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Quiz 1

Pharmacology

What activity is not part of the role of respiratory therapists in patient assessment?

Document patient diagnosis in the patients chart

In which of the following stages of patient-clinician interaction is the review of physician orders carried out

Pre-interaction stage

In which stage of patient-clinician interaction is the patient identification bracelet checked?

Introductory stage

What should be done just before the patients ID bracelet is checked?

Ask the patient for permission

What is the goal of the introductory phase?

Establish a rapport with the patient

Which of the following behaviors is not consistent with restrictive behavior of a patient?

Asking the purpose of the treatment

What is the main purpose of the initial assessment stage?

To verify that the prescribed treatment is still needed and appropriate

What should the RT do if the patient suffers serious side effects during treatment?

Stop the treatment and notify the supervisor or physician

What is the appropriate distance for the social space from the patient?

4 to 12 feet

What is the appropriate distance for the personal space?

18 inches to 4 feet

Which of the following activities is best performed in the personal space?

The interview

What type of behavior is least appropriate in the patient's intimate space?

Eye contact

You are riding an elevator at the hospital where you are an RT. The elevator is full but standing next to you is Joe, the RT who is scheduled to relieve you. He turns to you and asks how is Mr. Cooper doing? Earlier in the day, Mr. Cooper had cardiac arrest and is not being mechanically ventilated. How should you respond to Joe?

let's talk later in the report room

In 1996, congress passed the HIPAA. What does the letter "P" stand for?

Portability

Which of the following techniques for expressing genuine concern is the most difficult to use appropriately?

Touch

Which of the following techniques is not associated with demonstration of active listening?

Use of touch

What does the phrase "universal precautions" refer to?

Protecting care givers from contagious diseases the patient may have

Your patient has TB, but his skin test is read as normal. This probably was caused by his weakened immune system, which is the result of AIDS. What terms are used to describe the skin test results?

False negative

If a diagnostic test is positive most of the time when a patient is ill with the disease of concern, what can be said about the test?

It has a high sensitivity

What term refers to the likelihood of a negative test results in a patient who does not have the disease?

Specificity

Communication between two people can occur only if:

The speaker speaks clearly, the receiver understands the message, and each person is willing to listen to the other

Communication between individuals is affected by all of the following factors EXCEPT:

Time of day

When conducting an interview with a patient, which of the following points is MOST important in facilitating an effective interaction with the patient?

Your ability to project a sense of undivided interest to the patient

Which of the following types of questions are preferred for all interactions with the patient?

Neutral questions

If a patient is unable to provide an accurate history, the RT should:

Ask a family member or friend to supply the information

Which of the following should the RT keep in mind when obtaining a pulmonary history?

Evaluation of the patients entire health status is essential

Obtaining background information during an interview is very important because it allows the interviewer to:

Achieve all of the above

Screening information is:

Designed to uncover problem areas that the patient forgot to mention or omitted

The review of systems is very important because it provides to the interviewer:

Information relevant to the patients problem that may have been overlooked

A pertinent negative is defined as:

Any negative response by the patient to an important questions about possible symptoms

A pertinent positive is defined as

An affirmative response to an important interview question about the patients symptoms

The main purpose of the chief complaint is to:

Give a brief explanation about why the patient sought health care

Which of the following cardiopulmonary conditions would NOT be found in the chief complaint list?

Asthma

When a patient is interviewed so the chief complaint can be determined, the BEST questions that can be asked to elicit this information are

A combination of direct questions, neutral questions, and open-ended questions.

Which of the following would NOT be found in the past medical history?

Associated symptoms and aggravating factors

Which of the following formulas should be used to calculate the pack-year history of cigarette consumption?

Packs per day x Years smoked

One disadvantage of using the pack year method for calculating cigarette consumption is that

The method does not reveal how many packs per day were smoked over how many years

Which of the following is NOT a purpose for obtaining the family history?

To determine whether the patient is adopted

What disease would NOT be recorded in the family history as a hereditary disorder?

Pneumonia

Modern-day office workers may be exposed to which of the following occupational and environmental disease?

Sick building syndrome

Which of the following symptoms is often seen in patients with tight building syndrome?

Headache, stuffy nose, and cough.

What pulmonary disorder is associated with visiting of living in Ohio, Maryland, and the central Mississippi Valley?

Histoplasmosis

Who writes the initial admission note?

The physician

Who writes the progress notes each day?

Either the physician, the physical therapist, or the nurse

Which of the following sequences of events best describes the cough mechanism?

Inspiration, closure of glottis, forceful opening of glottis

Which of the following mechanisms does not explain why patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) have a poor cough?

Increased elastic recoil

Chronic productive cough is caused most commonly by which of the following clinical conditions?

Postnasal drip

Which of the following is NOT a complication of forceful coughing?

Pleural effusion

Which of the following conditions is not associated with a characteristic "hacking" cough?

Lung cancer

Which of the following is the best definition of sputum?

Secretions from the nose, mouth, and tracheobronchial tree

What term is used to describe secretions strictly from the lungs and lower airways?

Phlegm

Excessive sputum production is associated with all of the following conditions EXCEPT

Pleural infection

Which of the following terms best describes foul-smelling sputum?

Fetid

A patient presents in the emergency department with blood-tinged sputum. The term associated with such sputum is

Hemoptysis

Which of the following conditions is believed to be the most common cause of hemoptysis

Erosive bronchitis

Which of the following definition is consistent with massive hemoptysis

400 ml in 3 hours

Hemoptysis in the patient with sudden onset of chest pain who is at risk for venostasis is suggestive of what condition?

Pulmonary embolism

In the presence of nausea and vomiting, a history of cirrhosis of the liver suggests which of the following organs as the source of hematemesis?

Esophagus

Dyspnea is defined as

Breathlessness as perceived by the patient

What grading system is useful in qualifying the degree of dyspnea?

Modified burg scale

Dyspnea tends to occur when which of the following is present?

Increase in ventilator drive to breathe

Breathing at a rate and depth in excess of the body's metabolic need is known as

Hyperventilating

All of the following conditions are associated with acute dyspnea in children EXCEPT

Cystic fibrosis

Which of the following diseases is one of the most common causes of chronic dyspnea in adults?

Congestive heart failure

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is associated commonly with which of the following conditions?

Congestive heart failure

An inability to breathe while lying down is known as

Orthopnea

Chest pain is the cardinal symptom of which of the following diseases?

Heart disease

What is the difference between pleuritic and nonpleuritic chest pain?

Pleuritic pain is sharp and stabbing; nonpleuritic pain is dull and crushing

All of the following pulmonary conditions are associated with syncope EXCEPT

Hyperoxia

Cough syncope is associated most often with which of the following types of patients?

Middle aged men with underlying COPD

The presence of anasarca is associated commonly with which of the following conditions?

Edema

Which of the following conditions is often associated with right heart failure?

Hepatomegaly

What is the most common manifestation of infection in a patient with pulmonary disease?

Fever

The presence of early morning headache may be caused by which of the following conditions?

Hypercapnia

Gastro esophageal reflux disease is defined as reflux that occurs more than

Twice a week

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