Final Study Questions - From in Class Quizez

108 terms by MarkLewinthal

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The main source of energy for producers in an ecosystem is
A) thermal energy.
B) light energy.
C) ATP
D) kinetic energy.
E) chemical energy.

B) light energy.

3) Organisms interact with their environments, exchanging matter and energy. For example, plant chloroplasts convert the energy of sunlight into

E) the potential energy of chemical bonds.

4) Which of the following types of cells utilize deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) as their genetic material but do not have their DNA encased within a nuclear envelope?
Archaea
protists
plant
animal
fungi

Archaea

7) When the body's blood glucose level rises, the pancreas secretes insulin and, as a result, the blood glucose level declines. When the blood glucose level is low, the pancreas secretes glucagon and, as a result, the blood glucose level rises. Such regulation of the blood glucose level is the result of
A) negative feedback.
B) protein-protein interactions.
C) positive feedback.
D) bioinformatic regulation.
E) catalytic feedback.

negative feedback.

9) Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells generally have which of the following features in common?
A) a cell wall made of cellulose
B) a membrane-bounded nucleus
C) linear chromosomes made of DNA and protein
D) flagella or cilia that contain microtubules
E) ribosomes

ribosomes

10) Prokaryotes are classified as belonging to two different domains. What are the domains?
A) Bacteria and Eukarya
B) Eukarya and Monera
C) Archaea and Monera
D) Bacteria and Archaea
E) Bacteria and Protista

D) Bacteria and Archaea

12) A water sample from a hot thermal vent contained a single-celled organism that had a cell wall but lacked a nucleus. What is its most likely classification?
Animalia
B) Protista
C) Fungi
D) Eukarya
E) Archaea

Archaea

24) A controlled experiment is one in which
A) there are at least two groups, one differing from the other by two or more variables.
B) The experiment is repeated many times to ensure that the results are acurate
C) The experiment proceeds at a slow pace to guarantee that the scientist can carefully observe all reactions and process all experimental data
D) there are at least two groups, one of which does not receive the experimental treatment.
E) there is one group for which the scientist controls all variables.

D) there are at least two groups, one of which does not receive the experimental treatment.

25) Why is it important that an experiment include a control group?
A) Without a control group, there is no basis for knowing if a particular result is due to the variable being tested.
B) The control group provides a reserve of experimental subjects
C) The control group is the group that the resaercher is in control of, the group in which the researcher predetermines the results
D) A control group assures that an experiment will be repeatable.
E) A control group is required for the development of an "If... then" statement.

D) The control group is matched with the experimental group except for the one experimental variable.

Golden algae are a group of protists whose color is due to carotenoid pigments: yellow and brown. All are photosynthetic. A group of students was given a significant sample of dinobreyno xxxx (cant read question)

31) The students plan to gather data f rom the project. Which of the following would be the best way to present what they gather from experimental groups as opposed to controls?
A) qualitatively, noting color, size, and so on
B) measuring the dry weight of all new colonies in grams
C) measuring the number of new colonies formed during every 12-hour period
D) counting the number of new colonies after a week
E) measuring the size of each new colony in millimeters (mm) of length

C) measuring the number of new colonies formed during every 12-hour period

37) Which of the following best demonstrates the unity among all organisms?
A) natural selection
B) the structure and function of DNA
C) descent with modification
D) matching DNA nucleotide sequences
E) emergent properties

B) the structure and function of DNA

38) A controlled experiment is one that
A) tests experimental and control groups in parallel.
B) is supervised by an experienced scientist.
C) keeps all variables constant.
D) proceeds slowly enough that a scientist can make careful records of the results.
E) is repeated many times to make sure the results are accurate.

A) tests experimental and control groups in parallel.

21.) What results from an unequal sharing of electrons between atoms?

Polar covalent bonds
Ionic bond
A hydrophobic interaction
A hydrogen bond
A nonpolar covalent bond

Polar covalent bonds

23.) What is the difference between covalent bonds and ionic bonds?

Covalent bonds involve the transfer of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms

Covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the electrical attraction between atoms

Covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms ionic bonds involve the sharing of protons between atoms

Covalent bonds involve the sharing of pairs of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the sharing of single electrons between atoms

Covalent bonds are formed between atoms to form molecules; ionic bonds are formed between atoms to form compounds

Covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the electrical attraction between atoms

20.) When two atoms are equally electronegative they will interact to form

Polar covalent bonds
Ionic bonds
Nonpolar covalent bonds
Van der Waals interactions
Hydgrogen Bonds

Nonpolar covalent bonds

11.) Carbon-12 is the most common isotope of carbon, and has a atomic mass of 12 Daltons. A mole of carbon in naturally occurring coal, however, weighs slightly more than 12 grams, why?

Some carbon atoms in nature have a extra proton

Some carbon atoms in nature have undergone radioactive decay

Some carbon atoms in nature have more neutrons

The atomic mass does not include the mass of electrons

Some carbon atoms in nature have a different valence electron distribution.

Some carbon atoms in nature have more neutrons

17.) From it's atomic number of 15, it is possible to predict that phosphorus atom has

15 electrons
15 neutrons
15 protons and 15 electrons
15 protons
8 electrons in its outer most electron shell

15 protons and 15 electrons

18.) Atoms whose outer electron shells contain 8 electrons tend to?

Form hydrogen bonds in aqueous solutions
Be stable and chemically nonreactive or inert
Be both chemically inert and gaseous at room temperature
Form ions in aqueous solutions
Be gaseous at room temperature

Be both chemically inert and gaseous at room temperature

1.) About 25 of the 92 natural elements are known to be essential to life. Which four of these 25 elements make up approximately 96% of living matter?
Carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, hydrogen
Carbon, Sodium, hydrogen, nitrogen
Carbon, oxygen, nitrogen, calcium
Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen
Oxygen, Hydrogen, Calcium, Nitrogen

Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen

.) Trace elements are those required by an organism in only minute quantities. Which of the following is a trace element that is required by humans and other vertebras, but not by other organism such as bacteria or plants?

Calcium
Sodium
Iodine
Nitrogen
Phosphorus

Iodine

5.) Why is each element unique and different from other elements in chemical properties?

Each element has a unique number of neutrons in it's nucleus
Each element has a unique number of protons in it's nucleus
Each element has a unique atomic weight
Each element has a unique atomic mass
Each element has a different radioactive properties

Each element has a unique number of protons in it's nucleus

6.) Knowing just the atomic mass of an element allows inferences about which of the following?

The number of protons in the element
Both the number of protons and the chemical properties of the element
The number of protons plus neutrons in the element
The chemical properties of the element
The number of neutrons in the element

The number of protons plus neutrons in the element

7.) In what way are elements in the same column of the periodic table the same?

They have the same number of electron shells
They have the same number of protons
They have the same number of neutrons
They have the same number of electrons in the valence shell
They have the same number of electrons

They have the same number of electrons in the valence shell

8.) Oxygen has an atomic number of 8 and a mass number of 16. Thus, what is the atomic mass of a oxygen atom?

Approximately 16 daltons
Exactly 8 daltons
24 amu (atomic mass units)
Exatctly 8 grams
Approximately 16 grams

Approximately 16 daltons

9.) The nucleus of a nitrogen atom contains 7 neutrons and 7 protons. Which of the following is a correct statement concerning nitrogen?

The nitrogen atom has a mass number of approximately 14 daltons and an atomic mass of 7.
The nitrogen atom has a mass number of 14 and a atomic mass of approximately 14 daltons
The nitrogen atom has a mass number of 14 and an atomic mass of 7 grams.
The nitrogen atom has a mass number of 7 and an atomic number of 14
The nitrogen atom has a mass number of approximately 7 daltons and an atomic mass of 14

The nitrogen atom has a mass number of 14 and a atomic mass of approximately 14 daltons

10.) Molybdenum has an atomic number of 42. Several common isotopes exist, with mass numbers of 92, 94, 95, 96, 97, 98, and 100. Therefore, which of the following can be true?

The isotopes of molybdenum have different electron configurations
The isotopes of molybdenum can have between 50 and 58 protons
Molybdenum atoms can have between 50 and 58 neutrons
The isotopes of molybdenum have between 50 and 58 protons and have different electron configurations
The isotopes of molybdenum have between 50 and 58 neutrons and have different electron configurations.

Molybdenum atoms can have between 50 and 58 neutrons

12.) Which of the following best describes the relationship between the atoms described below:

Atom 1 (H 1, 1), Atom 2 (H 3,1)

They are isomers
They are polymers
They each contain 1 neutron
They contain 1 and 3 protons, respectivly
They are isotopes

They are isotopes

13.) The precise weight of a mole of some pure elements like silicon (Si) can vary slightly from the standard atomic mass, or even from sample to sample, why?

The atoms of the element form chemical bonds with each other, and that changes the weight of the element

The element may have multiple stable isotopes, and the isotopic composition may vary from sample to sample

The element may react with itself and gain or lose subatomic particles

The amount of energy absorbed by the element affects the mass of its electron , and thus the atomic mass can vary slightly

The element may undergo radioactive decay

The element may have multiple stable isotopes, and the isotopic composition may vary from sample to sample

14.) One difference between the following 2 variations of the element carbon is?

Carbon-12 (C, 12, 6) , Carbon-14 (C, 14, 6)

Two more electrons and two more neutrons than carbon - 12
Two more electrons than carbon-12
Two more protons than carbon-12
Two more neutrons than carbon -12
Two more protons and two more neutrons than carbon-12

Two more neutrons than carbon -12

15.) An atom has 6 electrons in it's outter shell. How many unpaired electrons does it have

2
0
4
2 or 4
6

2

16.) The atomic number of nitrogen is 7. Nitrogen -15 is heavier than nitrogen -14 because the atomic nucleus of nitrogen -15 contains how many neutrons?
7
6
8
14
12

8

19.) A covalent chemical bond is one in which

Protons and neutrons are shared by two atoms so as to satisfy the requirements of both atoms

Outer-shell electrons of two atoms are shared so as to satisfactorily fill the outer electron shells of both atoms

Outer-shell electrons of one atom are transferred to fill the inner electron shell of another atom

Electrons are removed from one atom and transferred to another atom so that the two atoms become oppositely charged

An electron occupies a hybrid orbital located between the nuclei of two atoms

Outer-shell electrons of two atoms are shared so as to satisfactorily fill the outer electron shells of both atoms

22.) A covalent bond is likely to be polar when?

The two atoms sharing electrons are different elements

One of the atoms sharing electrons is much more electronegative than the other atom

Oxygen is one of the two atoms sharing electrons

One of the atoms has absorbed more energy than the other atom

The two atoms sharing electrons are equally electronegative

One of the atoms sharing electrons is much more electronegative than the other atom

24.) Which bond or interaction would be difficult to disrupt when compounds are put into water?

Covalent bond
Ionic bond
Hydrogen bond
Either covalent bonds or ionic bonds
Van der Waals Interactions

Covalent bond

25.) Which of the following explains most specifically the attraction of water molecules to one another?

Hydrophobic Interaction
Nonpolar covalent bonds
Polar covalent bond
Ionic bond
Hydrogen bond

Hydrogen bond

.) Which of the following correctly describes chemical equilibrium?

There are equal concentrations of reactants and products, and the reactions have stopped

Concentrations of products are higher than the concentrations of reactants

Reactions stop only when all reactants have been concerted to products

Forward and reverse reactions continue with no effect on the concentrations of the reactants and products

Forward and reverse reactions have stopped so that the concentration of the reactants equals the concentration of the products

Forward and reverse reactions continue with no effect on the concentrations of the reactants and products

29.) Which of the following correctly describes any reaction that has reached chemical equilibrium?

The rate of forward reaction is equal to the rate of reverse reaction
All of the reactants have been converted to the products of the reaction
All the products have been converted to the reactants of the reaction
The concentration of the reactants equals the concentration of the products
Both the forward and the reverse reactions have stopped with no net effect on the concentration of the reactants and the products

The rate of forward reaction is equal to the rate of reverse reaction

Compared with 31 P, the radioactive isotope 32P has?

A different atomic number
One more proton
A different charge
One more neutron
One more electron

One more neutron

31.) The reactivity of an atom arises from?

The energy difference between the s and p orbital
The average distance of the outermost electron shell from the nucleus
The sum of the potential energies of all the electron shells
The potential energy of the valence shell
The existence of unpaired electrons in the valence shell

The existence of unpaired electrons in the valence shell

In a single molecule of water, two hydrogen atoms are bonded to a single oxygen atom by:
A) van der Waals interactions.
B) ionic bonds.
C) nonpolar covalent bonds.
D) hydrogen bonds.
E) polar covalent bonds.

E) polar covalent bonds.

2) The slight negative charge at one end of one water molecule is attracted to the slight positive charge of another water molecule. What is this attraction called?
A) a hydrophilic bond
B) a hydrogen bond
C) a covalent bond
D) a van der Waals interaction
E) an ionic bond

B) a hydrogen bond

3) The partial negative charge in a molecule of water occurs because
A) the oxygen atom forms hybrid orbitals that distribute electrons unequally around the oxygen nucleus.
B) the oxygen atom has two pairs of electrons in its valence shell that are not neutralized by hydrogen atoms.
C) one of the hydrogen atoms donates an electron to the oxygen atom.
D) The electrons shared between the oxygen and hydrogen atoms spend more time around the oxygen atom nucleus than around the hydrogen atom nucleus.
E) the oxygen atom acquires an additional electron.

D) The electrons shared between the oxygen and hydrogen atoms spend more time around the oxygen atom nucleus than around the hydrogen atom nucleus.

4) Which of the following effects is produced by the high surface tension of water?
A) Evaporation of sweat from the skin helps to keep people from overheating.
B) A water strider can walk across the surface of a small pond.
C) Lakes don't freeze solid in winter, despite low temperatures.
D) Water flows upward from the roots to the leaves in plants.
E) Organisms resist temperature changes, although they give off heat due to chemical reactions.

B) A water strider can walk across the surface of a small pond.

5) Which of the following takes place as an ice cube cools a drink?
A) Kinetic energy in the drink decreases.
B) The specific heat of the water in the drink decreases.
C) A calorie of heat energy is transferred from the ice to the water of the drink.
D) Molecular collisions in the drink increase.
E) Evaporation of the water in the drink increases.

A) Kinetic energy in the drink decreases.

7) Liquid water's high specific heat is mainly a consequence of the:
A) fact that water is a poor heat conductor.
B) small size of the water molecules.
C)absorption and release of heat when hydrogen bonds break and form.
D.)higher density of liquid water than solid water (ice).
E) high specific heat of oxygen and hydrogen atoms.

C)absorption and release of heat when hydrogen bonds break and form.

8) Which type of bond must be broken for water to vaporize?
A) hydrogen bonds
B) polar covalent bonds
C) both hydrogen bonds and ionic bonds
D) ionic bonds
E) both polar covalent bonds and hydrogen bonds

A) hydrogen bonds

9.)Temperature usually increases when water condenses. Which behavior of water is most directly responsible for this phenomenon?
A) reactions with other atmospheric compounds
B) the high surface tension of water
C) the release of heat by the breaking of hydrogen bonds
D) the change in density when it condenses to form a liquid or solid
E) the release of heat by the formation of hydrogen bonds

E) the release of heat by the formation of hydrogen bonds

10) Why does evaporation of water from a surface cause cooling of the surface?
A) The expansion of water vapor extracts heat from the surface.
B) The breaking of bonds between water molecules absorbs heat.
C) The water molecules with the most heat energy evaporate more readily.
D) Water molecules absorb heat from the surface in order to acquire enough energy to evaporate.
E) The solute molecules left behind absorb heat.

) The water molecules with the most heat energy evaporate more readily.

11) Why does ice float in liquid water?
A) Hydrogen bonds stabilize and keep the molecules of ice farther apart than the water molecules of liquid water.
B) The ionic bonds between the molecules in ice prevent the ice from sinking.
C) The crystalline lattice of ice causes it to be denser than liquid water.
D) The high surface tension of liquid water keeps the ice on top.
E) Ice always has air bubbles that keep it afloat.

) Hydrogen bonds stabilize and keep the molecules of ice farther apart than the water molecules of liquid water.

14) A strong acid like HCl:
A) increases the pH when added to an aqueous solution.
B) both ionizes completely in aqueous solutions and is a strong buffer at low pH.
C) reacts with strong bases to create a buffered solution.
D) ionizes completely in an aqueous solution.
E) is a strong buffer at low pH.

D) ionizes completely in an aqueous solution.

15) Which of the following ionizes completely in solution and is considered to be a strong base (alkali)?
A) NaCl
B) HCl
C) NaOH
D) H2C03
E) NH3

C) NaOH

16) If the pH of a solution is decreased from 9 to 8, it means that the
A) concentration of OH has increased tenfold (10X) compared to what it was at pH 9.
B) concentration of OH has decreased to one tenth (1/10) what it was at pH 9.
C) Concentration of H has increased tenfold (10X) compared to what it was at pH 9.
D) Concentration of H has increased tenfold (10X) and the concentration OH has decreased one-tenth (1/10) what they were at pH 9.
E) concentration of H has decreased to one-tenth (1/10) what it was at pH 9.

) Concentration of H has increased tenfold (10X) and the concentration OH has decreased onetenth (1/10) what they were at pH 9.

17) If the pH of a solution is increased from pH 5 to pH 7, it means that the
A) concentration of H is 100 times greater and the concentration of OH is one-hundredth (0.01x) what they were at pH 5.
B) concentration of H is half (1/2) what it was at pH 5.
C) concentration of H is twice (2X) what it was at pH 5.
D) concentration of OH is 100 times greater than what it was at pH 5.
E.) Concentration of OH is one-hundreth (0.01x) what it was at pH 5.

D) concentration of OH is 100 times greater than what it was at pH 5.

18) Which of the following statements is true about buffer solutions?
A) They maintain a constant pH when acids are added to them but not when bases are added to them.
B) They maintain a constant pH when bases are added to them but not when acids are added to them.
C) They maintain a relatively constant pH of approximately 7 when either acids or bases are added to them.
D.) They are found only in living systems and biological fluids.
E.) They maintain a relatively constant pH when either acids or bases are added to them.

E.) They maintain a relatively constant pH when either acids or bases are added to them.

19) Buffers are substances that help resist shifts in pH by
A) donating H to a solution when bases are added.
B) releasing H to a solution when acids are added.
C) releasing OH to a solution when bases are added.
D.)both donating H+ to a solution when bases are added, and accepting H+ when acids are added.
E) accepting H from a solution when acids are added.

D.)both donating H+ to a solution when bases are added, and accepting H+ when acids are added.

20) Research indicates that acid precipitation can damage living organisms by
A) increasing the OH concentration of lakes and streams.
B) buffering aquatic systems such as lakes and streams.
C) both decreasing the+ H concentration of lakes and streams and increasing the OH cocnentration of lakes and streams
D) decreasing the H concentration of lakes and streams.
E) washing away certain mineral ions that help buffer soil solution and are essential nutrients for plant growth.

E) washing away certain mineral ions that help buffer soil solution and are essential nutrients for plant growth.

21) If a solution has a pH of 7, this means that:
A) This is a solution of pure water
B) the concentration of H+ ions in the water equals the concentration of OH- ions in the water
C) this is a solution of pure water, and the concentration of H+ ions equal the concentration of OH- ions in the water
D) There are no H+ ions in the water
E) This is a solutions of pure water, and the concentrartion of H+ ions in the water is - is M

B) the concentration of H+ ions in the water equals the concentration of OH- ions in the water

22) How would acidification of seawater affect marine organisms?
A) Acidification would decrease dissolved carbonate concentrations and promote faster growth of corals and shell building animals.
B) Acidification would increase dissolved carbonate concentrations and hinder growth of corals and shellbuilding animals.
C) Acidification would decrease dissolved carbonate concentrations and hinder growth of corals and shellbuilding animals.
D) Acidification would increase dissolved carbonate concentrations and promote faster growth of corals and shellbuilding animals.
E) Acidification would increase dissolved bicarbonate concentrations, and cause increased calcification of corals and shellfish.

C) Acidification would decrease dissolved carbonate concentrations and hinder growth of corals and shellbuilding animals.

23) The bonds that are broken when water vaporizes are:
A) covalent bonds between atoms within water molecules.
B) nonpolar covalent bonds.
C) polar covalent bonds.
D) hydrogen bonds between water molecules.
E) ionic bonds.

D) hydrogen bonds between water molecules.

26) Measurements show that the pH of a particular lake is 4.0. What is the hydrogen ion concentration of the lake?
A) 4%
B) 10-4M
C) 104M
D) 10-10 M
E) 4.0 M

B) 10-4M

9) Which of the following statements correctly describes cis-trans isomers?
A) They have different molecular formulas.
B) Their atoms and bonds are arranged in different sequences.
C.)They have variations in arrangement around a double bond.
D) They have an asymmetric carbon that makes them mirror images.
E) They have the same chemical properties.

C.)They have variations in arrangement around a double bond.

1) The element present in all organic molecules is
A) phosphorus
B) oxygen
C) nitrogen
D) carbon

carbon

2) The complexity and variety of organic molecules is due to
the variety of rare elements in organic molecules.
B) the fact that they can be synthesized only in living organisms.
C) the chemical versatility of carbon atoms.
D) their interaction with water.
E) their tremendously large sizes.

C) the chemical versatility of carbon atoms.

3)How many electron pairs does carbon share in order to complete it's valence shell?
4
1
2
3
8

4

4) A carbon atom is most likely to form what kind of bond(s) with other atoms?
A) ionic bonds, covalent bonds, and hydrogen bonds
B) hydrogen
C) covalent
D) Covalent bonds and hydrogen bonds
E) ionic

covalent

5) How many structural isomers are possible for a substance having the molecular formula C4H10?
A) 4
B) 11
C) 2
D) 1
E) 3

C) 2

7) Why are hydrocarbons insoluble in water?
A) They are lighter than water.
B) They are hydrophilic.
C) They exhibit considerable molecular complexity and diversity.
D) The majority of their bonds are nonpolar covalent carbon-to-hydrogen linkages.
E) The majority of their bonds are polar covalent carbon-to-hydrogen linkages.

The majority of their bonds are nonpolar covalent carbon-to-hydrogen linkages.

8) Testosterone and estradiol are male and female sex hormones, respectively, in many vertebrates. In what way(s) do these molecules differ from each other?
Testosterone and estradiol are structural isomers but have the same molecular formula.
B) Testosterone and estradiol are enantiomers of the same organic molecule.
C) Testosterone and estradiol have different functional groups attached to the same carbon skeleton.
D) Testosterone and estradiol have distinctly different chemical structures, with one including four fused rings of carbon atoms, while the other has three rings.
E) Testosterone and estradiol are cis-trans isomers but have the same molecular formula.

C) Testosterone and estradiol have different functional groups attached to the same carbon skeleton.

11) Research indicates that ibuprofen, a drug used to relieve inflammation and pain, is a mixture of two enantiomers; that is, molecules that
have identical chemical formulas but differ in the branching of their carbon skeletons.
B) differ in the location of their double bonds.
C) exist in either linear chain or ring forms.
D) differ in the arrangement of atoms around their double bonds.
E) are mirror images of one another.

E) are mirror images of one another.

12) Which of the following is a false statement concerning amino groups?
They are found in aminoacids.
B) They contain nitrogen.
C) They are components of urea.
D) They are nonpolar.
E)They are basic in pH

D) They are nonpolar.

13) Which two functional groups are always found in amino acids?
A) carboxyl and amino
B) amino and sulfhydryl
C) carbonyl and amino
D) ketone and methyl
E) hydroxyl and carboxyl

A) carboxyl and amino

14) Amino acids are acids because they always possess which functional group?
A) carbonyl
B) hydroxyl
C) amino
D) carboxyl
E) phosphate

carboxyl

20) Thalidomide and L-dopa, shown below, are examples of pharmaceutical drugs that occur as enantiomers,
A) or molecules that are mirror images of one another and have the same biological activity.
B) are cis-trans isomers.
C) are mirror images of one another.
D) have identical three-dimensional shapes.
E) are structural isomers

C) are mirror images of one another.

21) Which action could produce a carbonyl group?
A) the replacement of the -OH of a carboxyl group with hydrogen
B) the addition of a sulfhydryl to a carboxyl
C) the addition of a thiol to a hydroxyl
D) the replacement of the nitrogen of an amine with oxygen
E) the addition of a hydroxyl to a phosphate

A) the replacement of the -OH of a carboxyl group with hydrogen

22) Which chemical group is most likely to be responsible for an organic molecule behaving as a base?
carbonyl
B) phosphate
C) amino
D) carboxyl
E) hydroxyl

amino

Molecules with which functional groups may form polymers via dehydration reactions?

A) hydroxyl groups
B) either hydroxyl or carboxyl groups
C) carbonyl groups
D) either carbonyl or carboxyl groups
E) carboxyl groups

either hydroxyl or carboxyl groups

Which of these molecules is not formed by dehydration reactions?

A) DNA
B) protein
C) amylase
D) disaccharides
E) fatty acids

fatty acids

Which of these classes of biological molecules consist of both small molecules and macromolecular polymers?

A) carbohydrates
B) lipids, carbohydrates, proteins, and nucleic acids all consist of only macromolecular polymers
C) nucleic acids
D) lipids
E) proteins

carbohydrates

Which of the following is not a polymer?

A) chitin
B) cellulose
C) starch
D) glucose
E) DNA

glucose

What is the chemical reaction mechanism by which cells make polymers from monomers?

A) ionic bonding of monomers
B) phosphodiester linkages
C) hydrolysis
D) dehydration reactions
E) the formation of disulfide bridges between monomers

dehydration reactions

Which of the following best summarizes the relationship between dehydration reactions and
hydrolysis?

A) Dehydration reactions can occur only after hydrolysis.
B) Dehydration reactions assemble polymers, and hydrolysis reactions break down polymers.
C) Dehydration reactions eliminate water from lipid membranes, and hydrolysis makes lipid membranes water permeable.
D) Dehydration reactions ionize water molecules and add hydroxyl groups to polymers;
hydrolysis reactions release hydroxyl groups from polymers.
E) Hydrolysis creates monomers, and dehydration reactions break down polymers.

Dehydration reactions assemble polymers, and hydrolysis reactions break down polymers

Which of the following polymers contain nitrogen?

A) glycogen
B) starch
C) chitin
D) cellulose
E) amylopectin

Chitin

The enzyme amylase can break glycosidic linkages between glucose monomers only if the monomers are the "a" form. Which of the following could amylase break down?

A) chitin
B) glycogen and chitin only
C) cellulose
D) glycogen
E) glycogen, cellulose, and chitin

Glycogen

Which of the following is true of cellulose?

A) It is a polymer composed of enantiomers of glucose, it is a storage polysaccharide for energy in plant cells, it is digestible by bacteria in the human gut, and it is a major component of plant cell walls.
B) It is digestible by bacteria in the human gut.
C) It is a major structural component of plant cell walls.
D) It is a storage polysaccharide for energy in plant cells.
E) It is a polymer composed of enantiomers of glucose.

It is a major structural component of plant cell walls

Humans can digest starch but not cellulose because

A) humans have enzymes that can hydrolyze the a glycosidic linkages of starch but not the glycosidic linkages of cellulose.
B) the monomer of starch is glucose, while the monomer of cellulose is glucose with a
nitrogen-containing group.
C) humans have enzymes that can hydrolyze theglycosidic linkages of starch but not the a
glycosidic linkages of cellulose.
D) the monomer of starch is glucose, while the monomer of cellulose is galactose.
E) humans harbor starch-digesting bacteria in the digestive tract.

Humans have enzymes that can hydrolyze the "a" glycosidic linkages of starch but not the "B" glycosidic linkages of cellulose

Which of the following statements conceming saturated fats is not true?

A) They contain more hydrogen than unsaturated fats having the same number of carbon atoms.
B) They are one of several factors that contribute to atherosclerosis.
C) They are more common in animals than in plants.
D) They have multiple double bonds in the carbon chains of their fatty acids.
E) They generally solidify at room temperature.

They have multiple double bonds in the carbon chains of their fatty acids

A molecule with the formula C18 H36 O2 is probably a

A) carbohydrate.
B) nucleic acid.
C) protein.
D) hydrocarbon.
E) fatty acid

Fatty Acid

Which of the following statements is true for the class of biological molecules known as lipids?

A) They are made from glycerol, fatty acids, and phosphate.
B) They contain less energy than proteins and carbohydrates.
C) They contain nitrogen.
D) They are made by dehydration reactions.
E) They are insoluble in water.

They are insoluable in water

Which of the following is true regarding saturated fatty acids?

A) They have double bonds between carbon atoms of the fatty acids.
B) They are usually produced by plants.
C) They are the predominant fatty acid in com oil.
D) They are the principal molecules in lard and butter.
E) They are usually liquid at room temperature.

They are the principal molecules in lard and butter

Large organic molecules are usually assembled by polymerization of a few kinds of simple subunits. Which of the following is an exception to this statement?

A) cellulose
B) DNA
C) a contractile protein
D) an enzyme
E) a steroid

A steroid

Which modifications of fatty acids will best keep triglycerides solid at warmer temperatures?

A) creating cis double bonds to the fatty acids
B) adding hydrogens and trans double bonds to the fatty acids
C) creating trans double bonds to the fatty acids
D) adding hydrogens to the fatty acids
E) adding cis double bonds and trans double bonds to the fatty acids

adding hydrogens and trans double bonds to the fatty acids

All of the following contain amino acids except

A) hemoglobin.
B) antibodies.
C) insulin.
D) cholesterol.
E) enzymes.

cholesterol

The bonding of two amino acid molecules to form a larger molecule requires

A) the addition of a water molecule.
B) the release of a water molecule.
C) the release of a nitrous oxide molecule.
D) the release of a carbon dioxide molecule.
E) the addition of a nitrogen atom

The release of a water molecule

There are 20 different amino acids. What makes one amino acid different from another?

A) different structural and optical isomers
B) different asymmetric carbons
C) different side chains (R groups) attached to the amino groups
D) different side chains (R groups) attached to a carboxyl carbon
E) different side chains (R groups) attached to an a carbon

different side chains (R groups) attached to an "a" carbon

The bonding of two amino acid molecules to form a larger molecule requires which of the following?

A) removal of a water molecule
B) both removal of a water molecule and formation of a hydrogen bond
C) formation of a hydrogen bond
D) addition of a water molecule
E) formation of a glycosidic bond

removal of a water molecule

Polysaccharides, triacylglycerides, and proteins are similar in that they

A) are synthesized from subunits by dehydration reactions.
B) all contain nitrogen in their monomer building blocks.
C) are decomposed into their subunits by dehydration reactions.
D) are synthesized as a result of peptide bond formation between monomers.
E) are synthesized from monomers by the process of hydrolysis.

are synthesized from subunits by dehydration reactions

Dehydration reactions are used in forming which of the following compounds?

A) triacylglycerides and proteins only
B) triacylglycerides
C) triacylglycerides, polysaccharides, and proteins
D) polysaccharides
E) proteins

triacylglycerides, polysaccharides, and proteins

What aspects of protein structure are stabilized or assisted by hydrogen bonds?

A) secondary structure
B) quaternary structure
C) primary structure
D) secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structures, but not primary structure
E) tertiary structure

secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structures, but not primary structure

Which bonds are created during the formation of the primary structure of a protein?

A) peptide bonds
B) peptide bonds, hydrogen bonds, and disulfide bonds
C) disulfide bonds
D) phosphodiester bonds
E) hydrogen bonds

peptide bonds

What maintains the secondary structure of a protein?

A) hydrogen bonds between the amino group of one peptide bond and the carboxyl group of another peptide bond
B) disulfide bonds
C) hydrophobic interactions
D) peptide bonds
E) hydrogen bonds between the R groups

hydrogen bonds between the amino group of one peptide bond and the carboxyl group of another peptide bond

Which type of interaction stabilizes the a helix and the "B" pleated sheet structures of proteins?

A) peptide bonds
B) ionic bonds
C) disulfide bonds
D) hydrogen bonds
E) hydrophobic interactions

hydrogen bonds

Which level of protein structure do the "a" helix and the "B" pleated sheet represent?

A) secondary
B) primary
C) tertiary
D) primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary
E) quaternary

secondary

The amino acids of the protein keratin are arranged predominantly in an "a" helix. This secondary structure is stabilized by:

A) ionic bonds.
B) hydrogen bonds.
C) peptide bonds.
D) covalent bonds.
E) polar bonds.

hydrogen bonds

The tertiary structure of a protein is the:
A) Organization of a polypeptide chain into a "A" helix or "B" pleated sheet
B) Overall protein structure resulting from the aggregation of two or more polypeptide subunits
C) Bonding together of several polypeptide chains by weak bonds
D) unique three-dimensional shape of the fully folded polypeptide
E) Order in which amino acids are joined in polypeptic chain

unique three-dimensional shape of fully folded polypeptide

In a normal cellular protein, where would you expect to find a hydrophobic amino acid like valine?

A) in the interior of the folded protein, away from water
B) on the exterior surface of the protein, interacting with water
C) in the interior of the folded protein, away from water, or in a transmembrane portion interacting with lipid fatty acid chains
D) anywhere in the protein, with equal probability
E) in the transmembrane portion interacting with lipid fatty acid chains

in the interior of the folded protein, away from water, or in a transmembrane portion interacting with lipid fatty acid chains

Which of the following techniques uses the amino acid sequences of polypeptides to predict a protein's threedimensional structure?

A) bioinformatics
B) analysis of amino acid sequence of small fragments
C) NMR spectroscopy
D) high-speed centrifugation
E) X-ray crystallography

bioinformatics

One of the primary functions of RNA molecules is to:

A) transmit genetic information to offspring
B) Form the genes of higher organisms
C) Act as a pattern or blueprint to form DNA
D) Function in the synthesis of protiens
E) make a copy of itself, thus ensureing genetic continuity

function in the synthesis of proteins

Which of the following is an example of hydrolysis?

A) the reaction of a fat, forming glycerol and fatty acids with the consumption of water
B) the reaction of two monosaccharides, forming a disaccharide with the release of water
C) the synthesis of a nucleotide from a phosphate, a pentose sugar, and a nitrogenous base with the production of a molecule of water
D) the synthesis of two amino acids, forming a peptide with the release of water
E) the reaction of a fat, forming glycerol and fatty acids with the release of water

the reaction of a fat, forming glycerol and fatty acids with the consumption of water

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