True or false: Blood is composed of 90% water and 10% solutes and amounts to about 6 quarts (5.5 L)
Delivers substances needed for cellular metabolism in tissues. Defends against injury, and acid base balance
Name the three functions of blood.
True or False: Plasma accounts for 25-30 percent of blood volume.
Serum is plasma that has been altered in the lab to remove fibrinogen or some other element.
What is the difference between plasma and serum?
True or False: Plasma proteins account for 7% of plasma total weight and the majority are synthesized in the liver.
Albumins, Globulins, Clotting Factors.
Name the three most common plasma proteins.
What plasma protein is the most numerous and large (they don't pass through the vascular endothelium) and function as carriers and control the plasma oncotic pressure.
What plasma protein are carrier protiens and antibodies that are synthesized by mature lymphocytes (plasma cells) chiefly in the lymphnodes.
What plasma protein is the precursor of the fibrin clot.
Red Blood Cells
What is the most abundant cell in the body. Note: they have the ability of reversible deformability and have 120-day life cycle.
True or False: The mature RBC lacks the cytoplasmic organelles: nucleus, mitochondria, and ribosomes, therefore it is unable to divide.
What type of Leukocytes are capable of ameboid movement in which they can change shapes and migrate through vessel walls in response to chemotaxis (diapedesis). They have granules that contain enzymes capable of destroying microorgansims.
At 55% these are the most numerous of the leukocytes. They are the CHIEF phagocytes in early inflammation.
These granulocytes account for 1-4% of leukocytes. They ingest antigen-antibody complexes and viruses. Increase in parasitic infections and allergic conditions.
What large cells act rapidly to make blood vessels more permeable. They are the CENTRAL cell in inflammation. Found in vascularized connective tissue, GI and Resp tract, and dermal layer of skin.
Monocytes and Macrophages
What two elements make up the Mononuclear Phagocyte System (MPS)
What cell has a horseshoe nucleus and is a precursor of macrophages. Contain very few digestive vacuoles.
What Agranulocyte are primarily initiators of inflammation. Contain very few digestive vacuoles but are still more phagocytic than monocytes.
True or false: Lymphocytes contain enzyme filed vacuoles.
True or false: NK cells do not need to be induced by antigen (unlike Tc Cells)
Name the "disk-shaped" cytoplasmic fragments formed by fragmentation of megakaryocytes. Incapable of mitosis. LIve for 10 days before being removed by the MPS, mostly in the spleen.
Name the organ that is the site of fetal hematopoiesis. Filters and cleans blood while helping with immune response and serving as a blood reservoir.
Red Pulp- filtration/phagocytosis of old blood cells. Venous Sinuses=Blood Storage
Name the two major parts of the spleen and what they do.
The process of blood cell production. Occurs in the liver/spleen in fetus, but in adults only bone marrow. (we require about 100 million new blood cells/day. Note: we do not store red blood cells.
Name the two colors of bone marrow and what they mean. (hematopoiesisly speaking)
True or false: The amount of Adult Active bone marrow goes as follows. (Descending order) Pelvic Bones 34%,Vertebrae 28%, cranium and mandible 13%, sternum and ribs 10%, proximal humerus, and proximal femur 4-8%.
What are abnormal Erythroblasts called? What stimulates maturation?
1 to 2 days.
How long does it take from retic to erythrocyte.
Peritubular Cells of the Kidney (when hypoxia occurs)
What produces erythropoietin?
True or false: They cytoplasm of a single erythrocyte contains as many as 300 hemoglobin molecules, and HB enables the blood to transport 100 times more oxygen than could be transported in the plasma alone.
A large flat disk that is capable of carrying one molecule of oxygen. Hb contains four of them, thus it carries 4 oxygen molecules.
Formation of protoporphyrin, availability of ferrous iron (heme), generation of proteinaceous globin
Name the three requisites for hemoglobin synthesis
Proteins (amino acids), Vitamins, Minerals
Name three general nutritional requirements for erythropoisesis.
One of the most important proteins for erythropoiesis is ______ _______ a glycoprotein necessary for GI absorption of B12. Lack of it causes pernicious anemia.
Parietal cells of the gastric mucosa, B12 uptake at the ileum
Where is intrinsic factor secreted and what type of cells.
Liver (kupffer cells)
What organ and specific cells takes over the spleens duties after a spleenectomy.
Bacteria , Urobilinogen
______________ in the intestines transforms conjugated bilirubin into __________. Some is reabsorbed, or metabolized further by the liver or excreted by the kidney into the urine. Most however is excreted in the feces.
67% of total body iron is bound to _______ and ______________. And 30% is stored in ferritin, hemosiderin mononuclear phagocytes (byproduct of recycling) , and hepatic parenchymal cells.
______________ is transferrin without attached iron.
What makes recycling of iron possible. Note: it is a glycoprotein synthesized primarily by the liver that carries iron.
Duodenum, proximal Jejunum
Dietary iron is absorbed primarily in the _________ and ____________ __________.
_________ is ferritin without attached iron, but can store thousands of atoms of iron.
Platelets circulate for _____ days before losing their functional capacity. It is then that senescent platelets will be removed by the macrophages or the MPS in the liver or spleen.
Platelet levels are maintained by __________ and _________
True or False: In thrombopoiesis, the megakaryocyte progenitor undergoes endomitosis. It expands due to the doubling of the DNA content and then breaks up into fragments. It does NOT divide into two daughter cells.
Platelets, clotting cascade, blood flow and chear forces, endothelial cells, fibrinolysis
Name the 5 requirements of hemostasis
Vasoconstriction, formation of a platelet plug, Activation of the coagulation cascade, formation of a blood clot, clot retraction and clot dissolution (fibrinolysis)
What is the sequence of events for hemostasis. Hint: there are 5 steps.
von Willebrand factor.
Adhesion- Attachement of platelets on subendothelial matrix. This is accomplished by binding of a platelet surface receptor to __________________. A deficiency in this will lead to bleeding disorder.
Aggregation- involves binding of fibrinogen to the platelet fibrinogen receptor ____________. This is the most abundant receptor on the platelet surface.
What in platelets stimulates platelet aggregation, vasoconstricion, and degranulation of platelets.
What is produced by endothelial cells and inhibits thromboxane and will decrease aggregation, vasodilate, and inhibit degranulation of platelets.
Promotes the adherence and subsequent degranulation of nearby platelets to become ruffled and sticky.
What does ADP do?
Cyclooxygenase is an enzyme that exists in two isoforms. _________ is present in most cells. _________ normally absent from cells but is rapidly induced in response to inflammatory stimuli in endothelial cells and monocytes.
_________ oxide works synergism b/w prostacyclin. Both inhibit platelet adhesion, and aggregation.
Intrinsic, XII (hageman factor)
The _____________ pathway is activated when factor _______ in plasma contacts subendothelial substances exposed by vascular injury.
Extrinsic, Tissue factor
The __________ pathway is activated when _______ factor is released by damaged endothelial cells, contacts one of the clotting factors, serum prothrombin factor VII.
Stuart- Prower Factor
Final common pathway- both lead to this when each has activated factor X (______-_____ factor) which then activates prothrombin (factor II) to thrombin, the final enzyme.
A circulating plasma protease inhibitor; works with heparin if it is present thus inhibiting thrombin. This system can be down regulated by inflammation which puts the Pt at risk for clots.
Tissue Factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI)
Circulating plasma protease inhibitor synthesized by endothelial cells. It inhibits factor Xa and VIIa which decreases tissue factor. Heparin increases its efficacy.
True or false: Too much AT-III, protein C, and protein S can cause hypercoagulation.
What is plasmin (a degrading enzyme) inhibited by?
Tissue Plasminogen Activator (t-PA)
Released by perturbed endothelial cells near the site of vascular injury and converts plasminogen to plasmin. It works with plasminogen to bind to fibrin causing plasmin generation and localized fibrinolysis.
True or False: Urokinase plasminogen activator (u-PA) is a major activator of plasminogen.
True or false: Adults have more atypical lymphocytes than children due to frequent viral infections.
Iron Depletion, Decreased total serum iron, iron binding capacity, and intestinal iron absorption.
What are 2 possible causes for erythrocytes being replaced more slowly.