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Mastering and iClicker questions

For a person whose hematocrit is 45%, in which choice below are the components of blood correctly ranked in order of decreasing percent volume?
A. WBCs, plasma, RBCs
B. RBCs, WBCs, plasma
C. plasma, RBCs, WBCs
D. plasma, WBCs, RBCs
E. WBCs, RBCs, plasma

C. plasma, RBCs, WBCs

Which of the following is (are) associated with decreased hematopoiesis?
A. hemorrhage
B. vitamin B12 deficiency
C. iron deficiency anemia
D. restricted blood flow to the kidney
E. both vitamin B12 deficiency and iron deficiency anemia

E. both vitamin B12 deficiency and iron deficiency anemia

Mr. Smith moved from a low altitude to a high altitude and experienced an increase in RBCs. Which of the following caused this increase?
A. the lower temperature present at higher altitudes
B. the lower oxygen concentration seen at higher altitudes
C. the increased metabolic rate seen at higher altitudes
D. the increased CO2 retention that occurs at high altitudes
E. He exercised more.

B. the lower oxygen concentration seen at higher altitudes

When defective erythrocytes are broken down...
A. they are removed from the blood by the lungs.
B. bilirubin is formed from the breakdown of hemoglobin.
C. their heme groups are converted into amino acids.
D. their iron is excreted into the small intestine.
E. their components cannot be recycled.

B. bilirubin is formed from the breakdown of hemoglobin.

A person with an increased eosinophil count might be suffering from...
A. an allergic reaction.
B. a viral infection.
C. an acute bacterial infection.
D. a chronic bacterial infection.
E. a head cold.

A. an allergic reaction.

Which of the following cell types is incorrectly matched with its description? A. neutrophils - most numerous WBCs B. basophils - release histamine C. lymphocytes - become macrophages D. monocytes - largest of the WBCs E. eosinophils - parasites

C. lymphocytes - become macrophages

Choose the arrangement that lists the chemicals in the order in which they would be used for coagulation. (1) thrombin (2) fibrinogen (3) prothrombinase (4) activated factor XII
A. 3, 2, 4, 1
B. 4, 3, 2, 1
C. 4, 3, 1, 2
D. 3, 4, 1, 2
E. 3, 1, 4, 2

C. 4, 3, 1, 2

If your son is diagnosed with hemophilia, he would have...
A. an increased erythrocyte count.
B. an infection of the blood.
C. a disorder of the clotting process.
D. a type of cancer affecting white blood cells. E. an antigen-antibody reaction

C. a disorder of the clotting process.

The right side of the heart acts as a pump for the...
A. pulmonary circulation.
B. systemic circulation.
C. coronary circulation.
D. hepatic portal circulation.
E. cerebral circuit

A. pulmonary circulation.

The pericardial sac is lined with...
A. fibrous pericardium.
B. parietal pericardium.
C. visceral pericardium.
D. myocardium.
E. epicardium

B. parietal pericardium.

Occlusion of which of the following would primarily damage the left ventricle?
A. circumflex artery
B. pulmonary artery
C. right marginal artery
D. coronary sinus artery
E. right coronary artery

A. circumflex artery

Calcium channel blockers are frequently used to...
A. increase the heart rate.
B. treat tachycardia or other arrhythmias. C. speed up conduction of impulses through the AV node.
D. slow the closing of potassium ion channels.
E. treat bradycardia and low blood pressure.

B. treat tachycardia or other arrhythmias.

The action potentials are slowed at the AV node to allow the...
A. ventricles to repolarize.
B. ventricles to completely empty of blood. C. pacemaker to reset for the next beat. D. atria to complete their contraction.
E. atria to begin their contraction

D. atria to complete their contraction.

Which of the following areas of the conduction system would produce spontaneous action potentials most frequently if the SA node were not functioning?
A. AV bundle
B. Purkinje fibers
C. AV node
D. bundle branch
E. the pacemaker

C. AV node

Of the types of damage resulting from a myocardial infarction, which is most likely to cause the greatest increase in the Q-T interval?
A. infarction in the AV node
B. left bundle branch block
C. infarction affecting the SA node D. tachycardia
E. ectopic focus

B. left bundle branch block

When contrasting arteries and veins, which of the following statements is true?
A. Veins have thicker walls than arteries. B. Arteries have a thicker tunica media than veins.
C. Veins have a tunica media while arteries do not.
D. Arteries have valves, but veins do not. E. Arteries have smooth muscle in their walls, but veins do not.

B. Arteries have a thicker tunica media than veins.

Which statement about precapillary sphincters is CORRECT?
A. They contract when oxygen levels in the tissue are low.
B. They can close off the capillaries by contracting.
C. They are openings that allow large molecules and blood cells to leave the capillary.
D. When the precapillary sphincters are open, blood flows only through the thoroughfare channels.
E. They are voluntary

B. They can close off the capillaries by contracting.

Resistance in the cardiovascular system ...
A. tends to increase if blood viscosity increases.
B. tends to decrease as the diameter of blood vessels decreases.
C. dramatically increases blood flow through the circulatory system.
D. is directly related to flow
E. does not occur. If it did, blood would not circulate in the blood vessels.

A. tends to increase if blood viscosity increases.

Blood pressure is the...
A. product of the stroke volume times heart rate.
B. number of layers of blood in laminar flow models.
C. measure of force blood exerts against blood vessel walls.
D. viscosity of the blood and resistance to blood flow.
E. measure of the volume of the blood

C. measure of force blood exerts against blood vessel walls.

Which of the following would occur as a result of increased renin release by the kidneys?
A. an increase in vasodilator secretion
B. an increase in urine output
C. an increase in blood volume
D. a decrease in aldosterone
E. a decrease in blood pressure

C. an increase in blood volume

Art is 75. He has advanced arteriosclerosis. He is suffering from a number of manifestations, which are consistent with his arteriosclerosis. Over the past several years he has developed hypertension and he is beginning to show signs of renal failure. Which of the following are consistent with his condition?
A. increased resistance to blood flow B. increased renin secretion from the kidneys C. increased aldosterone secretion from the adrenal cortex
D. increased angiotensinogen formation
E. All of these choices are correct.

A. increased resistance to blood flow

A patient with a blood pressure of 180/120
A) is hypertensive.
B) has a pulse pressure of 60 mmHg.
C) A and B are correct.

C) A and B are correct.

Autoregulation of blood flow...
A) responds to metabolic demand by redirecting blood to the least active tissues.
B) responds to warmth, a physical factor, by constricting arterioles.
C) responds to chemical factors such as K+ and H+ by dilating arterioles.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct

C) responds to chemical factors such as K+ and H+ by dilating arterioles.

The baroreceptor reflex would cause which of the following events to occur if the reflex was caused by an increase in blood pressure?
A. increased parasympathetic stimulation of the heart
B. increased heart rate
C. increased cardiac output
D. increased force of contraction
E. increased sympathetic stimulation of the heart

A. increased parasympathetic stimulation of the heart

Which of the following does NOT cause vasodilation?
A) increased sympathetic stimulation
B) decreased sympathetic innervation
C) increased H+ concentration
D) increased lactic acid concentration
E) increased NO concentration

A) increased sympathetic stimulation

Which blood vessels act as blood reservoirs?
A) arteries and arterioles
B) arterioles and capillaries
C) veins and venules
D) venules and capillaries
E) venules and arterioles

C) veins and venules

The lymphatic system differs from the cardiovascular system in that...
A. the lymphatic system only carries fluid away from tissues.
B. the lymphatic vessels have their own "pump" to assist flow.
C. lymph capillaries do not contain any fluid. D. lymph capillaries allow free movement of fluid in and out of the capillaries.
E. lymph circulates fluids and cardiovascular does not.

A. the lymphatic system only carries fluid away from tissues.

A woman has her right breast and right axillary lymph nodes removed. Which of the following might occur?
A. Cisterna chyli flow increases.
B. The thoracic duct would be severed. C. Right lymphatic duct drainage decreases causing edema in the right arm.
D. Lymph drainage would be affected in her left arm.
E. Lymph drainage would be affected in both legs.

C. Right lymphatic duct drainage decreases causing edema in the right arm.

The functions of an eight-year-old clients scheduled for tonsillectomy asked the nurse what function the tonsils serve. The nurse should base response to this restaurant and knowledge that the tonsils...
A. Are only important in fetal life.
B. Shrink in size throughout the lifespan.
C. One type of lymphoid tissue.
D. Are essential in the prevention of infection

C. One type of lymphoid tissue.

The nurse is assessing a client who's reporting your pain, sore throat, swollen glands in the neck the nurses aware that the glands or lymph nodes are...
A. clusters of lymph tissue found along the lymphatic vessels
B. The site of a referral site formation
C. The result of antigen antibody reaction
D. Small tissue pockets with no known function

A. clusters of lymph tissue found along the lymphatic vessels

A client with an upper respiratory infection asks the nurse why a fever occurs with this type of infection. The nurse is aware that the cells of the immune system release chemical agents that enhance the inflammatory response and increase temperature. These are known as...
A. Pyrogens
B. Antigens
C. Antibodies
D.Phagocytes

A. Pyrogens

A client with an infection in the left great toe asks the nurse why a swelling has occurs with this type of infection. The nurse is aware that the initial phase of the inflammatory response, which is also responsible for localized edema, is the...
A. Vascular reaction
B. Pyrogen release
C. Platelet plug formation
D. Phagocytosis

A. Vascular reaction

How does immunity differ from nonspecific defenses?
A) Immunity provides protection against specific foreign antigens.
B) Immunity displays memory.
C) Immunity requires distinction between self and nonself antigens.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.

E) A, B and C are correct.

How do antibodies disable antigens?
A) agglutinating and precipitating antigens
B) immobilizing bacteria and enhancing phagocytosis
C) activating complement
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.

E) A, B and C are correct.

Which of the following immunoglobulins does the newborn have in levels similar to the mother?
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgE
D. IgM

B. IgG

As the bronchial tree terminates in bronchioles, the principal material comprising their walls is smooth muscle. What functional purpose does this smooth muscle provide?
A. The walls of the bronchioles provide patent airways to the alveoli.
B. The walls of the bronchioles allow for gas exchange before air actually enters the alveoli.
C. The presence of smooth muscle allows the walls of the bronchioles to constrict and provides control over air flow.
D. Both a and c are true.

C. The presence of smooth muscle allows the walls of the bronchioles to constrict and provides control over air flow.

The respiratory membrane is composed of:
A. the alveolar sacs and pulmonary arteries.
B. the alveolar membrane, the capillary wall, and their fused basement membrane.
C. the fusion of the type I cells and type II cells in the lungs.
D. the cells found between the alveolar pores.

B. the alveolar membrane, the capillary wall, and their fused basement membrane.

During an asthma attack, bronchioles become severely _______. Taking epinephrine causes them to _______.
A. constricted; dilate
B. dilated; constrict
C. mucus-filled; empty of mucus
D. both a and c

A. constricted; dilate

If transpulmonary pressure were to suddenly decrease, predict the response by the lungs.
A. The lungs would not recoil and air would remain trapped in them.
B. The lungs would adhere to the parietal pleura and would crumple like an accordion.
C. The lungs would immediately collapse.
D. The lungs would remain unchanged.

C. The lungs would immediately collapse.

Air moves into the lungs during inspiration due to the force of __________.
A. the diaphragm
B. the abdominal muscles
C. atmospheric pressure
D. the external intercostal muscles

C. atmospheric pressure

Even the most forceful exhalation leaves air in the lungs; this is called the ______ and is needed to _______.
A. tidal volume; acquire adequate O2
B. vital capacity; remove adequate CO2
C. functional residual capacity; keep alveoli patent
D. residual volume; keep alveoli patent

D. residual volume; keep alveoli patent

Why is the rate of CO2 exchange roughly equivalent to that of O2 despite its less steep pressure gradient?
A. CO2 diffuses much more rapidly out of the cells.
B. CO2 binds to O2 and moves across the respiratory membrane simultaneously.
C. CO2 is more soluble in water than is O2.
D. CO2 is actively transported into the alveoli.

C. CO2 is more soluble in water than is O2.

The Bohr effect describes _________.
A. a shift to the left in the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve
B. enhanced cooperation of oxygen binding to hemoglobin in the lungs
C. a shift to the right in the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve
D. the conformational structures of hemoglobin as it picks up oxygen in the lungs

C. a shift to the right in the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve

If there is an accumulation of acidic products in the plasma, one would expect...
A. an increase in respiration rate.
B. a decrease in respiration rate.
C. no influence on respiration rate.
D. an increase in residual volume. E. apnea

A. an increase in respiration rate.

________ is the most potent chemical influencing respiration.
A. O2
B. N
C. H2O
D. CO2

D. CO2

In order to remove a tumor in the muscular tunic of the stomach, a surgeon must cut through the ...
A. lamina propria.
B. submucosa.
C. serosa.
D. mucosa.

C. serosa.

During abdominal surgery, immobilization of the patient's intestines is often desirable. Which of the following types of medications would be most effective at immobilizing the intestines?
A) a cholinergic medication
B) an anticholinergic medication
C) an antiadrenergic medication
D) Both A and C are correct.
E) Both B and C are correct.

B) an anticholinergic medication

About 1/4000 babies are born with esophageal atresia, a condition in which the esophagus does not connect to the stomach. Many of these infants also have a fistula, or opening, that connects the esophagus to the trachea. How will esophageal atresia with tracheosesophageal fistula affect an infant?
A) The infant will not be able to pass milk to its stomach.
B) The infant will not be able to absorb nutrients from milk.
C) The infant may develop pneumonia from milk entering the lungs.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.

E) A, B and C are correct.

Which of the following is NOT associated with the pharyngeal stage of deglutition?
A) A bolus is transferred from the oral cavity to the pharynx.
B) The uvula and soft palate elevate, blocking the bolus from entering the nasopharynx.
C) The epiglottis opens, allowing the bolus to enter the larynx.
D) Involuntary muscle contraction occurs.
E) The deglutition center of the brain stem is stimulated.

C) The epiglottis opens, allowing the bolus to enter the larynx.

Why doesn't the stomach digest itself?
A. The stomach wall lacks proteins so enzymes won't attack it.
B. The digestive enzymes in the stomach aren't efficient enough.
C. The stomach lining is too tough to be digested.
D. The stomach wall is protected by large amounts of mucus.
E. The stomach is protected by HCl.

D. The stomach wall is protected by large amounts of mucus.

Inability of the pyloric sphincter to open would prevent...
A. food from entering the stomach. B. stomach acid from being released. C. digestive enzymes from being released. D. food from entering the small intestine. E. the making of chyme.

D. food from entering the small intestine.

Duodenal gland secretion prevents...
A. digestive enzyme release.
B. release of bile from the liver.
C. irritation of the duodenal mucosa by acidic chyme and digestive enzymes.
D. the release of insulin.
E. peristalsis.

C. irritation of the duodenal mucosa by acidic chyme and digestive enzymes.

Damage to the liver would hamper digestion of...
A. carbohydrates.
B. lipids.
C. proteins.
D. disaccharides.
E. All of these choices are correct.

B. lipids.

The major metabolic function for most vitamins is that they assist enzymes by serving as _________.
A. sources of ATP
B. active sites
C. substrates
D. coenzymes

D. coenzymes

What is the primary objective during the postabsorptive state?
A. To collect and remove glucose from the blood and deposit it in cells
B. To convert fat to protein
C. To maintain blood glucose at around 70-110 mg/100 ml blood
D. To elevate blood glucose to the highest possible level to ensure adequate delivery to the brain

C. To maintain blood glucose at around 70-110 mg/100 ml blood

In general metabolic terms, food digestion is a form of ______, while building new protein molecules is a form of ______.
A. metabolism; cellular respiration
B. anabolism; catabolism
C. cellular respiration; metabolism
D. catabolism; anabolism

D. catabolism; anabolism

What is the primary process by which insulin is released after ingesting a meal?
A. Insulin is secreted in direct response to blood glucose.
B. The brain sends a hormone to the pancreas to stimulate insulin release.
C. Insulin release is constant.
D. The vagus nerve innervates the pancreas and upon food ingestion fires action potentials that stimulate insulin secretion.

A. Insulin is secreted in direct response to blood glucose.

The process whereby excess glucose is stored in cells is called ______.
A. glycogenesis
B. glycogenolysis
C. gluconeogenesis
D. glycolysis

A. glycogenesis

For a marathon runner, what benefit is there to eating a diet of 75% carbohydrates and reducing the workout for 3 to 4 days before competition?
A. Muscle cells will increase the total amount of protein.
B. The extra carbohydrates are stored as fat.
C. The muscle cells will store higher-than-normal levels of glycogen.
D. The muscle cells will store higher than normal amounts of ATP.

C. The muscle cells will store higher-than-normal levels of glycogen.

Which of the following functions would not be performed by the kidney?
A. urine storage
B. excretion of waste
C. maintenance of fluid balance
D. regulate synthesis of vitamin D
E. regulate synthesis of RBCs

A. urine storage

Which of the following structures is a capillary?
A. glomerulus
B. loop of Henle
C. collecting duct
D. Bowman's capsule
E. proximal convoluted tubule

A. glomerulus

An obstruction in the afferent arteriole would reduce the flow of blood into the....
A. glomerulus.
B. renal artery.
C. macula densa.
D. efferent arteriole.
E. arcuate artery.

A. glomerulus.

Which of the following factors contribute(s) to the higher filtration rate in the glomerular capillaries compared with other capillary beds?
A. The glomerular capillaries are fenestrated.
B. The diameter of the efferent arteriole is smaller than the diameter of the afferent arteriole.
C. The visceral layer of the glomerular capsule is very porous.
D. All of the above contribute.

D. All of the above contribute.

Of the filtered solutes, what percentage is reabsorbed by the renal tubule?
A. 1%
B. 50%
C. 99%
D. 100%

C. 99%

How would eating a high-protein diet affect filtration?
A. Due to higher colloid osmotic pressure in the glomerular blood, the net filtration pressure would be lower and less filtrate would form.
B. Too much protein in the diet would abolish all filtration.
C. High blood pressure from increased plasma proteins would increase filtration to twice its normal rate.
D. Filtration would be unchanged, but the kidneys would suffer damage.

A. Due to higher colloid osmotic pressure in the glomerular blood, the net filtration pressure would be lower and less filtrate would form.

Autoregulatory mechanisms are most effective:
A. for renin secretion.
B. when the arterial pressure drops below 80 mm Hg.
C. at releasing epinephrine.
D. when the arterial pressure is between 80 and 180 mm Hg.

D. when the arterial pressure is between 80 and 180 mm Hg.

What type of response by the afferent arterioles would you expect if blood pressure increased?
A. The afferent arterioles would constrict.
B. The afferent arterioles would dilate.
C. The afferent arterioles would stimulate renin release.
D. The afferent arterioles would not respond to blood pressure changes.

A. The afferent arterioles would constrict.

Extrinsic controls regulate glomerular filtration rate as a means of regulating ________.
A. systemic blood pressure
B. cardiac output
C. urine formation
D. red blood cell production

A. systemic blood pressure

Which of the following general functions can be assigned to the renin-angiotensin system?
A. Water conservation
B. Blood pressure elevation
C. Lowering blood sodium levels
D. Both a and b

D. Both a and b

What would be the effect on urine output if sodium channels in the tubule cells were inhibited?
A. The volume would increase.
B. The volume would decrease
C. The volume would decrease by half the sodium concentration.
D. The volume would decrease by one-tenth the sodium concentration.

A. The volume would increase.

Which of the following processes in urine formation is important for regulating blood pH?
A. Secretion
B. Reabsorption
C. Filtration
D. Countercurrent multiplication

A. Secretion

Why is the osmolarity of medullary fluid in the kidney almost four times higher than the osmolarity of plasma?
A. The loop of Henle acts as a countercurrent multiplier and contributes solutes to the interstitial fluid.
B. Urea is recycled from the collecting duct and is transported to the interstitial fluid.
C. The medullary cells in the kidney synthesize solutes to establish the high osmolarity.
D. Both a and b occur.

D. Both a and b occur.

What role do the vasa recta play in urine formation?
A. The vasa recta create the medullary osmotic gradient.
B. The vasa recta protect the medullary osmotic gradient by preventing rapid removal of salt.
C. The vasa recta receives the dilute filtrate from the distal convoluted tubule.
D. The vasa recta deliver urea to the medullary interstitial fluid

B. The vasa recta protect the medullary osmotic gradient by preventing rapid removal of salt.

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