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Quizzes 7, 8, 9

A person who gets hit on the back of the head might suffer injury to which of these bones?
A. temporal
B. occipital
C. sphenoid
D. zygomatic
E. nasal

B. occipital

A person who has cerebrospinal fluid draining from the ear probably has a fracture of the
A. frontal bone
B. temporal bone
C. zygomatic bone
D. parietal bone
E. occipital bone

B. temporal bone

Which of the following bones contain a sinus?
A. maxilla
B. nasal bone
C. occipital bone
D. zygomatic bone
E. temporal

A. maxilla

Which of the following bony features is mismatched with its description?
A. crista galli-point of attachment of one of the meninges
B. occipital condyles- articulation points between the skull and vertebral column
C. alveolar process- ridge containing the teeth
D. styloid process- point of articulation of mandible with skull
E. mandibular fossa- point of articulation of mandible with skull

D. styloid process- point of articulation of mandible with skull

Failure of the palatine processes of the maxilla to fuse properly during development results in a
A. cleft lip
B. cleft chin
C. cleft palate
D. deviated septum
E. clogged sinus

C. cleft palate

A person with a fractured mandible has a broken
A. back
B. neck
C. rib
D. wrist
E. jaw

E. jaw

The ____ region of the vertebral column is located in the neck.
A. sacral
B. cervical
C. lumbar
D. thoracic
E. coccygeal

B. cervical

The dens or odontoid process is on the
A. first cervical vertebra
B. second cervical vertebra
C. first thoracic vertebra
D. second lumbar vertebra
E. coccyx

B. second cervical vertebra

Which of the following statements is true?
A. The cervical curve develops before birth
B. The adult vertebral column has three curvatures
C. Scoliosis is the term applied to normal curvature of the spine
D. An exaggerated thoracic curvature of the vertebral column is called kyphosis
E. Lordosis is an exaggeration of the cervical curvature

D. An exaggerated thoracic curvature of the vertebral column is called kyphosis

Which of the following statements is true?
A. The first cervical vertebra is called the axis
B. The spinal cord protects the vertebral column
C. Thoracic vertebrae have long, thin spinous processes
D. The sacral vertebrae are superior to the lumbar vertebrae
E. Lumbar vertebrae are generally smaller than thoracic vertebrae

C. Thoracic vertebrae have long, thin spinous processes

The coccyx is
A. absent in humans
B. also called the coxa
C. located in the upper lumbar region
D. the most inferior portion of the vertebral column
E. the bottom of the spinal cord

D. the most inferior portion of the vertebral column

Transverse foramina are found in _____vertebrae
A. cervical
B. thoracic
C. lumbar
D. sacral
E. antebrachial

A. cervical

Articular facets on the transverse processes are characteristics of ____ vertebrae.
A. cervical
B. thoracic
C. lumbar
D. sacral
E. coccygeal

B. thoracic

The loss of height that occurs with aging is due to compression of the
A. pelvic girdle
B. vertebral arches
C. vertebral bodies
D. vertebral foramen
E. intervertebral discs

E. intervertebral discs

The ribs articulate with the _____ vertebrae
A. sacral
B. lumbar
C. thoracic
D. cervical
E. coccygeal

C. thoracic

A herniated disc occurs with
A. the body of a vertebra is fractured
B. the covering of the spinal cord is torn
C. there is a fracture of the vertebral arch
D. there is a protrusion of the nucleus pulpous
E. spinal nerves are cut

D. there is a protrusion of the nucleus pulpous

What condition is the failure of vertebral laminae to fuse?
A. Lordosis
B. kyphosis
C. scoliosis
D. spina bifida
E. herniated disk

D. spina bifida

An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is
A. lordosis
B. kyphosis
C. scoliosis
D. spinal bifida
E. herniated disk

C. scoliosis

Manubrium, body, and xiphoid process are all parts of the
A. pelvis
B. scapula
C. clavicle
D. sternum
E. sacrum

D. sternum

The upper limb and its girdle are attached rather loosely to the rest of the body. This arrangement
A. results in a disjointed appearance
B. limits fine coordination of the hands
C. allows a wide range of movements
D. restricts that amount of weight the upper limb can support
E. results in a limited range of motion

C. allows a wide range of movements

The humerus articulates with the ulna at the
A. medial epicondyle
B. lateral epicondyle
C. capitulum
D. radial fossa
E. trochlea

E. trochlea

In a farm accident, a man has his arm severed midway between his wrist and his elbow. Which of the following bones was severed?
A. radius
B. humerus
C. clavicle
D. ulna
E. both the radius and the ulna

E. both the radius and the ulna

Which of the following is not a carpal?
A. scaphoid
B. hamate
C. Navicular
D. pisiform
E. trapezium

C. Navicular

The greater sciatic notch is found on the
A. inferior edge of the pubis
B. posterior side of the ilium
C. superior edge of the ischium
D. ventral surface of the sacrum
E. inferior edge of the ischium

B. posterior side of the ilium

Which of the following statements about the femur is TRUE?
A. the head of the femur articulates with the tibia
B. the medial condyle articulates with the acetabulum
C. both the greater and lesser trochanters are attachment sites for muscles
D. the distal end of the tibia articulates with the femur
E. the proximal end of the femur articulates with the tibia

C. both the greater and lesser trochanters are attachment sites for muscles

A patient in a skiing accident is told that the lateral side of the ankle joint has been crushed. The bone that has been injured is the _________________

fibula

The deltoid tuberosity is found on what bone? _____________

humerus

The medial malleolus is part of the ____________

tibia

The pelvic girdle and lower limb are part of the _______________ skeleton

appendicular

The auditory ossicle is part of the _______________ skeleton

axial

The hyoid bone is part of the ______________ skeleton

axial

Joints are classified according to the
A. bones that are united at the joint
B. structures of the joints
C. size of the joint
D. shape of the joint
E. type of fluid in the joints

B. structures of the joints

A joint that has no joint cavity and exhibits little or no movement would be classified as a
A. fibrous joint
B. synovial joint
C. complex joint
D. cartilaginous joint
E. partial joint

A. fibrous joint

Cartilaginous joints
A. are common in the skull
B. unite two bones by means of fibrocartilage or hyaline cartilage
C. allow the most movement between bones
D. are found in the lower leg
E. are not found in the pelvic region

B. unite two bones by means of fibrocartilage or hyaline cartilage

Synovial joints are different from both fibrous and cartilaginous joints because synovial joints
A. use fibrous connective tissue to hold the bones in the joint together
B. are enclosed by a joint capsule
C. are only temporary; they are replaced in the adult
D. generally have both bones in the joint fused together
E. are not freely moveable

B. are enclosed by a joint capsule

Joints between the carpal bones are
A. costocarpal joints
B. intermetacarpal joints
C. metacarpalphalangeal joints
D. intercarpal joints
E. intracarpal joint

D. intercarpal joints

The sagittal suture is between the
A. sacrum and coax
B. two pubic bones
C. atlas and axis
D. alveolar process and tooth
E. two parietal bones

E. two parietal bones

The atlantoaxial joint is between the
A. sacrum and coax
B. two pubic bones
C. atlas and axis
D. alveolar process and tooth
E. two parietal bones

C. atlas and axis

Which of the following statements concerning sutures is false?
A. they may become completely immovable in adults
B. the opposing bones in the joint interdigitate for stability
C. the tissue between the bones is hyaline cartilage
D. the periosteum of adjacent bones is continuous over the joint
E. membranes, called fontanels, are present in some sutures at birth

C. the tissue between the bones is hyaline cartilage

When two bones grow together across a joint to form a single bon, this is called a
A. suture
B. synesmosis
C. gomphosis
D. synostosis
E. symphisis

D. synostosis

In a syndesmosis
A. there is an osseous union between the bones of the joint
B. the bones are held together by ligaments called interosseous membranes
C. it is not usual to find discs of cartilage
D. no movement occurs
E. there is a great range of motion

B. the bones are held together by ligaments called interosseous membranes

The joint between the teeth and the mandibular alveolus is an example of a
A. suture
B. syndesmosis
C gomphosis
D. synostosis
E. symphysis

C gomphosis

Cartilaginous joints
A. are common in the skull
B. unite two bones by means of fibrocartilage or hyaline cartilage
C. allow the most movement between bones
D. are found in the lower leg
E. are not found in the pelvic region

B. unite two bones by means of fibrocartilage or hyaline cartilage

The epiphyseal plate of a growing bone is actually a temporary joint called a
A. synchondrosis
B. synostosis
C. syndesmosis
D. symphysis
E. suture

A. synchondrosis

The inability to produce the fluid that keeps most joints moist indicates a disorder of the
A. cruciate ligament
B. synovial membrane
C. articular cartilage
D. bursae
E. mucus membrane

B. synovial membrane

Which of the following joints is most moveable?
A. suture
B. syndesmosis
C. symphysis
D. synovial
E. synchondrosis

D. synovial

This type of joint is multiaxial allowing a wide range of movement:
A. saddle
B. hinge
C. pivot
D. plane
E. ball and socket

E. ball and socket

The joint between the articular processes of adjacent vertebrae is a _____ joint
A. saddle
B. hinge
C. pivot
D. plane
E. ball and socket

D. plane

An example of a saddle joint is the
A. shoulder joint
B. elbow joint
C. atlanto-occipital joint
D. carpometacarpal joint
E. atlantoaxial joint

D. carpometacarpal joint

The joint between the head of the radius and the proximal end of the ulna is a _____joint
A. plane
B. saddle
C. hinge
D. pivot
E. ball and socket

D. pivot

Which of the following movements is an example of extension?
A. bending forward at the waist
B. kneeling
C. raising your arm laterally
D. using your finger to point out an area on the map
E. shrugging your shoulders

D. using your finger to point out an area on the map

Standing on one's toes is an example of a movement called
A. dorsiflexion
B. plantar flexion
C. depression
D. opposition
E. elevation

B. plantar flexion

Which of the following does NOT occur due to the effects of aging on the joints?
A. decreased range of motion
B. decreased flexibility
C. increased production of synovial fluid
D. weakening of muscles
E. decreased tissue repair

C. increased production of synovial fluid

A movement throughout 360 degrees that combines flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction is called
A. circumduction
B. rotation
C. hyperextension
D. supination
E. pronation

A. circumduction

Rotating the forearm so that the palm faces posteriorly is called
A. circumduction
B. rotation
C. hyperextension
D. supination
E. pronation

E. pronation

Which of the following does NOT influence the range of motion of a joint?
A. the shape of the articular surface of the bones
B. the amount and shape of cartilage
C. the amount of fluid in and around the joint
D. the strength and location of tendons and ligaments
E. all of these influence range of motion

E. all of these influence range of motion

Moving the shoulders posteriorly so that the scapulae approach the vertebral column is an example of
A. rotation
B. eversion
C. depression
D. retraction

D. retraction

Turning the ankle so that the plantar surface faces laterally is
A. eversion
B. inversion
C. supination
D. retraction

A. eversion

The anterior cruciate ligament prevents _____ displacement of the tibia
A. anterior
B. inversion
C. lateral
D. medial
E. radial

A. anterior

A sharp object penetrated a synovial joint. From the following list of structures, select the order in which they were penetrated
(1) tendon or muscle
(2) ligament
(3) fibrous capsule
(4) skin
(5) synovial membrane
A. 4, 1, 2, 5, 3
B. 4, 5, 1, 2, 3
C. 4, 3, 2, 5, 1
D. 4, 1, 2, 3, 5
E. 4, 2, 1, 5, 3

D. 4, 1, 2, 3, 5
(4) skin
(1) tendon or muscle
(2) ligament
(3) fibrous capsule
(5) synovial membrane

Which of the following is NOT a function of skeletal muscle?
A. body movement
B. maintenance of posture
C. respiration
D constriction of organs
E production of heat

D constriction of organs

Smooth muscle and cardiac muscle are similar in that they both
A are under involuntary control
B are striated
C are widely distributed in the body
D have multiple nuclei
E are under voluntary control

A. are under involuntary control

The capacity of a muscle cell to shorten forcefully is known as
A contractility
B excitability
C extensibility
D elasticity
E flexibility

A contractility

Muscles exhibit the property of excitability this means that the muscle
A shortens its length
B recoils to its original resting length
C stretched beyond its normal length
D responds to stimulation by the nervous system
E excites itself

D responds to stimulation by the nervous system

Which type of muscle tissue is auto rhythmic
A cardiac muscle
B smooth muscle
C skeletal muscle
D both skeletal and cardiac muscle
E both cardiac and smooth muscle

E both cardiac and smooth muscle

What type of muscle tissue causes vasoconstriction
A cardiac muscle
B skeletal muscle
C smooth muscle

C smooth muscle

A fasciculus
A is a bundle of reticular fibers
B is surrounded by perimysium
C. is only found in smooth muscle
D possesses an external lamina
E is a bundle of collagen fibers

B is surrounded by perimysium

List the following structures in the order from smallest to largest
1 muscle fiber
2 my filament
3 myofibril
4 muscle fasciculus
A 4, 2, 3, 1
B 2, 1, 4, 3
C 3, 1, 4, 2
D 2, 3, 1, 4
E 1, 2, 3, 4

D 2, 3, 1, 4

2 my filament
3 myofibril
1 muscle fiber
4 muscle fasciculus

Muscle myofibrils
A. are found in the sarcolemma
B extend from the sarcolemma to the T- tubule
C contain myosin and actin my filaments
D hold muscle cells together
E do not appear striated

C contain myosin and actin my filaments

ATP- ase is found in
A F- actin strands
B G- actin strands
C myosin heads
D tropomyosin grooves
E troponin molecules

C myosin heads

Which of the following is NOT a property of the myosin head?
A They form Cross-bridges with the active sites of actin
B They have a hinge region to bend and straighten
C They bind troponin
D They have ATP-ase activity
E They bind to ATP

C They bind troponin

A sarcomere is the
A cell membrane of a muscle fiber
B cytoplasm of muscle cells
C structural and functional unit of the skeletal muscle cell
D contractile thread that extends the length of the muscle fiber
E protein strand composed of actin or myosin

C structural and functional unit of the skeletal muscle cell

The Sarcoplasm is the
A cell membrane of a muscle fiber
B cytoplasm of muscle cells
C structural and functional unit of the skeletal muscle cell
D contractile thread that extends the length of the muscle fiber
E protein strand composed of actin or myosin

B cytoplasm of muscle cells

The Sarcolemma is the
A cell membrane of a muscle fiber
B cytoplasm of muscle cells
C structural and functional unit of the skeletal muscle cell
D contractile thread that extends the length of the muscle fiber
E protein strand composed of actin or myosin

A cell membrane of a muscle fiber

A myofibril is the
A cell membrane of a muscle fiber
B cytoplasm of muscle cells
C structural and functional unit of the skeletal muscle cell
D contractile thread that extends the length of the muscle fiber
E protein strand composed of actin or myosin

D contractile thread that extends the length of the muscle fiber

Which of the following statements regarding the sliding filament model is false?
A Actin and myosin do not shorten during contraction
B Both actin and myosin myofilaments shorten during contraction
C The sarcomere shortens
D The I band and H zones become narrower during contraction
E The A band remains constant in length

B Both actin and myosin myofilaments shorten during contraction

Which of the following is true during the resting membrane potential
A Sodium ion concentration is greater inside the cell
B Negatively charged proteins are more concentrated outside the cell
C A greater concentration of calcium ions is found inside the cell
D Potassium is concentrated primarily inside the cell
E None of these choices reflect what occurs during the resting membrane potential

D Potassium is concentrated primarily inside the cell

Lack of Acetyl cholinesterase in the synaptic cleft would result in
A continuous stimulation of the presynaptic membrane
B relaxation of the muscle
C rapid degradation of acetylcholine
D a decrease in acetylcholine production by the motor neuron
E continuous stimulation of the postsynaptic membrane

A continuous stimulation of the presynaptic membrane

A muscle fiber will respond to a stimulus when that stimulus reaches the _____ level
A resting
B relaxation
C rigor mortis
D recruitment
E threshold

E threshold

The sites where a chemical substance is transmitted from the presynaptic terminal of an axon to the postsynaptic membrane of a muscle fiber are called
A Neuromuscular junction
B sarcomeres
C my filaments
D Z disk
E cell body of neuron

A Neuromuscular junction

Synaptic vesicles in the neuromuscular junction contain
A. Calcium
B ATP
C acetylcholine
D sodium
E acetyl cholinesterase

C acetylcholine

Depolarization of the cell membrane occurs when there is a rapid influx (inflow) of
A amino acids
B calcium ions
C sodium ions
D chloride ions
E potassium ions

C sodium ions

Channels that open or close in response to changes in the electrical charge or voltage across the plasma membrane are called
A Obligated ion channels
B relegated ion channels
C voltage gated ion channels
D non -gated ion channels
E ligand gated ion channels

C voltage gated ion channels

Which of the following events occurs on the post synaptic membrane?
A release of calcium ions
B release of neurotransmitter
C Rapid degradation of acetylcholine
D acetylcholine production
E neurotransmitter combines with a receptor molecule

E neurotransmitter combines with a receptor molecule

Arrange the following list of biochemical events in the correct sequence
1 and action potential is conducted deep into the muscle fiber by the T tubule
2 Calcium ions bind to troponin
3 The membranes of the sarcoplasmic reticulum become more permeable to calcium ions
4 Calcium ions diffuse into the sarcoplasm around the myofibril
5 The troponin -tropomyosin complex moves exposing active sites
A 1, 3, 4, 2, 5
B 1, 4, 3, 2, 5
C 1, 5, 2, 3, 4
D 1, 3, 2, 5, 4
E 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

A 1, 3, 4, 2, 5

1 and action potential is conducted deep into the muscle fiber by the T tubule
3 The membranes of the sarcoplasmic reticulum become more permeable to calcium ions
4 Calcium ions diffuse into the sarcoplasm around the myofibril
2 Calcium ions bind to troponin
5 The troponin -tropomyosin complex moves exposing active sites

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