Developmental Psychology Flashcards for Final

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Sample Questions from All Chapters Studied

Who's idea is this: "The life-span perspective has seven fundamental contentions."?

Paul Baltes

Who's idea is this: "Children actively construct their understanding of the world in four stages."?

Jean Piaget

Who's idea is this: "Our adult personality is determined by the way we resolve conflicts between sources of pleasure and the demands of reality at each of five stages of psychosexual development."?

Sigmund Freud

Who's idea is this: "People cognitively represent others' behavior and sometimes adopt it themselves."?

Albert Bandura

Who's idea is this: "Parenting and nurturing the next generation of children are our society's most important functions."?

Marian Wright Edelman

Who's idea is this: "Our society is increasingly age-irrelevant."?

Bernice Neugarten

Who's idea is this: "Imprinting, the rapid, innate learning that involves attachment of the young to its mother, needs to take place very early in life or it won't take place."?

Konrad Lorenz

Who's idea is this: "Children's social interaction with more skilled adults and peers is indispensable to their cognitive development."?

Lev Vygotsky

Who's idea is this: "Humans develop in psychosocial stages."?

Erik Erikson

Who's idea is this: "Rewards and punishments shape individuals' development."?

B. F. Skinner

Life-span development begins with _______ and continues through _______.
A) birth; death
B) conception; the human life span
C) infancy; the human life span
D) conception; death

D) conception; death

According to the life-span perspective, human development is:
A) dominated by the childhood period.
B) a biological process uninfluenced by environment.
C) characterized by both growth and decline.
D) irreversible.

C) characterized by both growth and decline.

Many older persons become wiser with age, yet perform more poorly on cognitive tests. This supports the life-span perspective notion that development is:
A) multidirectional.
B) multidimensional.
C) lifelong.
D) plastic.

A) multidirectional.

Parents in the United States are more likely to rear their children to be independent than are parents in Japan. This research finding supports Baltes's assertion that development is:
A) contextual.
B) multidirectional.
C) multidimensional.
D) plastic.

A) contextual.

Some dimensions of development may expand and others shrink as individuals develop. This statement supports Baltes's assertion that development is:
A) contextual.
B) multidirectional.
C) multidimensional.
D) plastic.

B) multidirectional.

Research has shown that the reasoning abilities of older adults can be improved through retraining. This is an example of how development is:
A) contextual.
B) multidirectional.
C) multidimensional.
D) plastic.

D) plastic.

In many cultures, people retire from their careers in their 50s or 60s. This is an example of a:
A) normative age-graded influence.
B) normative history-graded influence.
C) non-normative life event.
D) non-normative socioemotional event.

A) normative age-graded influence.

Like many others her age, Katherine does not know how to use a computer, but her 6-year-old grandson has no problem navigating the Internet and using a word-processing program. This is an example of an:
A) normative age-graded influence.
B) normative history-graded influence.
C) non-normative life event.
D) non-normative socioemotional event.

B) normative history-graded influence.

When Ben was 13, his father was killed in a car accident. This is an example of a:
A) normative age-graded influence.
B) normative history-graded influence.
C) non-normative life event.
D) non-normative socioemotional event.

C) non-normative life event.

The onset of puberty is an example of a:
A) normative age-graded influence.
B) normative history-graded influence.
C) non-normative life event.
D) non-normative socioemotional event.

A) normative age-graded influence.

The terrorist attacks of 9/11/2001 in the United States would be an example of a:
A) normative age-graded influence.
B) normative history-graded influence.
C) non-normative life event.
D) storm-and-stress event.

B) normative history-graded influence.

A national government's course of action designed to promote the welfare of its citizens is referred to as its:
A) advocacy program.
B) health care system.
C) minority rights legislation.
D) social policy.

D) social policy.

Which of the following processes involves changes in an individual's intelligence and language?
A) Biological processes
B) Cognitive processes
C) Social processes
D) Socioemotional processes

B) Cognitive processes

The "elementary school years" refer to which period of development?
A) Early childhood period
B) School readiness period
C) Middle and late childhood period
D) Adolescence period

C) Middle and late childhood period

The "young old" of late adulthood:
A) experience sizeable losses in cognitive potential.
B) have high levels of frailty.
C) are between 65 and 84 years of age.
D) are at the limits of their functional capacity.

C) are between 65 and 84 years of age.

The number of years since a person was born is described as his or her:
A) chronological age.
B) biological age.
C) psychological age.
D) developmental age.

A) chronological age.

Rosa is 80 years old. She continues to learn phrases in new languages, she writes poetry, and she enjoys going to museums to see the latest up-and-coming artists. These examples of her adaptive capacities demonstrate:
A) chronological age.
B) biological age.
C) psychological age.
D) social age.

C) psychological age.

As he was studying life-span development, Tyrell had to learn several interrelated, coherent sets of ideas that would help him explain and make predictions about development. In other words, Tyrell had to learn:
A) theories.
B) hypotheses.
C) models.
D) the scientific method.

A) theories.

Which theoretical perspective describes development as an unconscious process?
A) Cognitive
B) Ecological
C) Psychoanalytic
D) Ethological

C) Psychoanalytic

Which of the following stages, according to Freud, is when a child represses sexual interest and develops social and intellectual skills?
A) Oral stage
B) Phallic stage
C) Genital stage
D) Latency stage

D) Latency stage

Erik Erikson's theory emphasizes:
A) repeated resolutions of unconscious conflicts about sexual energy.
B) developmental change throughout the human life span.
C) changes in children's thinking as they mature.
D) the influence of sensitive periods in the various stages of biological maturation.

B) developmental change throughout the human life span.

The information-processing approach to development emphasizes:
A) the quality of thinking among children of different ages.
B) overcoming certain age-related problems or crises.
C) age-appropriate expressions of sexual energy.
D) that individuals manipulate information, monitor it, and strategize about it.

D) that individuals manipulate information, monitor it, and strategize about it.

From B. F. Skinner's point of view, behavior can be explained by:
A) operant conditioning.
B) classical conditioning.
C) social cognitive theory.
D) sociocultural theory.

A) operant conditioning.

According to Albert Bandura, the three factors that reciprocally influence development include:
A) cognition, reward, and observation.
B) punishment, reward, and reinforcement.
C) memory, problem solving, and reasoning.
D) behavior, the person/cognition, and the environment.

D) behavior, the person/cognition, and the environment.

If one of your professors identifies herself as a cognitive theorist, you know that she is particularly interested in:
A) thought processes.
B) repressed memories.
C) reciprocal interactions.
D) biology and evolution.

A) thought processes.

Which theory of development emphasizes critical or sensitive periods?
A) Ecological theory
B) Ethological theory
C) Behavioral theory
D) Social cognition theory

B) Ethological theory

In Bronfenbrenner's theory, the microsystem refers to the:
A) setting in which an individual lives and plays an active role.
B) culture in which an individual lives.
C) connections between the experiences in an individual's life.
D) pattern of environmental events and transitions over time.

A) setting in which an individual lives and plays an active role.

One difficulty of conducting research in the laboratory setting is that:
A) many of the complex factors of the "real world" are absent.
B) random assignment is impossible.
C) extraneous factors are difficult to control.
D) participants tend to be unaware that they are in an experiment.

A) many of the complex factors of the "real world" are absent.

To ensure that an observational measure is effective, it is important that it be conducted:
A) in a real-world setting rather than a laboratory.
B) in a controlled setting.
C) in a way that is systematic and planned carefully in advance.
D) with the consent and prior knowledge of all people being observed.

C) in a way that is systematic and planned carefully in advance.

What method of collecting data involves taking an in-depth look at a single individual?
A) Interview
B) Survey
C) Standardized test
D) Case study

D) Case study

Which of the following statements is true in regards to correlational research?
A) This type of research is difficult to administer.
B) Correlation does not equal causation.
C) Correlations do not determine the direction of a relationship.
D) Correlations do not indicate the strength of a relationship.

B) Correlation does not equal causation.

A factor that can change in an experiment, in response to a manipulated factor, is called the:
A) independent variable.
B) control variable.
C) dependent variable.
D) experimental variable.

C) dependent variable.

Which research strategy involves the simultaneous comparison of individuals of different ages?
A) Cross-sectional approach
B) Longitudinal approach
C) Sequential approach
D) Experimental approach

A) Cross-sectional approach

Which of the following terms refers to using an ethnic label in a superficial way that portrays an ethnic group as being more homogeneous than it really is?
A) Ethnic bias
B) Ethnic gloss
C) Racial effect
D) Cohort effect

B) Ethnic gloss

T or F: When considering periods of development, no particular age group reports more happiness or satisfaction than any other age group.

True

T or F: Nurture refers to an organism's biological inheritance.

False

T or F: According to Freud, people's problems are the result of experiences early in life.

True

T or F: Erik Erikson believed that people develop through eight psychosexual stages.

False

T or F: Each of Piaget's stages of cognitive development includes descriptions of distinct ways of thinking.

True

T or F: Vygotsky emphasized how culture and social interaction guide cognitive development.

True

T or F: Through operant conditioning the consequences of a behavior produce changes in the probability of that behavior's occurrence.

True

T or F: Imprinting is rapid, innate learning within a limited critical period of time that involves attachment to the first moving object seen.

True

T or F: An eclectic orientation does not follow any single theoretical approach, but rather selects and uses what is considered the best in each theory.

True

T or F: One advantage to standardized testing is that it provides information about individual differences among people.

True

T or F: The aim of descriptive research is to observe and record behavior.

True

T or F: A correlation coefficient of -0.95 implies a weak correlation.

False

T or F: Longitudinal studies are effective in studying age changes but have several drawbacks, including the fact that participants may drop out.

True

T or F: An abstract is a brief summary that appears at the end of a journal article.

False

T or F: Informed consent means that researchers must keep all of the data they gather on individuals completely confidential and anonymous.

False

Who's idea is this: "Shared environment accounts for little of the variation in children's personalities."?

Robert Plomin

Who's idea is this: "Along with T. Berry Brazelton, developed the NNNS to assess the at-risk infant."?

Barry Lester and Edward Tronick

Who's idea is this: "Neonatal neurological competence can be measured using a sensitive index."?

T. Berry Brazelton

Who's idea is this: "Massage therapy can improve at-risk infant outcomes."?

Tiffany Field

Who's idea is this: "Prepared childbirth can assist mothers during labor."?

Ferdinand Lamaze

Who's idea is this: "Genes are collaborative and development as the result of an ongoing, bidirectional interchange between heredity and environment."?

Gilbert Gottlieb

Who's idea is this: "Survivors are better adapted to their world than nonsurvivors."?

Charles Darwin

Who's idea is this: "The benefits conferred by evolutionary selection decrease with age."?

Paul Baltes

Who's idea is this: "There are three ways in which heredity and environment are correlated."?

Sandra Scarr

Who's idea is this: "Evolution pervasively influences how we make decisions."?

David Buss

The evolutionary process that favors individuals of a species that are best able to survive and reproduce is called:
A) adaptation.
B) distinction.
C) natural selection.
D) accommodation.

C) natural selection.

According to Paul Baltes, the benefits conferred by evolutionary selection:
A) increase with age.
B) decrease with age.
C) remain the same over the life span.
D) affect only the second half of life.

B) decrease with age.

Albert Bandura supports a bidirectional view of evolutionism in which:
A) environmental and biological conditions influence each other.
B) social behavior is the product of evolved biology.
C) biology does not affect human adaptation.
D) biology dictates human behavior.

A) environmental and biological conditions influence each other.

The units of hereditary information that direct cells to reproduce themselves and to assemble proteins are called:
A) chromosomes.
B) DNA.
C) genes.
D) genomes.

C) genes.

All cells in the human body, except the sperm and egg, have:
A) 46 paired chromosomes.
B) 46 unpaired chromosomes.
C) 23 paired chromosomes.
D) 23 unpaired chromosomes.

C) 23 paired chromosomes.

The typical female chromosome pattern is:

XX.

A phenotype consists of:
A) genetic material.
B) gene locations.
C) chromosome abnormalities.
D) physical and psychological characteristics.

D) physical and psychological characteristics.

The complete set of instructions for creating proteins that initiate the making of a human organism is referred to as the:
A) genotype.
B) zygote.
C) genome.
D) DNA map.

C) genome.

Which genetic disorder is caused by an extra chromosome?

Down syndrome

Which of these syndromes is not sex-linked?
A) phenylketonuria
B) Klinefelter syndrome
C) Turner syndrome
D) XYY syndrome

A) Phenylketonuria

Which of the following is a genetic disorder that impairs the body's red blood cells?
A) Hemophilia
B) Klinefelter syndrome
C) Turner syndrome
D) Sickle-cell anemia

D) Sickle-cell anemia

Twins who develop from a single fertilized egg are called:

identical twins.

Adoption studies are designed to test the different effects of:
A) parenting styles.
B) polygenic vs. single-gene traits.
C) environment and heredity.
D) knowledge of one's adopted status on children's behavior.

C) environment and heredity.

Mary begs her parents to allow her to take piano lessons. After her first several lessons, it quickly becomes apparent that Mary has a natural talent for music. This example best illustrates a(n):
A) passive genotype-environment correlation.
B) evocative genotype-environment correlation.
C) active genotype-environment correlation.
D) active genotype-phenotype correlation.

C) active genotype-environment correlation.

Rachel has always enjoyed reading. Now that she is a parent, she provides her daughter with many books to read, hoping the child will also learn to enjoy reading. How do behavior geneticists refer to this type of interaction between heredity and environment?
A) Passive genotype-environment interaction
B) Evocative genotype-environment interaction
C) Influential genotype-environment interaction
D) Active genotype-environment interaction

A) Passive genotype-environment interaction

A fertilized ovum is called a(n):

zygote.

The period of prenatal development that occurs in the first two weeks after conception is called the _______ period.

Germinal

The _____ of the embryo develops into the digestive and respiratory systems.

Endoderm

On average, the fetal period of prenatal development lasts for:

7 months.

Amniocentesis is a prenatal medical procedure that involves:
A) taking a blood sample from the mother.
B) drawing a sample of the fluid that surrounds the baby in the womb.
C) taking a sample of the placenta between the 8th and 11th week of pregnancy.
D) taking a blood sample from the fetus.

B) drawing a sample of the fluid that surrounds the baby in the womb.

Which of the following is a prenatal medical procedure in which high-frequency sound waves are directed into a pregnant woman's abdomen?
A) Fetal x-ray
B) MRI
C) Chorionic villi sampling
D) Ultrasound sonography

D) Ultrasound sonography

Organs and tissues in an unborn baby are most vulnerable to environmental changes during:
A) organogenesis.
B) the fetal period.
C) the germinal period.
D) trophoblast differentiation.

A) organogenesis.

A teratogen is a(n):
A) life-support system that protects the fetus.
B) agent that stimulates the formation of organs.
C) abnormality caused by premature birth.
D) environmental factor that produces birth defects.

D) environmental factor that produces birth defects.

Exposure to teratogens during the fetal period is likely to cause:
A) anatomical defects.
B) spontaneous abortion.
C) problems in the way organs function.
D) a difficult birthing process.

C) problems in the way organs function.

Which of the following is an example of a psychoactive drug?
A) Tetracycline
B) Aspirin
C) Estrogen
D) Alcohol

D) Alcohol

A common characteristic of babies born to women who smoke during their pregnancies is:
A) facial deformity.
B) below-average intelligence.
C) restlessness and irritability.
D) low birth weight.

D) low birth weight.

Women who plan to have children should have a blood test before they become pregnant to determine if they are immune to which infectious disease?
A) Syphilis
B) Rubella
C) Genital herpes
D) AIDS

B) Rubella

A woman experiences an at-risk pregnancy when:
A) she has a negative Rh factor and her partner has a positive Rh factor.
B) she has a negative Rh factor and her fetus does as well.
C) she has a positive Rh factor and her partner does as well.
D) she has a positive Rh factor and her partner has a negative Rh factor.

A) she has a negative Rh factor and her partner has a positive Rh factor.

A lack of folic acid in a pregnant woman's diet can result in offspring with:
A) dwarfism.
B) Marfan syndrome.
C) Down syndrome.
D) spina bifida.

D) spina bifida.

Which of the following statements is most accurate in regards to parental factors that influence pregnancy?
A) A father's age makes no difference to the health of his offspring.
B) Fetal death occurs most frequently in young mothers.
C) A baby with Down syndrome is rarely born to a mother under the age of 30.
D) Adolescent mothers suffer the lowest infant mortality rates of any age group.

C) A baby with Down syndrome is rarely born to a mother under the age of 30.

How can maternal stress affect the fetus?
A) Decreased intelligence
B) Increased risk of prematurity
C) Increased heart rate
D) Decreased growth rate

B) Increased risk of prematurity

How many stages are there in the birthing process?

Three

What physiological change occurs within the fetus during the birthing process to ensure that he or she can withstand the stress of birth?
A) Secretion of large quantities of hormones
B) Decreased heart rate
C) Decreased intake of oxygen
D) Filling of the air sacs with fluid

A) Secretion of large quantities of hormones

Which of the following is a complication of delivery?
A) Anoxia
B) Vernix caseosa
C) Jaundice
D) Toxoplasmosis

A) Anoxia

A doula is a:
A) childbearing woman.
B) certified nurse-midwife.
C) caregiver who helps a woman throughout childbirth.
D) woman who is experiencing the early stages of childbirth.

C) caregiver who helps a woman throughout childbirth.

Which of the following are/is a synthetic hormone used to stimulate contractions during the birthing process?
A) Analgesics
B) Anesthestics
C) Epidurals
D) Oxytocin

D) Oxytocin

Cesarean deliveries:
A) have a lower infection rate than vaginal deliveries.
B) are safer than breech deliveries.
C) are less common in the United States than they are in European countries.
D) are not performed as often in the United States as they have been in the past.

B) are safer than breech deliveries.

Infants born three weeks or more before the pregnancy has reached full-term are referred to as:
A) low-birth-weight infants.
B) small-for-date infants.
C) preterm infants.
D) small-for-gestational-age infants.

C) preterm infants.

Janet, a newborn, receives a score of 3 on the Apgar Scale. Janet's score indicates that she:
A) might not survive.
B) is responding well to the stress of delivery and the new environment.
C) performed as well as 70 percent of all newborns.
D) is in good physiological condition.

A) might not survive.

Which of the following assessment tools was developed to assess the at-risk infant who is preterm and/or substance-exposed?
A) Apgar Scale
B) Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale
C) Neonatal Intensive Care Unit Network Neurobehavioral Scale
D) Newborn Behavioral Observations System

C) Neonatal Intensive Care Unit Network Neurobehavioral Scale

T or F: Chromosomes are contained in the nucleus of a cell.

True

T or F: Humans have approximately 20,500 genes.

True

T or F: Sickle-cell anemia occurs most often in Asian Americans.

False

T or F: The epigenetic view emphasizes how heredity directs the kind of environmental experiences individuals have during their lifetime.

False

T or F: The trophoblast develops into the systems that provide nutrition and support for the embryo.

True

T or F: The placenta is a sac that contains a clear fluid in which the embryo floats.

False

T or F: The type and severity of abnormalities caused by a teratogen are linked to the genotype of the pregnant woman and the genotype of the fetus.

True

T or F: Drinking one or two servings of beer or wine a few days a week during pregnancy can have negative effects on the fetus.

True

T or F: A mother who is HIV-positive should avoid breast-feeding her infant.

True

T or F: The last stage of birth is the longest stage.

False

T or F: Natural childbirth attempts to reduce a mother's pain through education, breathing methods, and relaxation techniques.

True

T or F: In the United States, approximately 35 percent of babies are born at home.

False

T or F: In the United States, there has been a decrease in low-birth-weight infants in the last two decades.

False

T or F: The Brazelton Neonatal Behavior Assessment Scale is administered 24 to 36 hours after birth.

True

T or F: A newborn must have close contact with the mother in the first few days of life to develop optimally.

False

Who's idea is this: "Adolescent risk taking can be reduced by limiting opportunities for such behaviors."?

Laurence Steinberg

Who's idea is this: "As we age, our cells become increasingly less capable of dividing."?

Leonard Hayflick

Who's idea is this: "When the left hemisphere of his brain was removed, his right hemisphere began to take over the normal functions of the left hemisphere."?

Michael Rehbein

Who's idea is this: "Positive emotions early in adulthood are linked to longevity."?

Mankato nuns

Who's idea is this: "Aging brains can shift task responsibility from one region to another."?

Stanley Rapoport

Who's idea is this: "There is considerable variation in the decline of physical performance with age."?

MacArthur Research Network on Successful Aging

Who's idea is this: "Babies' brain activity can be measured to determine its role in memory development."?

Charles Nelson

Who's idea is this: "Early-maturing boys perceive themselves more positively than late-maturing boys."?

Berkeley Longitudinal Study

Which best demonstrates the basic principle of cephalocaudal development?
A) An infant first produces an endogenous smile, then an exogenous smile, then a laugh.
B) An infant first raises his or her head, then sits up, then stands up.
C) An infant obtains visual skills, then olfactory skills, then auditory skills.
D) An infant coos, then babbles, then speaks single words, then uses language.

B) An infant first raises his or her head, then sits up, then stands up.

Proximodistal growth refers to growth that moves from:
A) top to bottom.
B) bottom to top.
C) outer to middle.
D) middle to outer.

D) middle to outer.

Two important factors that can produce individual differences in height are:

ethnic origin and nutrition.

The average North American newborn is _____ inches long and weighs _____ pounds.

20; 7½

Children reach nearly one-half of their adult height by age:

two.

During the preschool years:
A) children experience a steady increase in body fat.
B) girls are slightly taller than boys.
C) girls are slightly heavier than boys.
D) the percentage of increase in children's height and weight decreases each year.

D) the percentage of increase in children's height and weight decreases each year.

Puberty:
A) is a marker for the beginning of adolescence.
B) is another term for adolescence.
C) has four phases that are linked with hormonal changes.
D) extends beyond the adolescent period.

A) is a marker for the beginning of adolescence.

The testes in males and the ovaries in females are referred to as the:

gonads.

Within the boundaries of about ____ years of age, environmental factors can influence the onset and duration of puberty.

9 to 17

The brain structure that monitors eating, drinking, and sex is the:

hypothalamus.

Testosterone is present in:
A) girls only.
B) boys only.
C) girls and boys in equal measure.
D) boys in a much higher measure than in girls.

D) boys in a much higher measure than in girls.

The _____ is the master gland that produces hormones that stimulate other glands.

pituitary gland

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Boys go through growth spurts earlier than girls.

B) Both boys and girls who are shorter than their peers before puberty will actually surpass their peers during the adolescent growth spurt.

C) At the beginning of adolescence, girls tend to be as tall as or taller than boys their age.

D) After puberty, girls are shorter but heavier than boys.

C) At the beginning of adolescence, girls tend to be as tall as or taller than boys their age.

The last male pubertal characteristic to develop is:

growth of facial hair.

Recent research has found that early-maturing girls are more likely than late-maturing girls to:
A) have younger friends.
B) avoid dating.
C) be dependent on their parents.
D) be depressed.

D) be depressed.

The Berkeley Longitudinal Study showed that, compared with late-maturing boys, early-maturing boys saw themselves:
A) less positively.
B) more positively.
C) smaller and weaker.
D) as bigger but more awkward.

B) more positively.

Which of the following can be expected to occur in the third decade of life?
A) Greater muscle tone and strength
B) Peak functioning of the body's joints
C) Sagging chins and protruding abdomens
D) Decrease in the body's fatty tissues

C) Sagging chins and protruding abdomens

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