Pharm Exam 4 Book Questions
Order by
66 terms
Terms | Definitions |
|---|---|
 When assessing a patient who is to receive a decongestant, the nurse will recognize that a potential contraindication to this drug would be a.glaucoma b. fever c.ulcer disease d.allergic rhinitis | a.glaucoma |
| When giving decongestants, the nurse must remember that these drugs have alpha-adrenergic-stimulating effects that may result in a. fever b. bradycardia c. hypertension d. CNS depression | c. hypertention |
| 3. The nurse is reviewing a patient's medication orders for prn(as necessary) medications that can be given to a patient who has bronchitis with a productive cough. Which drug should the nurse choose? a. an antitussive b. an expectorant c. an antihistamine d. a decongestant | b. an expectorant |
| 4. The nurse knows that an antitussive cough medication would be the best choice for which patient? a. A patient with a productive cough b. A patient with chronic paranasal sinusitis c. A patient who has had recent abdominal surgery d. A patient who has influenza | c. A patient who has had recent abdominal surgery |
| 5. A patient is taking a decongestant to help reduce symptoms of a cold. The nurse should instruct the patient to observe for which possible symptom, which may indicate an adverse effect of this drug? a. increased cough b. dry mouth c. slower heart rate d. heart palpitations | d. heart palpitations |
| 6. The nurse is giving an antihistamine and will observe the patient for which side effects?(select all that apply) a. hypertension b. dizziness c. "hangover" effect d. drowsiness e. tachycardia f. dry mouth | b. dizziness c. "hangover" effect d. drowsiness f. dry mouth |
| 1. A patient who has a history of asthma is experiencing an acute episode of shortness of breath and needs to take a medication for immediate relief. Which medication will the nurse choose for this situation? a. A beta agonist such as albuterol b. An antileukotriene such as montelukast c. A corticosteroid, such as fluticasone d. An anticholinergic, such as ipratropium | a. A beta agonist such as albuterol |
| . After a nebulizer treatment with the beta agonist albuterol, the patient complains of feeling a little "shaky", with slight tremors of the hands. His heart rate is 98 beats/min, increased from the pretreatment rate of 88 beats/min. The nurse knows that this reaction is an: a. expected adverse effect of the medication. b. allergic reaction to the medication c. indication that he has received an overdose of the medication. d. idiosyncratic reaction to the medication. | a. expected adverse effect of the medication. |
| 3. A patient has been receiving an aminophylline (xanthine derivative) infusion for 24 hours. The nurse will expect to see which adverse effect when assessing the patient during the infusion? a. CNS depression b.Sinus tachycardia c. Increased appetite d. Temporary urinary retention | b.Sinus tachycardia |
| 4. During a teaching session for a patient who will be receiving a new prescription for the LTRA montelukast (Singulair), the nurse should tell the patient that the drug has which therapeutic effect? a. improves the respiratory drive b. loosens and removes thickened secretions c. reduces inflammation in the airway d. stimulates immediate bronchodilation | c. reduces inflammation in the airway |
| 5. After the patient takes a dose of inhaled corticosteroid, such as fluticasone, what is the most important action the patient should do next? a. Hold the breath for 60 seconds b. Rinse out the mouth with water c. Follow the corticosteroid with a bronchodilator inhaler, if ordered d. Repeat the dose in 15 minutes if the patient feels short of breath | b. Rinse out the mouth with water |
| 6. A patient has been given an MDI of albuterol and is instructed to take two puffs three times a day, with doses 6 hours apart. The inhaler contains 200 actuations. Calculate how many days the inhaler will deliver this ordered dose. | Approximately 33 days (6 puffs per day divided into 200) |
| 1. A patient is scheduled for colorectal surgery tomorrow. He does not have sepsis, his WBC count is normal, he has no fever, and he is otherwise in good health. However, there is an order to administer an antibiotic on call before he goes to surgery. The nurse knows that the rationale for this antibiotic is to a. provide empiric therapy b. provide prophylactic therapy c. treat for a superinfection d. reduce the number of resistant organisms. | b. provide prophylactic therapy |
| 2. A teenaged patient is taking a tetracycline drug as part of treatment for severe acne. When the nurse teaches this patient about drug-related precautions, which is the most important information to convey? a. When the acne clears up, the medication may be discontinued b. This medication should be taken with antacids to reduce GI upset. c. The patient should use sunscreen or avoid exposure to sunlight, because this drug may cause photosensitivity. d. The teeth should be observed closely for signs of mottling or other color changes. | c. The patient should use sunscreen or avoid exposure to sunlight, because this drug may cause photosensitivity. |
| 3. A newly admitted patient reports a penicillin allergy. The prescriber has ordered a second-generation cephalosporin as part of the therapy. Which of the nursing actions below is appropriate? a. call the prescriber to clarify the order because of the patient's allergy b. Give the medication and monitor for adverse effects. c. Ask the pharmacy to change the order because of the patient's allergy d. Administer the drug with a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory to reduce adverse effects. | a. call the prescriber to clarify the order because of the patient's allergy |
| 4. During patient education regarding an oral macrolide such as erythromycin, the nurse should include which information? a. If GI upset occurs, the drug will have to be stopped. b. The drug should be taken with an antacid to avoid GI problems c. The patient should take each dose with a sip of water d. The patient may take the drug with a small snack to reduce GI irritation. | d. The patient may take the drug with a small snack to reduce GI irritation. |
| 5. A woman who has been taking an antibiotic for a UTI calls the nurse practitioner to complain of severe vaginal itching. She has also noticed a thick, whitish vaginal discharge. The nurse practitioner suspects that a. this is an expected response to antibiotic therapy b. the UTI has become worse instead of better c. A superinfection has developed d. the UTI is resistant to the antibiotic | d. the UTI is resistant to the antibiotic |
| 6. The nurse is reviewing the orders for wound care, which include use of an antiseptic. Which statements best describe the use of antiseptics? (Select all that apply) a. Antiseptics are appropriate for use on living tissue. b. Antiseptics work by sterilizing the surface of the wound. c. Antiseptics are applied to nonliving objects to kill microorganisms. d. The patient's allergies should be assessed before using the antiseptic. e. Antiseptics are used to inhibit the growth of microorganisms on the wound surface. | a.. Antiseptics are appropriate for use on living tissue. d. The patient's allergies should be assessed before using the antiseptic. e. Antiseptics are used to inhibit the growth of microorganisms on the wound surface. |
| 1. While assessing a woman who is receiving an antibiotic for community acquired pneumonia, the nurse notes that the patient has a thick, white vaginal discharge. The patient is also complaining about perennial itching. The nurse suspects that the patient has a. resistance to the antibiotic b. an adverse effect of the antibiotic c. a superinfection d.an allergic reaction | c. a superinfection |
| 2. A patient has been admitted for treatment of an infected leg ulcer and will be started on intravenous linezolid. The nurse is reviewing the list of the patient's current medications. Which type of medication, if listed, would be of most concern if taken with the linezolid? a. Beta-blocker b. Oral anticoagulant c. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor antidepressant d. Thyroid replacement hormone | c. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor antidepressant |
| 3 When administering vancomycin, the nurse knows that which of the following is the most important thing to assess before giving a dose? A Renal function B WBC count C Liver function D Platelet count | A Renal function |
| 4. During therapy with an intravenous aminoglycoside, the patient calls the nurse and says "I'm hearing odd sounds, like ringing in my ears" Which is the best action of the nurse at this time? a. Reassure the patient that these are expected adverse effects. b. Reduce the rate of the intravenous infusion c. Increase the rate of the intravenous infusion d. Stop the infusion immediately and notify the prescriber | d. Stop the infusion immediately and notify the prescriber |
| 5. When giving intravenous quinolones, the nurse needs to keep in mind that these drugs may have serious interactions with which drugs? a. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor antidepressants. b. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs c. Oral anticoagulants d. Antihypertensives | c. Oral anticoagulants |
| 6. The nurse is administering an intravenous aminoglycoside to a patient who has had gastrointestinal surgery. Which nursing measures are appropriate? (Select all that apply) a. Report a trough drug level of 0.8 mcg/mL and hold the drug b. Enforce a strict fluid restriction c. Monitor serum creatinine levels d. Instruct the patient to report dizziness or a feeling of fullness in the ears. e. Warn the patient that the urine may turn darker in color. | c. Monitor serum creatinine levels d. Instruct the patient to report dizziness or a feeling of fullness in the ears. |
| 1. During treatment with zidovudine, the nurse needs to monitor for which potential adverse effect? a.Retinitis b. Deep vein thrombosis c. Kaposi's sarcoma d. Bone marrow suppression | d. Bone marrow suppression |
| 2. After giving an injection to a patient with HIV infection, the nurse accidentally receives a needlestick from a too-full needle disposal box. Recommendations for occupational HIV exposure may include the use of which drug(s)? a. Didanosine b. Lamivudine and enfuvirtide c. Zidovudine, lamivudine, and indinavir d. Acyclovir | c. Zidovudine, lamivudine, and indinavir |
| 3. When the nurse is teaching a patient who is taking acyclovir for genital herpes, which statement by the nurse is accurate? a. "this drug will help the lesions to dry and crust over" b. "Acyclovir will eradicate the herpes virus" c. "this drug will prevent the spread of this virus to others" d. "Be sure to give this drug to your partner too" | a. "this drug will help the lesions to dry and crust over" |
| 4. A patient who has been newly diagnosed with HIV has many questions about the effectiveness of drug therapy. After a teaching session, which statement by the patient reflects a need for more education? a. "I will be monitored for adverse effects and improvements while I'm taking this medicine" b. "These drugs do not eliminate the HIV, but hopefully the amount of virus in my body will be reduced". c. "There is no cure for HIV" d. "These drugs will eventually eliminate the virus from my body" | d. "These drugs will eventually eliminate the virus from my body" |
| 5. After surgery for organ transplantation, a patient is receiving ganciclovir, even though he does not have a viral infection. Which statement best explains the rationale for this medication therapy? a. Ganciclovir is used to prevent potential exposure to the HIV virus. b. This medication is given prophylactically to prevent influenza A infection c. Ganciclovir is given to prevent CMV infection d. The drug works synergistically with antibiotics to prevent superinfections | c. Ganciclovir is given to prevent CMV infection |
| 6. The nurse is reviewing the use of multidrug therapy for HIV with a patient. Which statements are correct regarding the reason for using multiple drugs to treat HIV? (Select all that apply) a. The combination of drugs has fewer associated toxicities. b. the use of multiple drugs is more effective against resistant strains of HIV. c. Effective treatment results in reduced T-cell counts. d. The goal of this treatment is to reduce the viral load. e. This type of therapy reduces the incidence of opportunistic infections. | b. the use of multiple drugs is more effective against resistant strains of HIV. d. The goal of this treatment is to reduce the viral load. e. This type of therapy reduces the incidence of opportunistic infections. |
| 1. The nurse is teaching a patient who is starting antitubercular therapy with rifampin. Which adverse effects would the nurse expect to see? a.Headache and neck pain b. Glaucoma and gynecomastia c. Reddish brown urine d. Numbness or tingling of extremities | c. Reddish brown urine |
| 2. During antitubercular therapy with isoniazid, the patient received another prescription for pyridoxine. Which statement by the nurse best explains the rationale for this second medication? a. "This vitamin will help to improve your energy levels" b. "This helps to prevent neurologic adverse effects" c. "It works to protect your heart from toxic effects" d. "This drug works to reduce gastrointestinal adverse effects" | b. "This helps to prevent neurologic adverse effects" |
| 3. When the nurse is counseling a woman who is beginning antitubercular therapy with rifampin, which statement by the nurse is most important regarding potential drug interactions? a. "if you are taking birth control pills, you will need to switch to another form of birth control" b. "Your birth control pills will remain effective while you are taking rifampin". c. "You will need to switch to a stronger form of oral contraceptive while taking rifampin". d. "You can take the birth control pills with the rifampin without problems, but it may cause your urine to turn reddish orange". | a. "if you are taking birth control pills, you will need to switch to another form of birth control" |
| 4. When counseling a patient who has been newly diagnosed with TB, the nurse should make sure that the patient realizes that he or she is contagious a. during all phases of the illness b. any time up to 18 months after therapy begins c during the postictal phase of TB d. during the initial period of the illness and its diagnosis | d. during the initial period of the illness and its diagnosis |
| 5. While monitoring a patient, the nurse knows that a therapeutic response to antitubercular drugs would be: a. the patient states that he or she is feeling much better b. The patient's laboratory test results show a lower white blood cell count. c. The patient reports a decrease in cough and night sweats d. There is a decrease in symptoms, along with improved chest radiograph and sputum culture results. | d. There is a decrease in symptoms, along with improved chest radiograph and sputum culture results. |
| 6. The nurse is monitoring for liver toxicity in a patient who has been receiving long-term isoniazid therapy. Manifestations of liver toxicity include: (Select all that apply) a. Orange discoloration of sweat and tears b. Darkened urine c. Dizziness d. Fatigue e. Visual disturbances f. Jaundice | b. Darkened urine d. Fatigue f. Jaundice |
| 1. The nurse is assessing a patient who is about to receive antifungal drug therapy. Which problem would be of most concern? a. Endocrine disease b.Hepatic disease c. Cardiac disease d. Pulmonary disease | b.Hepatic disease |
| 2. While monitoring a patient who is receiving intravenous amphotericin B, the nurse expects to see which adverse effect(s)? a. Hypertension b. Bradycardia c. Fever and chills d. Diarrhea and stomach cramps | c. Fever and chills |
| 3. When administering antifungal drug therapy, the nurse knows that a problem that contributes to many of the drug interactions with antifungals is a. polyuria b. gallbladder metabolism c. bone distribution d. Cytochrome P-450 enzyme system | d. Cytochrome P-450 enzyme system |
| 4. During an infusion of amphotericin B, the nurse knows that which administration technique may be used to minimize infusion-related adverse effects? a. Forcing of fluids during the infusion b. infusing the medication quickly c. infusing the medication over a longer period of time d. Stopping the infusion for 2 hours after half of the bag has infused, then resuming 1 hour later | c. infusing the medication over a longer period of time |
| 5. When the nurse is teaching a patient who is taking nystatin lozenges for oral candidiasis, which instruction by the nurse is correct? a. "Chew the lozenge carefully before swallowing b. "Dissolve the lozenge slowly and completely in your mouth" c. "Dissolve the lozenge until it is half the original size, then swallow it" d. "These lozenges should be swallowed whole with a glass of water" | b. "Dissolve the lozenge slowly and completely in your mouth" |
| 6. When monitoring a patient who is receiving caspofungin, the nurse should look for which serious adverse effects? (Select all that apply) a. Blood dycrasias b. Hypotension c. Cardiac palpitations d. Tinnitus e. Hepatoxicity | a. Blood dycrasias b. Hypotension e. Hepatoxicity |
| 1. The nurse is reviewing the medication history of a patient who is taking hydroxychloroquine. However, the patient's chart does not reveal a history of malaria or travel out of the country. The patient is most likely taking this medication for a. Plasmodium b.thyroid disorders c. roundworms d. rheumatoid arthritis | d. rheumatoid arthritis |
| 2. Which teaching point would be appropriate to include when the nurse is informing patients about the adverse effects of antimalarials? a. The skin may turn blotchy while these medications are taken b. These medications may cause anorexia and abdominal distress c. These drugs may cause increased urinary output d. The patient may experience periods of diaphoresis and chills. | b. These medications may cause anorexia and abdominal distress |
| 3. When teaching a patient about the potential drug interactions with antiprotozoal drugs, the nurse should include information about a. acetaminophen b. warfarin c. decongestants d. antibiotics | b. warfarin |
| 4. Before administering antiprotozoal drugs, the nurse should review which baseline assessment? a. Prothrombin time b. Serum magnesium level c. Hemoglobin level d. Arterial blood gas concentrations | c. Hemoglobin level |
| 5. The nurse knows that antimalarial drugs are used to treat patients with infections caused by what protozoans? a. Plasmodium spp. b. Candida albicans c. Pneumocystis jirovecii d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis | a. Plasmodium spp. |
| 6. When giving metronidazole, the nurse implements appropriate administration techniques, including (Select all that apply) a. Giving oral forms with food b. Giving oral forms on an empty stomach with a full glass of water c. Infusing intravenous doses over 30 to 60 minutes d. Administering intravenous doses by bolus over 5 minutes e. Obtaining ordered specimens before starting the medication | a. Giving oral forms with food c. Infusing intravenous doses over 30 to 60 minutes e. Obtaining ordered specimens before starting the medication |
| 1. When a patient is receiving long-term NSAID therapy, which drug may be given to prevent the serious gastrointestinal adverse side effects of NSAIDs? a. misoprostol (Cytotec) b. misoprostol (Lopressor) c. metoclopramide (Reglan) d. magnesium sulfate | a. misoprostol (Cytotec) |
| 2. The nurse recognizes that manifestations of NSAID toxicity include: a. Constipation b. Nausea and Vomiting c. Tremors d. Urinary retention | b. Nausea and Vomiting |
| 3. During a teaching session about antigout drugs, the nurse would tell the patient that antigout drugs work by which mechanism? a. Increasing blood oxygen levels b. Decreasing leukocytes and platelets c. Increasing protein and rheumatoid factors d. Decreasing serum uric acid levels | d. Decreasing serum uric acid levels |
| 4. When the nurse is teaching about antigout drugs, which statement by the nurse is accurate? a. "Drink only limited amounts of fluids with the drug" b. "This drug may cause limited movements of your joints" c. "There are very few drug interactions with these medications" d. "Colchicine is best taken on an empty stomach" | d. "Colchicine is best taken on an empty stomach" |
| 5. A mother calls the clinic to ask what medication to give her 5-year-old child for a fever during a bout of chicken pox. The nurse's best response would be a. "Your child is 5 years old so it would be okay to use children's aspirin to treat his fever" b. "Start with acetaminophen or ibuprofen but if those do not work then you can try aspirin" c. "You can use children's dosages of acetaminophen or ibuprofen, but aspirin is not recommended" d. "It is best to wait to let the fever break on its own without medication" | c. "You can use children's dosages of acetaminophen or ibuprofen, but aspirin is not recommended" |
| 6. A 49-year-old patient has been admitted with possible chronic salicylate intoxication after self-treatment for arthritis pain. The nurse will assess for which symptoms of salicylate intoxication? (Select all that apply) a. Tinnitus b. Headache c. Constipation d. Nausea e. Bradycardia | a. Tinnitus b. Headache d. Nausea |
| 1. A patient is experiencing stomatitis after a round of chemotherapy. Which interventions by the nurse are correct? a. clean the mouth with a soft bristle toothbrush and warm saline solution b. rinse the mouth with commercial mouthwash twice a day c. Use lemon-glycerin swabs to keep the mouth moist d. keep dentures in the mouth between meals | a. clean the mouth with a soft bristle toothbrush and warm saline solution |
| 2. The nurse is caring for a patient who becomes severely nauseated during chemotherapy. Which intervention is most appropriate? a. Encourage light activity during chemotherapy as a distraction b. Provide antiemetic medications 30 to 60 minutes before chemotherapy begins c. Provide antiemetic medications only upon the request of the patient d. Hold fluids during chemotherapy to avoid vomiting | b. Provide antiemetic medications 30 to 60 minutes before chemotherapy begins |
| 3. The nurse monitors a patient who is experiencing thrombocytopenia from severe bone marrow suppression by looking for a. severe weakness and fatigue b. elevated body temperature c. decreased skin turgor d. excessive bleeding and bruising | d. excessive bleeding and bruising |
| 4. A patient receiving chemotherapy is experiencing severe bone marrow suppression. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate at this time? a. activity intolerance b. Risk for infection c. Disturbed body image d. impaired physical mobility | b. Risk for infection |
| 5. If extravasation of an antineoplastic medication occurs, which intervention should the nurse perform first? a. Apply cold compresses to the site while elevating the arm b. Inject subcutaneous doses of epinephrine around the IV site every 2 hours c. Stop the infusion immediately while leaving the catheter in place d. Inject the appropriate antidote through the IV catheter | c. Stop the infusion immediately while leaving the catheter in place |
| 6. The nurse is assessing a patient who has experienced severe neutropenia after chemotherapy and will monitor for which possible signs of infection in this patient? (Select all that apply) a. Elevated WBC count b. Fever c. Nausea d. Sore Throat e. Chills | b. Fever d. Sore Throat e. Chills |
| 1. A patient who is receiving chemotherapy with cisplatin has developed pneumonia. The nurse would be concerned about nephrotoxicity if which type of antibiotic was ordered as treatment for the pneumonia at this time? a. Penicillin b. Sulfa drug c. Fluoroquinolone d. Aminoglycoside | d. Aminoglycoside |
| 2. During treatment with doxorubicin, the nurse must monitor closely for which potentially life-threatening adverse effect? a. Nephrotoxicity b. Peripheral neuritis c. Cardiomyopathy d. Ototoxicity | c. Cardiomyopathy |
| 3. While teaching a patient who is about to receive cyclophosphamide chemotherapy, the nurse should instruct the patient to watch for potential adverse effects, such as: a. Cholinergic diarrhea b. Hemorrhagic cystitis c. Peripheral neuropathy d. Ototoxicity | b. Hemorrhagic cystitis |
| 4. When chemotherapy with alkylating drugs is planned, the nurse expects to implement which intervention to prevent nephrotoxicity? a. Hydrating the patient with intravenous fluids before chemotherapy b. Limiting fluids before chemotherapy c. Monitoring drug levels during chemotherapy d. Assessing creatinine clearance during chemotherapy | a. Hydrating the patient with intravenous fluids before chemotherapy |
| 5. During therapy with the cytotoxic antibiotic bleomycin, the nurse will assess for a potentially serious adverse effect by monitoring a. blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels. b. cardiac ejection fraction c. respiratory function d. cranial nerve function | c. respiratory function |
| 6. While administering bevacizumab (Avastin), what will the nurse assess to look for drug related toxicities? (Select all that apply) a. blood pressure b. Color of the skin and sclera of the eye (for jaundice) c. Blood glucose level d. Urine protein level e. Hearing | a. blood pressure d. Urine protein level |
First Time Here?
Welcome to Quizlet, a fun, free place to study. Try these flashcards, find others to study, or make your own.