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Approximately how much water (lbs) is found in a 134-lb person?
a. 34
b. 65
c. 80
d. 105

c

What is the body's most indispensable nutrient?
a. Fat
b. Water
c. Protein
d. Glucose

b

What fraction of lean tissue represents the water content?
a. 1/10
b. 1/3
c. 1/2
d. 3/4

d

Which of the following is not a function of water in the body?
a. Lubricant
b. Source of energy
c. Maintains protein structure
d. Participant in chemical reactions

b

Which of the following contributes most to the weight of the human body?
a. Iron
b. Water
c. Protein
d. Calcium

b

Among the following groups, which has the highest percentage of body water?
a. Elderly
b. Children
c. Obese people
d. Female adolescents

b

In the body, water that resides between cells is known as
a. diuretic fluid.
b. interstitial fluid.
c. edematous fluid.
d. intravascular fluid.

b

All of the following are mild symptoms of dehydration except
a. thirst.
b. fatigue.
c. weakness.
d. spastic muscles

d

Which of the following body structures helps to regulate thirst?
a. Brain stem
b. Cerebellum
c. Optic nerve
d. Hypothalamus

d

Where is interstitial water found?
a. Within cells
b. Between cells
c. Within the lungs
d. Within blood vessels

b

Which of the following is a feature of water and nutrition?
a. Water intoxication is rare but can result in death
b. Water losses from the body are highest through the feces
c. Chronic high intakes increase the risk for bladder cancer
d. Soft water has significant concentrations of magnesium and calcium

a

What minimum level of body weight loss as water impairs a person's physical performance?
a. 1-2%
b. 3-4%
c. 5-9%
d. 10-15%

b

What minimum percentage of body weight loss as water results in fatigue, weakness, and loss of appetite?
a. 1-2
b. 3-4
c. 5-6
d. 7-8

a

Abnormally low blood sodium concentration is known specifically as
a. hypertension.
b. hyponatremia.
c. hyperkalemia.
d. water intoxication

b

Which of the following is a feature of water?
a. Not a vital nutrient
b. Not found in foods
c. Oxidized to yield energy
d. Generated from oxidation of energy nutrients

d

The average daily loss of water via the kidneys, lungs, feces, and skin is approximately
a. 0 to 0.5 liters.
b. 0.5 to 1.5 liters.
c. 1.5 to 2.5 liters.
d. 3.0 to 4.0 liters.

c

What is the minimum amount of water (mL) that must be excreted each day as urine in order to carry away the body's waste products?
a. 100
b. 250
c. 500
d. 1,000

c

What is the minimum water intake for a 65-kg adult with an energy expenditure of 2,500 kcalories?
a. 250 mL
b. 650 mL
c. 1,250 mL
d. 2,500 mL

d

Approximately how much water is in a loaf of bread?
a. 2% of the loaf
b. 5% of the loaf
c. 20% of the loaf
d. 35% of the loaf

d

The minimum amount of water that must be excreted by the body to dispose of its wastes is termed
a. life supporting fluid loss.
b. mandatory water fraction.
c. obligatory water excretion.
d. minimum daily water requirement.

c

The approximate percentage of water in pizza is
a. 5.
b. 15.
c. 30.
d. 45.

d

Approximately how many mL of water/day are produced by metabolism?
a. 100
b. 250
c. 500
d. 750

b

Which of the following is present in highest concentration in soft water?
a. Sodium
b. Calcium
c. Magnesium
d. Phosphorus

a

Habitual intake of soft water is most likely to aggravate
a. scurvy.
b. diabetes.
c. hypertension.
d. megaloblastic anemia

c

Which of the following is a characteristic of caffeine intake and water balance?
a. Caffeine inhibits water absorption from the GI tract
b. Caffeine is known to act as a diuretic only when consumed as coffee or tea
c. Regular intake of caffeine promotes an increase in water retention of the interstitial fluid volume
d. Habitual consumers of caffeine lose almost no more fluid from the body than when ingesting noncaffeinated beverages

d

Which of the following types of drinking water contains the lowest amount of minerals?
a. Soft water
b. Hard water
c. Natural water
d. Distilled water

d

What organ provides the major control for homeostasis of body fluids?
a. Liver
b. Heart
c. Kidneys
d. Skeletal muscle

c

How does antidiuretic hormone function?
a. It activates renin
b. It activates angiotension
c. It stimulates water reabsorption by the kidneys
d. It stimulates sodium reabsorption by the kidneys

c

What pituitary hormone regulates kidney retention of water?
a. Thyroxine
b. Cortisone
c. Epinephrine
d. Antidiuretic hormone

d

Factors that are effective in regulating the body's water balance include all of the following except
a. adrenaline.
b. aldosterone.
c. angiotensin.
d. antidiuretic hormone

a

Aldosterone and renin each function to promote
a. electrolyte balance.
b. retention of sodium.
c. excretion of calcium.
d. constriction of blood vessels

b

Among the following, which promotes constriction of blood vessels resulting in elevation of blood pressure?
a. Phytates
b. Angiotensin
c. Aldosterone
d. Carbonic acid

b

What is the function of renin?
a. Activates angiotensin
b. Activates antidiuretic hormone
c. Stimulates the thirst mechanism
d. Stimulates water absorption from the GI tract

a

Ions that carry a positive charge are called
a. anions.
b. cations.
c. mineralytes.
d. valence ions

b

Which of the following describes a way to make an electrolyte solution?
a. Dissolve a teaspoon of salt in a glass of water
b. Vigorously shake a mixture of corn oil and water
c. Dissolve a pinch of corn starch in a glass of water
d. Vigorously shake a pinch of table sugar in warm water

a

What is the major extracellular anion?
a. Sodium
b. Lactate
c. Sulfate
d. Chloride

d

What is the major intracellular anion?
a. Protein
b. Sodium
c. Phosphate
d. Bicarbonate

c

What is the major extracellular cation?
a. Sodium
b. Sulfate
c. Protein
d. Potassium

a

What is the major intracellular cation?
a. Sodium
b. Calcium
c. Phosphate
d. Potassium

d

All of the following are properties of electrolytes except
a. they attract water.
b. they are charged particles.
c. they carry electrical current.
d. they include fat-soluble as well as water-soluble particles.

d

What is the term for the pressure that develops when two solutions of varying concentrations are separated by a membrane?
a. Hypotension
b. Hypertension
c. Osmotic pressure
d. Hypertonic pressure

c

What is the force that moves water into a space where a solute is more concentrated?
a. Buffer action
b. Osmotic pressure
c. Permeable selectivity
d. Electrolyte imbalance

b

What is the sodium-potassium pump?
a. A cell membrane protein that uses energy to pump sodium into the cell
b. A cell membrane protein that uses energy to pump sodium out of the cell
c. A mechanism present throughout interstitial fluid for draining sodium from the circulation
d. A mechanism present in the kidneys that exchanges sodium with lactic acid in order to regulate organic acid concentration

b

When a person loses fluid by sweating or bleeding, what minerals are lost in greatest quantity?
a. Sodium and chloride
b. Bicarbonate and sulfate
c. Calcium and magnesium
d. Potassium and phosphate

a

All of the following are typical ingredients in an oral rehydration therapy formula except
a. salt.
b. water.
c. sugar.
d. protein

d

The normal blood pH range is approximately
a. 6.80-7.15.
b. 6.98-7.12.
c. 7.35-7.45.
d. 7.55-8.55

c

All of the following are common participants in the regulation of body fluid pH except
a. proteins.
b. oxalic acid.
c. bicarbonate.
d. carbonic acid

a

All of the following play important roles in acid-base balance except
a. the liver.
b. the lungs.
c. the kidneys.
d. blood buffers

a

What organ is the chief regulator of the body's acid-base balance?
a. Skin
b. Liver
c. Kidneys
d. Stomach

c

What is a chief function of carbonic acid in the body?
a. Activates andiotensin
b. Activates angiotensinogen
c. Helps with gastric digestion
d. Helps maintain acid-base balance

d

Which of the following is a general property of the minerals?
a. When a food is burned, all the minerals are found in the ash
b. Absorption efficiency from foods is similar among the minerals
c. Minerals in food can be degraded by certain processing methods
d. Some minerals in food are destroyed by exposure to ultraviolet light

a

Which of the following does not serve as a major regulator of fluid balance in the body?
a. Sodium
b. Chloride
c. Calcium
d. Potassium

c

Which of the following events is specific to a salt-sensitive individual?
a. Blood pressure increases as salt intake rises
b. Immune system is activated when salt intake increases
c. Muscle cramps occur when body sodium becomes depleted
d. Thirst response is activated upon consumption of a sodium-rich food

a

In a normal individual with a daily requirement of 500 mg sodium, what would be the sodium balance after an intake of 10 g of common salt?
a. Equilibrium
b. Slight positive balance
c. Strong positive balance
d. Moderate positive balance

a

Normally, what is the relationship of the amount of sodium excreted to the amount ingested that day?
a. Intake is higher
b. Excretion is higher
c. Intake and excretion are equal
d. Excretion is unrelated to intake

c

What is another term for hypertension?
a. High blood sodium
b. High blood pressure
c. Excessive mental stress
d. Excessive muscular contraction

b

Salt-sensitive population groups include all of the following except
a. Caucasians.
b. African-Americans.
c. people with obesity.
d. people with diabetes

a

The DASH diet plan was devised to prevent
a. dehydration.
b. constipation.
c. osteoporosis.
d. hypertension

d

How much sodium is contained in a fast-food deluxe hamburger that lists a salt content of 2.5 g?
a. 100 mg
b. 125 mg
c. 1,000 mg
d. 2,500 mg

c

Even in people with normal blood pressure, what percent are salt sensitive?
a. 10
b. 25
c. 50
d. 100

b

Sam has recently been diagnosed with high blood pressure. His doctor recommended adopting the DASH diet plan. Along with including more fruits, vegetables, and whole grains, he was also advised to reduce daily sodium intake to no more than 2000 mg. How much salt (g) would be allowed under Sam's restriction?
a. 5
b. 6.5
c. 8
d. 9.5

a

What is the greatest single source of sodium in the diet?
a. Processed foods
b. Unprocessed foods
c. Natural salt content of foods
d. Salt added during cooking and at the table

a

What percentage of a person's total sodium intake derives from naturally occurring food sodium?
a. 0
b. 10
c. 50
d. 80

b

Which of the following is a feature of sodium and health?
a. Salt sensitivity is generally rare in African-Americans
b. High sodium intake is known to promote calcium excretion
c. High sodium intake over many years leads to hypertension in most people
d. Sodium alone and sodium in salt have nearly equivalent effects on blood pressure

b

Which of the following is a general characteristic of sodium in processed foods?
a. Instant chocolate pudding is a low-sodium food
b. Processed foods contribute less than half of the sodium in our diets
c. Salted peanuts contain less sodium than cereals on a per-gram basis
d. Dairy products and meats represent major sources of sodium in our diets

c

Why are salt tablets generally not recommended for people engaged in physical activity?
a. They can induce dehydration
b. They suppress the thirst mechanisms
c. They may lead to complete kidney failure
d. They reduce blood glucose concentration

a

What is the Tolerable Upper Intake Level for salt?
a. 0.5 teaspoons
b. 1 teaspoon
c. 0.5 tablespoons
d. 1 tablespoon

b

Hyponatremia refers to low blood concentration of
a. renin.
b. sodium.
c. chloride.
d. aldosterone

b

What adverse response is known to occur in people who drink copious amounts of water while participating in intense physical activity?
a. Dehydration
b. Hyponatremia
c. Metabolic alkalosis
d. Elevated blood sodium

b

Which of the following is a feature of sodium nutrition?
a. It has no AI because diets rarely lack sodium
b. It has no AI because the kidneys are highly efficient at regulating sodium balance
c. The AI is 3 g, an amount that has been shown to have little or no effect on blood pressure
d. The AI for young adults is only 1500 mg because the body possesses an unusually efficient retention mechanism

d

Which of the following minerals would a bulimia nervosa patient be likely to lose in the greatest amount?
a. Calcium
b. Chloride
c. Potassium
d. Phosphorus

b

Which of the following is a major function of chloride?
a. Participates in wound healing
b. Helps maintain gastric acidity
c. Acts as principal intracellular electrolyte
d. Protects bone structures against degeneration

b

All of the following are characteristics of chloride in nutrition except
a. deficiencies are extremely rare.
b. intake is related, in large part, to sodium intake.
c. it is necessary for maintaining electrolyte balance of body fluids.
d. the recommended intake has recently been set at 10 mg/kg body weight

d

Which of the following is the primary function of potassium?
a. Participates in wound healing
b. Helps maintain gastric acidity
c. Acts as principal intracellular electrolyte
d. Protects bone structures against degeneration

c

Which of the following is not a feature of potassium deficiency?
a. It leads to hyperglycemia
b. It leads to higher blood pressure
c. It can be prevented by consumption of potatoes
d. It is common due to availability of only a few good food sources

d

Barbara has been healthy up to the past couple of weeks, but since then has been complaining of considerable muscle weakness. Her doctor just received the results of blood tests, which showed that she is deficient in potassium. If Barbara continues her current habits of consuming a diet low in potassium, for which of the following disorders is she most likely to be at risk?
a. Rickets
b. Arthritis
c. Low blood pressure
d. High blood pressure

d

Which of the following is a feature of potassium?
a. It is unrelated to blood pressure
b. Liberal intakes may correct hypertension
c. Major dietary sources are processed foods
d. Deficiencies are usually the result of deficient intakes

b

Which of the following is a symptom of potassium deficiency?
a. Extreme thirst
b. Muscle weakness
c. Profound sweating
d. Lowered blood pressure

b

Which of the following people are at known risk for potassium depletion?
a. Athletes who are body-builders
b. Construction workers in cold climates
c. Those who ingest low amounts of fresh fruits/vegetables
d. Those who consume insufficient amounts of salted foods

c

All of the following are features of potassium in nutrition except
a. processed foods are a major source.
b. high intakes may protect against stroke.
c. per serving size, legumes are a rich source.
d. per serving size, bananas are a rich source

a

Which of the following is not among the common food sources of potassium?
a. Cheeses
b. Potatoes
c. Fresh fruits
d. Orange juice

a

Which of the following is a feature of potassium supplements?
a. Can cause toxicity
b. Should always be taken with diuretics
c. Necessary in treatment of low blood pressure
d. Absorption of the mineral decreases markedly as intake increases

a

Approximately what percentage of the body's calcium is found in the blood?
a. 1
b. 5
c. 15
d. 25

a

Almost all (99%) of the calcium in the body is used to
a. provide energy for cells.
b. provide rigidity for the bones and teeth.
c. regulate the transmission of nerve impulses.
d. maintain the blood level of calcium within very narrow limits

b

What is hydroxyapatite?
a. Abnormal cellular structures seen in osteoporosis
b. The calcium-rich crystalline structure of teeth and bones
c. A calcium regulatory hormone secreted from the trabeculae region of bone
d. A compound in plant foods that binds to calcium and phosphorus and inhibits absorption

b

As far as is known, which of the following is not a process that directly involves calcium?
a. pH regulation
b. Blood clotting
c. Nerve transmission
d. Maintenance of heart beat

a

What is calmodulin?
a. A calcium-binding protein
b. A drug that treats osteoporosis
c. A calcium supplement with high bioavailability
d. A form of calcium used in fortifying soy products

a

Which of the following is a feature of calcium in the body?
a. High blood calcium levels correlate with tetany
b. Abnormal dietary calcium intakes promote calcium rigor
c. Higher calcium intakes correlate with lower body fatness
d. Efficiency of intestinal calcium absorption is similar for children and adults

c

Which of the following regulates the level of calcium in the blood?
a. Dietary intake of calcium
b. Glucagon and epinephrine
c. Dietary intake of phosphorus
d. Parathyroid hormone and calcitonin

d

Tiffany is a strict vegan and does not consume calcium-rich plant foods nor supplements of calcium. Which of the following is most responsible for maintaining her blood calcium levels in the normal range?
a. Calcitonin
b. Calmodulin
c. Hydroxyapatite
d. Parathyroid hormone

d

Which of the following represents the least likely cause for an abnormal blood calcium level?
a. Diseases of the liver
b. Diseases of the kidney
c. Insufficient dietary intake
d. Altered secretion of parathyroid hormone

c

The muscle stiffness that results from abnormally high calcium levels in the blood is termed
a. calcium rigor.
b. calcium tetany.
c. myosinotoxicosis.
d. calmodulin dysfunction

a

Calcium absorption is facilitated by the presence of
a. fiber.
b. lactose.
c. phytic acid.
d. oxalic acid

b

All of the following are known to enhance calcium absorption from the GI tract except
a. lactose.
b. oxalates.
c. pregnancy.
d. stomach acid

b

Which of the following foods are significant sources of oxalates?
a. Seeds and nuts
b. Processed cheeses
c. Fermented dairy products
d. Spinach and sweet potatoes

d

How much calcium (mg) would typically be absorbed by a normal adult with a calcium intake of 1,000 mg?
a. 100
b. 300
c. 600
d. 950

b

All of the following dietary substances are known to adversely affect calcium balance except
a. a high-fiber diet.
b. lactose in the diet.
c. phytic acid in the diet.
d. phosphorus in the diet at a level 3 times that of calcium

b

Calcium-binding protein acts within the
a. kidneys.
b. intestines.
c. cortical bone.
d. trabecular bone

b

Which of the following is a risk of consuming calcium supplements above the UL?
a. Calcium tetany
b. Atrophic gastritis
c. Vitamin D deficiency
d. Kidney stone formation

d

Which of the following are good sources of dietary calcium?
a. Fruits
b. Breads
c. Enriched grains
d. Certain green vegetables

d

Which of the following green vegetables shows the lowest bioavailability of calcium?
a. Kale
b. Spinach
c. Broccoli
d. Mustard greens

b

On a per kcalorie basis, which of the following are the best sources of calcium?
a. Meats
b. Fruits
c. Breads
d. Vegetables

d

Which of the following shows the highest bioavailability for calcium?
a. Milk
b. Spinach
c. Broccoli
d. Pinto beans

c

All of the following are good plant sources of calcium for the body except
a. spinach.
b. almonds.
c. corn tortillas.
d. sesame seeds

a

Which of the following ages (years) is typically associated with people having the densest bone?
a. 15
b. 28
c. 35
d. 46

b

At what age do adults normally begin to lose bone mass?
a. 30-40 yrs
b. 40-50 yrs
c. 50-60 yrs
d. 60-70 yrs

a

Approximately how many people in the United States are afflicted with osteoporosis?
a. 500,000
b. 5 million
c. 25 million
d. 50 million

d

Certain green leafy vegetables have a very low calcium bioavailability due to the presence of
a. low calcium content.
b. low vitamin D content.
c. naturally occurring binders.
d. high magnesium content, which lowers calcium absorption

c

Which of the following is a feature of osteoporosis?
a. It is most common in men over 45 years of age
b. It has virtually no effect on blood calcium levels
c. It results from short-term deprivation of dietary calcium
d. It causes significant alterations in the blood levels of parathormone and calcitonin

b

What is the calcium Adequate Intake for young adults?
a. 500 mg
b. 800 mg
c. 1000 mg
d. 1500 mg

c

All of the following are characteristics of phosphorus in nutrition except
a. high dietary intakes have no adverse effects.
b. about 85% of the body's phosphorus is located in bones and teeth.
c. the phosphoric acid in cola drinks has little effect on bone content.
d. the ratio of phosphorus to calcium in the diet is important for bone maintenance

d

Which of the following is a feature of phosphorus?
a. Involved in energy exchange
b. Activates fat-soluble vitamins
c. Ranks lowest among the minerals in amount present in the body
d. Ranks highest among the minerals in amount present in the body

a

Which of the following is a feature of phosphorus in nutrition?
a. Dietary sources include fresh vegetables
b. Dietary deficiencies are virtually unknown
c. Absorption is known to be reduced by soft drink consumption
d. Its participation in bone synthesis requires equivalent intake of dietary calcium

b

Which of the following minerals is involved in the transportation of lipids through the body's lymph and blood systems?
a. Iron
b. Sodium
c. Calcium
d. Phosphorus

d

Which of the following minerals is least likely to be deficient in anyone's diet?
a. Iron
b. Calcium
c. Chromium
d. Phosphorus

d

All of the following characteristics are shared by calcium and magnesium except
a. both are involved in blood clotting.
b. both are involved in bone formation.
c. both are found in abundance in dairy products.
d. both may result in tetany when blood levels become abnormally low.

c

Where is the majority of the body's magnesium found?
a. Bones
b. Teeth
c. Fatty tissue
d. Cells of soft tissue

a

Which of the following is a major function of magnesium?
a. Transport of oxygen
b. Prevention of anemia
c. Catalyst in energy metabolism
d. Production of thyroid hormone

c

A friend shows you a newspaper article titled "Magnesium's Role in ATP Synthesis." You explain that
a. magnesium does not play a role in ATP synthesis.
b. it is not magnesium but manganese that plays the role in ATP synthesis.
c. magnesium serves as a catalyst in the reaction that adds the last phosphate to ATP.
d. there are three magnesium groups within the ATP structure that help it do its work

c

Which of the following minerals is required in the enzymatic phosphorylation of ADP?
a. Iron
b. Copper
c. Sodium
d. Magnesium

d

Which of the following is a feature of magnesium nutrition?
a. The average body contains about 100 g
b. Blood is a major reservoir of the mineral
c. Deficiency is associated with hypertension
d. Dietary intake data are the sum of the amounts from food and water

c

Which of the following is a feature of magnesium in nutrition?
a. Toxicity is common in people taking diuretics
b. High intakes interfere with stability of tooth enamel
c. The amounts present in hard water are poorly utilized
d. Average intakes from food are below recommendations

d

The magnesium present in mineral water has a bioavailability of about
a. 5%.
b. 25%.
c. 50%.
d. 90%.

c

Magnesium is known to be involved in all of the following except
a. blood clotting.
b. muscle contraction.
c. prevention of dental caries.
d. production of red blood cells

d

Sulfur is present in practically all
a. vitamins.
b. proteins.
c. fatty acids.
d. carbohydrates

b

Some amino acids can link to each other by bridges made of
a. sulfur.
b. calcium.
c. chloride.
d. magnesium.

a

What is the major source of dietary sulfur?
a. Fats
b. Protein
c. Mineral salts
d. Carbohydrates

b

All of the following are known to have a high sulfur content except
a. skin.
b. hair.
c. teeth.
d. nails

c

The outer, hard shell of bone is called
a. cortical bone.
b. dolomitic bone.
c. trabecular bone.
d. hydroxyl bone

a

All of the following are characteristics of dolomite supplements except
a. efficiency of absorption is poor.
b. they are usually sold as a very pure product.
c. they contain both calcium and magnesium.
d. they are commonly extracted from limestone

b

Which of the following is a function of trabecular bone?
a. Synthesis of vitamin D
b. Synthesis of calcitonin
c. Storage site for calcium
d. Storage site for vitamin D

c

The incidence of death within 1 year of sustaining a hip fracture is about
a. 2%
b. 6%
c. 14%
d. 25%

d

In what decade of life does osteoporosis first begin in men and women?
a. Fourth
b. Fifth
c. Sixth
d. Seventh

a

For every man who has type I osteoporosis, about how many women have it?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6

d

The most common fracture sites of osteoporosis type I are
a. spine and wrist.
b. hip and femur.
c. neck and shoulder.
d. elbow and knee

a

What does a DEXA scan measure?
a. Bone density
b. Severity of bone microfractures
c. Bioavailability of calcium supplements
d. Calcium absorption and excretion balance

a

Which of the following is a feature of type I osteoporosis?
a. It shows onset after 70 years of age
b. It can be prevented by taking estrogen
c. It leads to formation of the "dowager's hump"
d. Its prevalence is similar between males and females

b

What percentage of hip fractures in men and women are due to osteoporosis?
a. 40-50
b. 60-75
c. 80-90
d. 100

c

All of the following are known to have a high correlation with risk for osteoporosis except
a. being thin.
b. being female.
c. having anorexia nervosa.
d. consuming a high-protein diet

d

Protective factors for osteoporosis include all of the following except
a. obesity.
b. female gender.
c. moderate alcohol intake.
d. having African American heritage

b

The strongest predictor for loss of bone density is a person's
a. sex.
b. age.
c. calcium intake.
d. blood estrogen level

b

The development of osteoporosis in men typically occurs at what age in relation to the appearance of osteoporosis in women?
a. 3 years later
b. 10 years later
c. About the same
d. 4 years earlier

b

A person's highest bone density is achieved by around age (years)
a. 18.
b. 30.
c. 55.
d. 70

b

What percentage of people with osteoporosis are female?
a. 20
b. 40
c. 60
d. 80

d

After age, what is the next strongest risk factor for osteoporosis?
a. Sex
b. Tobacco use
c. Calcium intake
d. Physical activity level

a

Antiresorptive drug treatments for osteoporosis work primarily by
a. stimulating parathormone release.
b. inhibiting kidney excretion of calcium.
c. stimulating intestinal calcium absorption.
d. inhibiting the activities of the bone-degrading cells

d

Anabolic drug treatments for osteoporosis work chiefly by
a. stimulating estrogen release.
b. enhancing osteoblast activity.
c. stimulating calcium absorption.
d. reducing renal calcium excretion.

b

Estrogen therapy for osteoporosis is often rejected because it may increase risk for
a. cancer.
b. heart disease.
c. hypertension.
d. diverticulosis

a

Which of the following is not known to be a risk factor for osteoporosis in men?
a. High BMI
b. Alcohol abuse
c. Corticosteroid use
d. Low testosterone levels

a

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