.
B. rheumatoid arthritis.
C. Dupuytren's contracture.
D. metacarpophalangeal bursitis.

A. osteoarthritis.

Having the individual place the backs of the hands together while flexing the wrist 90 degrees assesses for the presence of:

A. Dupuytren's contracture.
B. wrist ganglion.
C. carpal tunnel syndrome.
D. Tinel's sign.

C. carpal tunnel syndrome.

Which of the following would you expect to see in an individual who demonstrates genu valgum?

A. Bowleg
B. Knock-knee
C. Pigeon-toed
D. Clubfoot

B. Knock-knee

Ballottement of the patella is used to assess which of the following?

A. Fluid in the knee
B. Pain with knee flexion
C. Crepitus with palpation of the knee joint
D. Presence of an audible pop or click

A. Fluid in the knee

During the performance of the McMurray test, the examiner hears and feels a click, which is an indication of:

A. a torn cruciate ligament.
B. subluxation of the knee.
C. dislocation of the femoral head.
D. a torn meniscus

D. a torn meniscus

When you assess an individual for the presence of a herniated nucleus pulposus, which of the following maneuvers should you ask the individual to perform?

A. Raise the legs straight while keeping the knee extended.
B. Bend over and attempt to touch the ground while keeping the legs straight.
C. Do a knee bend.
D. Abduct and adduct the legs while keeping the knee extended.

A. Raise the legs straight while keeping the knee extended.

Mrs. Harris brings her newborn infant to the office for a routine health assessment. On examination, you measure the equality of the infant's leg lengths, called the allis test. This assesses the presence of:

A. talipes equinovarus.
B. tibial torsion.
C. hip dislocation.
D. Colles fracture.

C. hip dislocation.

An individual with functional scoliosis will demonstrate which of the following?

A. A lateral spinal curvature that remains visible in the standing and bending position
B. A lateral spinal curvature that remains at less than 20 degrees
C. A lateral spinal curvature that is visible in the standing position but disappears when the individual bends over
D. A lateral spinal curvature that affects either the thoracic area or the lumbar area but not both

C. A lateral spinal curvature that is visible in the standing position but disappears when the individual bends over

Mrs. Kinder brings her infant son in for a health assessment. On examination, you note polydactyly. An infant with polydactyly would be expected to manifest which of the following?

A. Digits that are webbed together
B. Digits that are nonfunctional
C. Extra digits
D. Digits with extra joints

C. Extra digits

The musculoskeletal system provides which of the following functions for the human body?

A. Protection and storage
B. Movement and elimination
C. Storage and control
D. Propulsion and preservation

A. Protection and storage

The joint is the functional unit of the musculoskeletal system and is the point at which:

A. the tendon is attached to the bone.
B. cartilage meets bone.
C. two or more bones are joined.
D. the bursa is interconnected with bone.

C. two or more bones are joined.

Synovial joints are freely movable because:

A. the ligaments holding the joint together are more elastic.
B. the bones that form the joint are separated from each other and enclosed in a fluid-filled cavity.
C. the muscles attached to the joint are shorter, thus giving them the ability to move in more directions.
D. they are composed of cartilage, which is very soft and cushiony.

B. the bones that form the joint are separated from each other and enclosed in a fluid-filled cavity.

The divisions of the spinal vertebrae include which of the following?

A. Cervical, thoracic, and scaphoid
B. Scapular, clavicular, and lumbar
C. Thoracic, lumbar, and coccygeal
D. Cervical, lumbar, and iliac

C. Thoracic, lumbar, and coccygeal

The lateral view of the spine demonstrates two types of curvature associated with specific divisions of the spinal columns. The two types are:

A. convex and concave.
B. convex and ellipsoid.
C. parabolic and concave.
D. parabolic and ellipsoid.

A. convex and concave.

The rotator cuff of the body is associated with which of the following joints?

A. Radiocarpal joint
B. Temporomandibular joint
C. Acetabular joint
D. Glenohumeral joint

D. Glenohumeral joint

Mrs. Jones is a 32-year-old patient who is pregnant and comes to the clinic for a routine health assessment. As part of your patient education, you tell Mrs. Jones that she may feel some discomfort during the third trimester of her pregnancy. What kind of discomfort do you tell her to expect?

A. Stiffer joints
B. Back pain
C. Osteoporosis
D. Kyphosis

B. Back pain

In which of the following ethnic groups would you expect to see the lowest incidence of osteoporosis?

A. Blacks
B. Whites
C. Asians/Pacific Islanders
D. Native Americans

A. Blacks

Which of the following complaints are the most common musculoskeletal concerns that prompt an individual to seek health care?

A. Joint pain and myalgia
B. Loss of function and joint pain
C. Neuralgia and loss of function
D. Neuralgia and myalgia

B. Loss of function and joint pain

A functional assessment is primarily concerned with gathering information related to:

A. range of motion.
B. activities of daily living.
C. transcultural variations.
D. developmental capabilities.

B. activities of daily living.

Mrs. Landers is a 53-year-old patient with rheumatoid arthritis. On examination, which of the following would you expect to find due to this type of arthritis?

A. Dislocation
B. Painful motion
C. Increased ROM
D. Muscle spasms

B. Painful motion

Mr. Jenkins is a 43-year-old patient who goes to the ambulatory health center with complaints of muscle pain. When testing for muscle strength, the examiner:

A. applies an opposing force against the individual's actions during ROM of a joint.
B. asks the individual to try to break the examiner's joint movements during ROM.
C. measures the degree of muscle tension developed during active extension and flexion of a joint.
D. can assume that if an individual has adequate active ROM that muscle strength is fully developed.

A. applies an opposing force against the individual's actions during ROM of a joint.

Mrs. Painter is a 62-year-old patient who comes to the clinic for a follow-up health assessment for complaints of joint tenderness. On examination you note a joint that has a boggy, soft feel to palpation. This is generally indicative of:

A. rheumatoid arthritis.
B. synovial thickening.
C. synovial subluxation.
D. crepitation.

B. synovial thickening.

Mr. Yoder is a 49-year-old patient who comes to the clinic for a physical examination for his job. On examination, you perform a Phalen's test. This is used to assess for the presence of:

A. elbow joint subluxation.
B. wrist ROM.
C. osteoporosis.
D. carpal tunnel syndrome.

D. carpal tunnel syndrome.

Fluid in the knee may be confirmed by performing:

A. Tinel's sign.
B. bulge sign.
C. ROM.
D. McMurray's test.

B. bulge sign.

A herniated nucleus pulposus will produce which of the following results when an individual performs a straight leg-raising test?

A. Numbness and tingling in the foot and ankle
B. Limited ROM of the hip
C. Back and leg pain
D. Clicking sound when the knee is extended and externally rotated

C. Back and leg pain

The rugae:

A. is a corpus spongiosum cone of erectile tissue.
B. is folds of thin skin of the scrotal wall.
C. controls the size of the scrotum.
D. is an acute inflammation of the testes.

B. is folds of thin skin of the scrotal wall.

A 24-year-old man has scrotal pain and marked erythema. The examiner considers epididymitis. What finding is consistent with this problem?

A. An uneven scrotal size and shape is observed.
B. The patient has anorexia and nausea.
C. The patient reports an acute onset of severe pain.
D. Urinalysis shows elevated WBCs and bacteria.

D. Urinalysis shows elevated WBCs and bacteria.

The cremaster is:

A. a sperm storage site.
B. the muscle that controls the size of the scrotum.
C. a muscular duct continuous with the epididymis.
D. a shoulder where the glans joins the shaft.

B. the muscle that controls the size of the scrotum.

The epididymis is:

A. a sperm storage site.
B. folds of thin skin on the scrotal wall.
C. the joining of the vas deferens with the seminal vesicle.
D. the muscle that controls the size of the scrotum.

A. a sperm storage site.

The vas deferens is:
A. a narrow tunnel inferior to the inguinal ligament.
B. a narrow tunnel superior to the inguinal ligament.
C. the joining of the vas deferens with the seminal vesicle.
D. a muscular duct continuous with the epididymis.

D. a muscular duct continuous with the epididymis.

The spermatic cord is most commonly described as:

A. combining the vas deferens and seminal vesicle.
B. the vas deferens approximated with other vessels.
C. a muscular duct continuous with the epididymis.
D. a narrow tunnel superior to the inguinal ligament.

B. the vas deferens approximated with other vessels.

The ejaculatory duct is:

A. the joining of the vas deferens and the seminal vesicle.
B. a muscular duct continuous with the epididymis.
C. a narrow tunnel inferior to the inguinal ligament.
D. a narrow tunnel superior to the inguinal ligament.

A. the joining of the vas deferens and the seminal vesicle.

The inguinal canal is:

A. a narrow tunnel inferior to the inguinal ligament.
B. a muscular duct continuous with the epididymis.
C. a narrow tunnel superior to the inguinal ligament.
D. the joining of the vas deferens and the seminal vesicle.

A. a narrow tunnel inferior to the inguinal ligament.

Nocturia is:

A. an advanced and fixed foreskin too tight to retract over the glans.
B. awakening in the night with a need to urinate.
C. a circumscribed collection of serous fluid in the tunica vaginalis surrounding the testes.
D. a prolonged, painful erection of the penis without sexual desire.

B. awakening in the night with a need to urinate.

Cryptorchidism is:

A. an advanced and fixed foreskin too tight to retract over the glans.
B. a circumscribed collection of serous fluid in the tunica vaginalis surrounding the testes.
C. undescended testes.
D. hard, subcutaneous plaques associated with painful bending of the erect penis.

C. undescended testes.

The corona is:

A. a shoulder where the glans joins the shaft.
B. a hood or flap of skin over the glans.
C. a corpus spongiosum cone of erectile tissue.
D. folds of thin skin on the scrotal wall.

A. a shoulder where the glans joins the shaft

Phimosis is:

A. undescended testes.
B. an advanced and fixed foreskin too tight to retract over the glans.
C. hard, subcutaneous plaques associated with painful bending of the erect penis.
D. a prolonged, painful erection of the penis without sexual desire.

B. an advanced and fixed foreskin too tight to retract over the glans.

Which of the following conditions would best utilize the assessment technique of transilluminatation?

A. Palpating for inguinal hernia
B. Observing for hydrocele
C. Observing for phimosis
D. Palpating for tender testes

B. Observing for hydrocele

Epispadias is:

A. a meatus opening on the dorsal side of the glans or shaft.
B. a circumscribed collection of serous fluid in the tunica vaginalis surrounding the testes.
C. undescended testes.
D. an acute inflammation of the testes.

A. a meatus opening on the dorsal side of the glans or shaft.

Priapism is:

A. a meatus opening on the dorsal side of the glans or shaft.
B. an advanced and fixed foreskin too tight to retract over the glans.
C. a prolonged, painful erection of the penis without sexual desire.
D. a circumscribed collection of serous fluid in the tunica vaginalis surrounding the testes.

C. a prolonged, painful erection of the penis without sexual desire.

Orchitis is:

A. a meatus opening on the dorsal side of the glans or shaft.
B. hard, subcutaneous plaques associated with painful bending of the erect penis.
C. a circumscribed collection of serous fluid in the tunica vaginalis surrounding the testes.
D. an acute inflammation of the testes.

D. an acute inflammation of the testes.

A hydrocele is:

A. a circumscribed collection of serous fluid in the tunica vaginalis surrounding the testes.
B. a meatus opening on the dorsal side of the glans or shaft.
C. an acute inflammation of the testes.
D. awakening in the night with a need to urinate.

A. a circumscribed collection of serous fluid in the tunica vaginalis surrounding the testes.

A red, round, superficial ulcer with serous discharge, which is a possible sign of syphilis, is called:

A. cystitis.
B. a chancre.
C. hypospadias.
D. phimosis.

B. a chancre.

Undescended testes are called:

A. cryptorchidism.
B. phimosis.
C. orchitis.
D. a varicocele.

A. cryptorchidism.

Inflammation of the urinary bladder is called:

A. hypospadias.
B. orchitis.
C. urethritis.
D. cystitis.

D. cystitis.

Mr. Quigley is a 56-year-old man who presents with a complaint of testicular swelling. On examination you note swelling that occurs in the epididymis as a result of a cyst. Which of the following conditions best describes these clinical findings?

A. A spermatocele
B. Epispadias
C. Balanitis
D. A hydrocele

A. A spermatocele

Mrs. Baker comes to your office with her 2-year-old son. On examination you note that the urinary meatus appears on the upper surface of the penis. Which of the following conditions best describes these clinical findings?

A. Varicocele
B. Epispadias
C. Hydrocele
D. Balanitis

B. Epispadias

An STD characterized by clusters of small, painful vesicles caused by a virus is:

A. chancre.
B. herpes genitalis.
C. orchitis.
D. cystitis.

B. herpes genitalis.

Cystic fluid in the tunica vaginalis surrounding the testes is called:

A. hydrocele.
B. varicocele.
C. orchitis.
D. cryptorchidism.

A. hydrocele.

A congenital defect in which the urethra opens on the ventral side of the penis is known as:

A. phimosis.
B. urethritis.
C. priapism.
D. hypospadias.

D. hypospadias.

Acute inflammation of the testes is:

A. herpes progenitalis.
B. priapism.
C. orchitis.
D. paraphimosis.

C. orchitis.

A medical emergency due to a retracted and fixed foreskin behind the glans is called:

A. Peyronie disease.
B. paraphimosis.
C. phimosis.
D. cryptorchidism.

B. paraphimosis.

Mr. Tucker is a 28-year-old patient who presents to your office with a concern that during an erection his penis is bent and painful. This clinical finding is caused by nontender, hard plaques on the surface of the penis known as:

A. paraphimosis.
B. phimosis.
C. Peyronie disease.
D. spermatocele.

C. Peyronie disease.

Mr. Peyser is a 38-year-old patient who presents to your office for a yearly physical examination. On exam you note that the foreskin of the penis is very tight, preventing it from retracting over the glans. Which of the following conditions best describes this clinical finding?

A. Phimosis
B. Paraphimosis
C. Spermatocele
D. Epispadias

A. Phimosis

Mr. Harrison is a 28-year-old patient who presents to your office urgently with a concern of a penile erection that has not subsided. Which of the following is a prolonged penile erection that is often painful (most cases are idiopathic)?

A. Paraphimosis
B. Phimosis
C. Spermatocele
D. Priapism

D. Priapism

A retention cyst in the epididymis filled with milky fluid containing sperm is called a:

A. varicocele.
B. spermatocele.
C. Peyronie's disease.
D. prepuce.

B. spermatocele.

The sudden twisting of the spermatic cord causes a surgical emergency called:

A. prepuce.
B. spermatocele.
C. torsion.
D. progenitalis.

C. torsion.

Mr. Liggett is a 42-year-old patient who presents with a painful left testicle. On examination you note abnormal dilation and tortuosity of the veins along the spermatic cord. Which of the following conditions best describes this clinical finding?

A. Varicocele
B. Priapism
C. Hypospadias
D. Epididymitis

D. Epididymitis

The name for the hood or flap of skin over the glans is:

A. varicocele.
B. prepuce.
C. genitalis.
D. progenitalis.

B. prepuce.

A pinpoint, constricted opening at the meatus or inside along the urethra is:

A. urethral stricture.
B. urethritis.
C. acuminate.
D. progenitalis.

A. urethral stricture.

Mr. Hutchins is a 32-year-old patient who presents for follow-up examination. On examination you note painful clusters of small vesicles with surrounding erythema that erupt on the glans or foreskin. These are signs of:

A. cystitis
B. urethritis.
C. herpes progenitalis.
D. Peyronie disease.

C. herpes progenitalis.

Mr. Thompson is a 44-year-old patient who presents to the office with complaints of urinary burning. On examination you note an infection of the urethra. This is also known as:

A. progenitalis.
B. orchitis.
C. prepuce.
D. urethritis.

D. urethritis.

The penis:

A. is composed of two corpora cavernosa and one corpus spongiosum.
B. is composed of glans, shaft, and scrotum
C. contains the urethra, ejaculatory duct, and testes.
D. All of the above

A. is composed of two corpora cavernosa and one corpus spongiosum.

Mr. Turner is a 43-year-old patient who presents for a yearly physical examination. On exam you note balanitis associated with phimosis. Which individual is this most likely to occur in?

A. Newborn male infants
B. Diabetic men
C. Uncircumcised men
D. Men exposed to radiation

C. Uncircumcised men

Mr. Frank, a 32-year-old patient, presents to your office with a complaint of urinary frequency. On examination you note a painless lesion with a clear base and indurated borders that is located on the glans penis. Which of the following best describes this clinical finding?

A. Syphilitic chancre
B. Lymphogranuloma
C. Genital warts
D. Herpes simplex

A. Syphilitic chancre

Mrs. Bauer comes to your office with her 12-year-old daughter with a complaint of a lump in her groin. On examination you detect a hernia. Which of the following types of hernias is more common in females?

A. Direct hernia
B. Indirect hernia
C. Femoral hernia
D. Sliding hernia

C. Femoral hernia

Adnexa is/are:

A. an absence of menstruation.
B. uterine accessory organs.
C. a membranous fold of tissue partly closing the vaginal orifice.
D. painful intercourse.

B. uterine accessory organs.

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