EXIN 100 with explanations

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134 terms · ITIL Test questions with explanations

A secure repository, where authorized versions of all media CIs are protected and stored, is known as what?
A. Configuration Management System (CMS)
B. Assess Management System
C. Definitive Media Library (DML)
D. Knowledge Management System (KMS)

Answer: C
Explanation: The DML or "Definitive Media Library" Stores all media Configuration Items.

All processes require some level of control. Select the process that is NOT defined in Service Design:
A. Availability Management
B. Service Portfolio Management
C. Service Catalogue Management
D. Service Level Management

Answer: B
Service Portfolio Management is a process defined by Service Strategy.

The successful diagnosis of a problem results in a Known Error. On the basis of this Known Error a Request for Change may be raised. When can the Known Error be closed?
A. When a review of the change has led to a satisfactory result.
B. When incidents related to the Known Error do not occur any more.
C. When the proposal for change is lodged with Change Management.
D. When the Request for Change is authorized by the Change Advisory Board.

Answer: A
Explanation: Error Control is the process of monitoring and providing solutions for known errors until they are resolved. Error Control contains the following activities:
Known Error Identification and Recording - Once the root cause has been determined,the problem status changes to known error. A workaround is developed to feed back to
Incident Management to handle further incidents that occur before a final solution is implemented. The known error definition can also be sent to the known error database to
be used in the matching process.
Solution Investigated - An assessment is performed on what will be required to resolve the known error. This activity could consist of cross-functional teams to weigh different solutions on various criteria including costs and benefits.
Defining Solution - A final solution is developed and a Request for Change (RFC) is made via the Change Management Process.
Problem Evaluation and Review - After the change has been implemented, a Post Implementation Review (PIR) is performed to evaluate the success of the solution and
associated changes Closure
- Assuming the problem review declares the solution as successful, the problem is finally closed.

When an organization decides to control the flow of incident information within the
IT organization, which ITIL process would it be putting in place?
A. Availability Management
B. Change Management
C. Incident Management
D. Problem Management

Answer: C
Explanation: ITIL terminology defines an incident as: Any event which is not part of the standard operation of a service and which causes, or may cause, an interruption to, or a reduction in, the quality of that service. The first goal of the incident management process is to restore a normal service operation
as quickly as possible and to minimize the impact on business operations, thus ensuring that the best possible levels of service quality and availability are maintained

When must a Post Implementation Review take place?
A. after every Change
B. at the request of the person who submitted the Change request
C. in case of emergency changes
D. if another incident of the same type occurs again after a Change has been made

Answer: A
Explanation: A Post Implementation Review (PIR) is a formal review of a programme or project. It is used to answer the question: Did we achieve what we set out to do, in business terms and if not, what should be done? The PIR must be a
part of every change process.

Which activity is not the responsibility of IT Service Continuity Management?
A. analyzing risks
B. testing back-out arrangements
C. drawing up back-out scenarios
D. executing impact analyses of incidents related to the back-out facilities

Answer: D
Explanation: Business Continuity Management (BCM) is concerned with managing risks to ensure that at all times an organisation can continue operating to, at least, a pre-determined minimum level. The BCM process involves reducing the risk to an acceptable level and planning for the recovery of business processes should a risk materialize and a disruption to the business occur. A structured Incident Management processes includes classification, categorisation, impact and priority assessment, and monitoring and tracking of incidents.

Which ITIL process has the objective of helping to monitor the IT services by
maintaining a logical model of the IT infrastructure and IT services?
A. Capacity Management
B. Change Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Financial Management for IT services

Answer: C
Explanation: Configuration Management is the implementation of a database (Configuration Management Database - CMDB) that contains details of the organisation's elements that are used in the provision and management of its IT services. This is more than just an 'asset register', as it will contain information that
relates to the maintenance, movement, and problems experienced with the Configuration Items.

QUESTION 209:
According to the Deming quality circle a number of steps must be performed
repeatedly in order to ensure good performance.
Which of the following answers specifies the correct sequence for these steps?
A. Act - Check - Do - Plan
B. Check - Plan - Act - Do
C. Do - Plan - Check - Act
D. Plan - Do - Check - Act

Answer: D
Explanation: The Deming's quality circle is also known as Deming's PDCA circle, Plan - Do - Check - Act.

QUESTION 211:
A process is a logically coherent series of activities for a pre-defined goal.
What is the process owner responsible for?
A. setting up the process
B. implementing the process
C. describing the process
D. the result of the process

Answer: D
Explanation: The process owner is responsible for the result of the process and has to actively work with improving the structure and flow of the process.

What is the difference between a process and a project?
A. A process is continuous and has no end date, whereas a project has a finite lifespan.
B. A project is continuous and has no end date, whereas a process has a finite lifespan.
C. A process stops when the objective has been achieved, whereas a project does not stop
when the objective is met.
D. In a project the focus is not on the result, whereas with a process the result is
important.

Answer: A
Explanation: Projects are objective-based and have clear start and end points (although I've been on some projects that never seemed to end, but that's another story). Operational processes are those that continue ad infinitum and are typically sustaining in nature.

What is the basis of the ITIL approach to Service Management?
A. departments
B. IT resources
C. officials
D. interrelated activities

Answer: D
Explanation: The definition of a process - A process is a set of interrelated activities and/or subprocesses and/or (sub)stages with a common goal, and ITIL focuses on best practice (process) that can be utilized in different ways according to need.

Which of the following is a benefit of using ITIL?
A. that the users can influence the IT organization providing the IT services
B. that the quality and the costs of the IT services can be controlled more efficiently
C. that the organization around the IT services can be set up faster
D. that it is finally possible to charge for IT services

Answer: B
Explanation:
By improving the processes around IT, the organization can begin to:
- Improve resource utilization
- Be more competitive
- Decrease rework
- Eliminate redundant work
- Improve upon project deliverables and time
- Improve availability, reliability and security of mission critical IT-services
- Justify the cost of service quality
- Provide services that meet business, customer and user demands
- Integrate central processes
- Document and communicate roles and responsibilities in service provision
- Learn from previous experience
- Provide demonstrable performance indicators

Which activity takes place immediately after recording and registering an incident?
A. analysis and diagnosis
B. classification
C. matching
D. solving and restoring

Answer: B

QUESTION 216:
In an organization, the purchasing department has relocated internally - not just the
people, but also their IT resources. A Service Desk employee has been commissioned
to relocate this department's workstations.
In which ITIL process is this employee now playing a role?
A. Change Management
B. Incident Management
C. Problem Management
D. Configuration Management

Answer: A
Explanation: Change Management provides a way of managing and controlling the
way changes are initiated, assessed, planned for, scheduled and implemented. The
scope of Change Management may include, but is not limited to:
1. components of the IT infrastructure (e.g. hardware, software and documentation)
2. IT services (SLAs)
3. IT service organizations (e.g. organizational structure and procedures).

QUESTION 217:
Information is regularly exchanged between Problem Management and Change
Management.
What information is this?
A. Known Errors from Problem Management, on the basis of which Change Management
can generate Requests for Change (RFCs)
B. RFCs resulting from Known Errors
C. RFCs from the users that Problem Management passes on to Change Management
D. RFCs from the Service Desk that Problem Management passes on to Change
Management

Answer: B
Explanation: As shown in the figure there is a Request For Change that is sent to the Change Management process once a solution is defined for a Known Error.

In IT Service Continuity Management various precautionary measures are taken,
for example using an emergency power provision.
Which of the following ITIL processes could also initiate this kind of measure?
A. Availability Management
B. Capacity management
C. Change Management
D. Incident Management

Answer: A
Explanation: Availability Management is concerned with design, implementation,
measurement and management of IT services to ensure the stated business
requirements for availability are consistently met. Availability Management
requires an understanding of the reasons why IT service failures occur and the time
taken to resume service. Incident Management and Problem Management provide a
key input to ensure the appropriate corrective actions are being progressed.

Which statement best describes the role of the Service Desk?
A. The Service Desk functions as the first contact for the customer.
B. The primary task of the Service Desk is to investigate problems.
C. The Service Desk ensures that the agreed IT service is available.
D. The Service Desk ensures that the telephone is always manned.

Answer: A
Explanation: The service desk is the single contact point for the customers to record
their problems. It will try to resolve it, if there is a direct solution or will create an
incident.

Which ITIL process or which ITIL department has responsibilities that include
distributing information to users?
A. Change Management
B. Customer Relationship Management
C. Incident Management
D. Service Desk

Answer: D
Explanation:
The common Service Desk functions include:
- Receiving calls, first-line customer liaison
- Recording and tracking incidents and complaints
- Keeping customers informed on request status and progress
- Making an initial assessment of requests, attempting to resolve them or refer them to
someone who can
- Monitoring and escalation procedures relative to the appropriate SLAs
- Identifying problems
- Closing incidents and confirmation with the customers
- Coordinating second-line and third line support

Which activity is not a Service Desk activity?
A. registering Incidents
B. solving a Problem
C. relating an incident to a Known Error
D. applying temporary fixes

Answer: B
Explanation: The IT Infrastructure Library approach to a Service Desk acts as the
central point of contact between service providers and users/customers, on a
day-to-day basis. It is also a focal point for reporting Incidents and for users making
service requests. It handles incidents and service requests, as well as providing an
interface, with users, for other Service Management activities such as Change,
Problem, Configuration, Release, Service Level and IT Service Continuity
Management. The Service desk is the point of contact to the problem solvers and
change managers but they do not perform these tasks themselves.

Who is responsible for tracking and monitoring an incident?
A. Problem Manager
B. Problem Management staff
C. Service Desk
D. Service Level Manager

Answer: C
Explanation:
The common Service Desk functions include:
- Receiving calls, first-line customer liaison
- Recording and tracking incidents and complaints
- Keeping customers informed on request status and progress
- Making an initial assessment of requests, attempting to resolve them or refer them to
someone who can
- Monitoring and escalation procedures relative to the appropriate SLAs
- Identifying problems
- Closing incidents and confirmation with the customers
- Coordinating second-line and third line support

The Service Desk receives different types of calls.
Which of the following is an incident?
A. information about the rollout of a specific application
B. a notification that a new toner cartridge has just been installed in a printer
C. a system message that a printer is not working
D. a request to install a new bookkeeping package

Answer: C
Explanation: An incident is defined as:
Any event which is not a part of the standard operation of a system that causes, or may
cause, an interruption to, or a reduction in, the quality of service.

Which of the following is a department rather than a process?
A. Change Management
B. Incident Management
C. Problem Management
D. Service Desk

Answer: D
Comment: While ITIL suggests that the Service Desk is a function and not a process, it
has been observed that the Service Request process followed by the service desk is in fact
a process.

Which of the following is a Problem Management activity that can be categorized as
being proactive?
A. analyzing reported incidents in order to make recommendations
B. delivering second-line support, should problems occur
C. making agreements with the customer using Service Level Agreements
D. employing more Problem Managers

Answer: A
Explanation: Problem prevention ranges from prevention of individual Problems, such as repeated difficulties with a particular feature of a system, through to strategic decisions. Problem prevention also includes information being given to
Customers that negates the need to ask for assistance in the future. Analysis focuses on providing recommendations on improvements for the Problem solvers. The main activities within proactive Problem Management processes are trend analysis and the targeting of preventive action

One of the objectives of Problem Management is to minimize the impact of
problems on IT services.
Which activity needs to be carried out by Problem Management in order to achieve
this?
A. ensuring the availability of the IT infrastructure
B. giving second-line support when problems occur
C. maintaining relations with suppliers
D. managing Known Errors

Answer: D
Explanation: Managing Known Errors, or Error Control, is a vital part of the Problem Management process, this part of the Problem Management process is used once the root cause for a problem is identified. Without the Error Control there would never be any solutions and closure of problems.

Which status is a problem assigned once its cause has been identified?
A. Incident
B. Known Error
C. Work-around
D. Request for Change (RFC)

Answer: B
Explanation: Once the root cause for a problem is identified the problem is transferred into the Error Control part of the Problem Management process and the problem is classified as a Known Error (possibly with a work-around).

Which activity in the Problem Management process is responsible for generating
Requests for Change (RFCs)?
A. Problem Analysis
B. Error Control
C. Monitoring
D. Proactive Problem Management

Answer: B
Explanation: Once a problem is classified as a Known Error it is transferred from Problem Control to Error Control. Within the Error Control activity the work with defining a solution to the Known Error starts, once a solution is produced a RFC is
sent to Change Management prior to deploying the solution.

When the cause of one or more incidents is not known, additional resources are
assigned to identify the cause.
Which ITIL process is responsible for this?
A. Capacity Management
B. Incident Management
C. Problem Management
D. Service Level Management

Answer: C
Explanation: Refer to the Problem Management process which shows you how it is divided into two parts. One that works with problems with an unknown cause and one that works with known errors (problem with a known cause)

Which ITIL process provides change proposals in order to eliminate structural
errors?
A. IT Service Continuity Management
B. Availability Management
C. Security Management
D. Problem Management

d
Explanation: Once a solution is defined for a known error in the Problem Management process a change proposal, or Request for Change (RFC), is sent to the Change Management. Once the change is committed the Problem Management
process continues with a Post Implementation Review (PIR) and if the changes
made solved the problem then the process continues to the Problem Closure stage.
Remember, Problem Management produces solutions and Change Management
deploys the solutions throughout the organization.

When is a Known Error identified?
A. When the cause of the problem is known.
B. When the incident has been sent to Problem Management.
C. When the problem is known.
D. When the problem has been resolved

Answer: A
Explanation: Once the cause is known for a problem the problem is classified as a
known error and a work-around may be provided until a solution is produced and
deployed.

Which of the following tasks is part of proactive Problem Management?
A. making a change to resolve a problem
B. registering frequently occurring errors
C. analyzing trends
D. managing Known Errors

Answer: C
Explanation: Problem prevention ranges from prevention of individual Problems,
such as repeated difficulties with a particular feature of a system, through to
strategic decisions. Problem prevention also includes information being given to
Customers that negates the need to ask for assistance in the future. Analysis focuses
on providing recommendations on improvements for the Problem solvers. The main
activities within proactive Problem Management processes are trend analysis and
the targeting of preventive action.

Which ITIL process is responsible for tracing the underlying cause of errors?
A. Capacity Management
B. Incident Management
C. Problem Management
D. Security Management

Answer: C
Explanation: In ITIL, a "Problem" is defined as: "An unknown underlying cause of
one or more incidents." Therefore Problem Management should be responsible for
tracing the underlying cause of errors

Which of the following is an example of proactive Problem Management?
A. a report regarding the Problem Management process
B. a trend analysis
C. an urgent change
D. a change request

Answer: B
Explanation:
Problem prevention ranges from prevention of individual Problems, such as
repeated difficulties with a particular feature of a system, through to strategic
decisions. Problem prevention also includes information being given to Customers
that negates the need to ask for assistance in the future. Analysis focuses on
providing recommendations on improvements for the Problem solvers. The main
activities within proactive Problem Management processes are trend analysis and
the targeting of preventive action.

How does Problem Management contribute to a higher solution percentage of
first-line support?
A. by analyzing open incidents
B. by evaluating incidents with the customer
C. by preventing incidents
D. by making a knowledge database available

Answer: D
Explanation: By capturing all knowledge from solving problems into a knowledge
database, and making them available to the service desk you empower tier one
support to perform more diagnostic and repair tasks and freeing up tier three
support for proactive management.

What is the primary task of Error Control?
A. checking problems and incidents
B. classifying and defining the priorities of problems
C. correcting Known Errors
D. providing information to the users

Answer: C
Explanation: Error control is all about finding the solution to a known error.
Checking problems and incidents, and classifying and defining the priorities is in
the Problem Control part of Problem Management. Information to users is
provided through the service desk.

What is the term used for a situation derived from a series of incidents with the
same characteristics?
A. a Change Request
B. a Known Error
C. a Problem
D. a Service Call

Answer: C
Explanation: In ITIL, a "Problem" is defined as: "An unknown underlying cause of
one or more incidents." If you have a series of incidents with the same
characteristics they probably have the same underlying cause and in order to solve
these incidents before they appear in the future you should send this to the Problem
Management process in order to solve the cause of the problem

What is meant by the urgency of an incident?
A. the degree to which the solution of an incident tolerates delay
B. the degree to which the incident gives rise to a deviation from the normal service level
C. the time needed by IT Services to resolve the incident
D. the relative importance of the incidents when handling them

Answer: A
Explanation: Impact and the Urgency of the Incident together decide the Priority.
Severity comes from the events that are identified by the monitoring tools. Severity
can be mapped directly to the "Impact to the Business."
What factors influence the Priority?
1. Impact - Severity of the Incident. This is the measure of the impact to the business
2. Urgency - How much delay can be tolerated in fixing the issue? How quickly it should be resolved
3. Customer Importance - ie; a call from the CEO
4. Resources required to fix the issue
5. Potential cost of non-resolution
6. Disruption of service to the customer

Certkiller .com calls the Service Desk and reports that the system is slow. He asks
whether he can be given another PC like his colleague's, which is much faster.
Which term is applicable to this situation?
A. Classification
B. Incident
C. Problem
D. Request for Change

Answer: B
Explanation: The reason for the call is the slow system which is an incident with an
unknown underlying cause.

Reports of different types arrive at a Service Desk.
Which of the following reports is an incident?
A. information about the departure time of the train to London
B. a question about where the manual is
C. a report that the printer is not working
D. a request for the installation of a new bookkeeping package

Answer: C
Explanation: ITIL terminology defines an incident as: Any event which is not part of the standard operation of a service and which causes, or may cause, an interruption to, or a reduction in, the quality of that service.

Which ITIL process has the following objective?
Correcting malfunctions in the services as quickly as possible by minimizing the
consequences of the malfunctions, so that the user is hindered as little as possible.
A. Availability Management
B. Change Management
C. Incident Management
D. Problem Management

Answer: C
Explanation: The objective of Incident Management is to restore service as quickly as possible. Therefore, an incident is active until service is verified as restored.The objective of Problem Management is to minimize the economic impact of service
disruption by diagnosing the root causes of incidents, gathering information on known errors and by providing workarounds, temporary fixes, and permanent fixes.The objective of Change Management is to ensure that standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all changes to controlled IT infrastructure, in order to minimize the number and impact of any related Incidents upon service. Availability management focuses on optimizing the capability of the IT infrastructure, services and supporting organizations to deliver a cost-effective and sustained level of availability that enables the business to satisfy its business objectives

What is the first step when registering an incident?
A. record the incident data
B. assign an incident number
C. perform matching
D. determine the priority

B
Explanation: An incident number (or ticket) is assigned and given to the user who reports the incident so that he can return to check status on "his" incident. This ticket will also help tracing the incident through the various processes.

Which ITIL process has the task of classifying incoming interruption reports?
A. Change Management
B. Incident Management
C. Problem Management
D. Security Management

Answer: B
(DIAGRAM)

Which of the following parties involved in an incident determines whether that
incident can be closed?
A. purchaser of the services
B. user
C. employee of the Service Desk
D. Service Manager

Answer: B
Explanation: If the user is satisfied with the solution to an incident, then and only then, can the incident be closed.

What is the use of additional technical expertise in the Incident Management
process called?
A. incident classification
B. functional escalation
C. resolution and recovery of the incident
D. problem analysis

Answer: B
Explanation:
Escalation - Passing information and/or requesting action on an Incident, Problem or Change to more senior staff (hierarchical escalation) or other specialists (functional escalation). Functional Escalation is sometimes called Referral.

Of which ITIL process are Reliability, Serviceability and Maintainability components?
A. IT Service Continuity Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Problem Management
D. Availability Management

Answer: D
Explanation:
Availability is usually calculated on a model involving the Availability Ratio and techniques such as Fault Tree Analysis, and includes the following elements:
Serviceability - Where a service is provided by a 3rd party organization, this is the expected availability of a component.
Reliability - the time for which a component can be expected to perform under specific conditions without failure.
Recoverability - the time it should take to restore a component back to its operational state after a failure.
Maintainability - the ease with which a component can be maintained, which can be both remedial and preventative.
Resilience - the ability to withstand failure.
Security - the ability of components to withstand breaches of security.

What is the meaning of the term Serviceability?
A. the degree of availability of the IT services that can be offered
B. the degree of support that the Service Desk provides to the customer
C. the degree to which the provision of IT services can be supported by maintenance
contracts
D. the degree to which the services agreed in the Service Level Agreement (SLA) are
complied with

Answer: C
Explanation:
Serviceability - Where a service is provided by a 3rd party organization, this is the expected availability of a component.

What does Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) mean?
A. average uptime of a service
B. average downtime of a service
C. average time between two consecutive incidents
D. average time of the breakdown-free period within a measured period

Answer: B
Explanation:
While MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures) measures the time between failures, MTTR measures the time between the service interruption and service restoration. MTTR includes problem diagnosis and problem repair. When changes are
uncontrolled and unmanaged, MTTR is dominated by problem diagnosis

Which ITIL process manager requires a report specifying the duration of an interruption of a Configuration Item?
A. Availability Manager
B. Incident Manager
C. Problem Manager
D. Service Level Manager

Answer: A
Explanation: Availability Management is the practice of identifying levels of IT Service availability for use in Service Level Reviews with Customers. All areas of a service must be measurable and defined within the Service Level Agreement (SLA) and therefore any planed configurations must be reported to the Availability Manager so that he can check the interruption against SLA's in use.

The Application Sizing activity is part of Capacity Management. What is Application Sizing?
A. measuring the load that an application places on the hardware
B. checking how an application has grown
C. keeping the capacity used by the applications up-to-date
D. determining the hardware capacity required to support new (or adapted) applications

Answer: D
Explanation: Capacity Management is the discipline that ensures IT infrastructure is provided at the right time in the right volume at the right price, and ensuring that IT is used in the most efficient manner Application Sizing involves input from many areas of the business to identify what services are
(or will be) required, what IT infrastructure is required to support these services, what level of Contingency will be needed, and what the cost of this infrastructure will be.
These are inputs into the following Capacity Management processes:
1. Performance monitoring
2. Workload monitoring
3. Application Sizing ITIL
4. Resource forecasting
5. Demand forecasting
6. Modeling

The Capacity Manager asks the user of an application whether a certain activity can be performed at night so that the CPU is not overloaded during the day. What part of the Capacity Management process does this refer to?
A. Application Sizing
B. Modeling
C. Application Management
D. Demand Management

Answer: D
Explanation: Through Demand Management the Capacity Manager can (by understand the demands being made currently, and how they will change over time) influence on demand for resources

For what is Capacity Management responsible?
A. Security
B. Resource Management
C. Maintainability
D. Serviceability

Answer: B
Explanation: The Capacity Manager's primary goal is to ensure that IT capacity meets current and future business requirements in a cost-effective manner.

Which ITIL process is responsible for determining the hardware necessary in order to support an application?
A. Availability Management
B. Capacity Management
C. Change Management
D. Configuration Management

Answer: B
Explanation: The Capacity Manager's primary goal is to ensure that IT capacity meets current and future business requirements in a cost-effective manner.

An analysis has been made regarding the expansion of the customer information database. The result indicates that the mainframe disk capacity must be increased, to accommodate the expected growth of the database in the foreseeable future. Which process is responsible for sharing this information on time, to make sure that the available disk space is sufficient?
A. Availability Management
B. Capacity Management
C. Change Management
D. Security Management

Answer: B
Explanation: The Capacity Manager's primary goal is to ensure that IT capacity meets current and future business requirements in a cost-effective manner.

The cash registers in a supermarket experience network disruptions daily between 4 p.m. and 6 p.m.
Which ITIL process is responsible for solving these difficulties on a structural basis?
A. Availability Management
B. Capacity Management
C. Incident Management
D. Problem Management

Answer: D
Explanation: As this is a reoccurring incident it will be classed as a problem and the Problem Manager has to find the underlying cause of the network disruptions.

In Change Management, a number of activities take place between the acceptance of a Request for Change and the completion of the change. Which activity is performed after acceptance of a Request for Change?
A. scheduling the Request for Change
B. building and testing the change
C. determining the urgency of the change
D. implementing the change

C

Where are the statuses of changes recorded?
A. in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
B. in the Known Error database
C. in the Definitive Software Library (DSL)
D. in the Change database

Answer: A
Explanation: As shown in the exhibit below, once a change is accepted it is sent to the Release Manager AND the Configuration Manager to be stored in the CMDB as the change is something that should always be implemented in the future.

A user reports a PC problem to the Service Desk. A Service Desk representative determines that the PC is defective and indicates that according to the services catalogue, the PC will be replaced within three hours. Which ITIL process is responsible for having this user's PC replaced within three
hours?
A. Availability Management
B. Change Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Service Level Management

Answer: B
Explanation: The case was registered as an incident with an obvious solution. The solution is to exchange the hardware used by the user and therefore the incident process will hand over the case to the change process. Availability Management
plans for short interruptions in everyday work but do not act to solve an interruption once there is one. Configuration Management handles the CMDB and tells people how the hardware should be configured, but they do not configure the
hardware themselves. Service Level Management states how fast the users computer should be replaced, but they do not actually replace the hardware

Who decides the category of a change?
A. the Change Manager
B. the customer
C. the Problem Manager
D. the Service Desk

Answer: A
Explanation:
Classification - Priorities and categories are specified for RFCs. Priority specifies the level of importance and category specifies the basis of impact and resources. Only the
Change Manager can determine the category of a specific change.

An organization plans on implementing a new network operating system. Before the actual implementation takes place, the plan of approach for achieving the implementation is discussed. Under whose leadership is this discussion held?
A. the Change Manager
B. the Service Level Manager
C. the Service Manager
D. the Network Manager

Answer: A
Explanation: The goal of Change Management is to manage the process of change through standardized methods and procedures, thereby limiting incidents related to change and improving day-to-day operations. Successful Change Management results in fewer incidents being generated before the process was implemented. All changes must be approved by the change management process.

How is a change that must be made quickly called?
A. a fast change
B. a standard change
C. an urgent change
D. an unplanned change

Answer: CExplanation: Urgent Changes - A large number of urgent changes is a clear
indicator that the Change Management process is not working properly, or is being
by-passed by some support groups. Urgent Changes should be reserved for special
circumstances, such as when the only way to get a customer back up during an
Incident is to remove the root cause by performing a change. Urgent changes should
not be initiated because of incompetence, such as the change builder forgot to work
on a previously requested change.

Changes are divided into categories. What criterion defines a category for a change?
A. the consequences of the change such as limited, substantial, significant, etc.
B. the speed with which the change is made
C. the sequence in which the change is made
D. the Request for Change number that the change is assigned

Answer: A
Explanation:
Classification
- Priorities and categories are specified for RFCs. Priority specifies the level of importance and category specifies the basis of impact and resources.

When implementing a new version of an application both Change Management and Release Management are involved. What is the responsibility of the Change Management process here?
A. Change Management has the executive task in this phase.
B. Change Management plays a coordinating role in this phase.
C. Change Management must check whether the new application functions properly.
D. Change Management draws up the change request for this.

Answer: B
Explanation: A Change Manager should manage and coordinate all change processes, even if it is the Release Manager who releases (executes) the change.

What is a request to replace something within the IT infrastructure called?
A. Replacement Request
B. Request for Change
C. Request for Release
D. Service Request

Answer: B
Explanation: The goal of the Change Management process is to ensure that standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all Changes and replacements, in order to minimize the impact of Change-related Incidents upon service quality, and consequently to improve the day-to-day operations of the organisation.

In the Change Management process, which role is ultimately responsible for the
entire process?
A. Change Advisory Board
B. Change Coordinator
C. Change Manager
D. IT Manager

Answer: C
Explanation: The change manager is responsible for systematically implementing any changes, after careful consideration of known risks. The change manager also
oversees the progress of the change process. The change manager evaluates Requests for Change (RfCs) in consultation with a Change Advisory Board (CAB).

Which ITIL process is responsible for handling an application for a new workstation according to a standard working method?
A. Incident Management
B. Change Management
C. Service Desk
D. Service Level Management

Answer: B
Explanation: The goal of the Change Management process is to ensure that standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all Changes. Therefore they are also responsible for the change of the software on
the workstation.

Where is the planning of changes kept up to date?
A. the CMDB (Configuration Management Database)
B. the FSC (Forward Schedule of Changes)
C. the CAB (Change Advisory Board)
D. SIP (Service Improvement Program)

Answer: B
Explanation:
FSC - The Forward Schedule of changes (FSC) contains details of all approved changes and their proposed implementation date. PSA - The Projected Service Availability (PSA) contains details of changes to agreed SLAs and service availability because of the current FSC.

What is the term used for a fully described and approved Change that does not have to be evaluated by Change Management each time?
A. Request for Change
B. Service Request
C. Standard Change
D. Urgent Change

Answer: C
Explanation: The ITIL describes a Standard Change as "...a change to the infrastructure that follows an established path, is relatively common, and is the accepted solution to a specific requirement or set of requirements."

Which ITIL process aims to prevent incidents resulting from changes to the IT infrastructure?
A. Availability Management
B. Change Management
C. Incident Management
D. Problem Management

Answer: B
Explanation: The goal of the Change Management process is to ensure that standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all Changes and replacements, in order to minimize the impact of Change-related Incidents upon service quality, and consequently to improve the day-to-day operations of the organisation.

Which subject should be one of the standard items on the agenda of a meeting of the Change Advisory Board (CAB)?
A. reports from Service Level Management
B. the registration of Changes
C. ongoing or concluded Changes
D. the wishes of customers to implement Changes

Answer: C
Explanation: The Change Advisory Board (CAB) is a group of people who can give expert advice to the Change Management team on the implementation of Changes. This board is likely to be made up of representatives from all areas within IT and
representatives from business units as well as any external parties that are deemed necessary.

A power failure has knocked out the entire IT infrastructure. Fortunately, there is an ITSC Plan available. When should power failure be considered a disaster to enact the ITSC Plan?
A. Immediately, as the IT service can no longer be used.
B. When the Continuity Manager expects the failure to last longer than the maximum period of time mentioned in the Service Level Agreement.
C. When the Incident Manager thinks this is necessary.
D. When the time within which the failure should be solved, has exceeded.

Answer: B
Explanation: The IT Service Continuity plan should be executed as soon as it is expected that normal functionality will not be up within the time stated in SLA's to minimize damages.

Which ITIL process is responsible for analyzing risks and counter measures?
A. Capacity Management
B. IT Service Continuity Management
C. Service Desk
D. Problem Management

Answer: B
Explanation: Continuity management is the process by which plans are put in place and managed to ensure that IT Services can recover and continue should a serious incident occur. It is not just about reactive measures, but also about proactive
measures - reducing the risk of a disaster in the first instance.

Which ITIL process aims to trace business-critical services for which
supplementary emergency measures must be taken?
A. Availability Management
B. Capacity Management
C. IT Service Continuity Management
D. Problem Management

Answer: C
Explanation: IT service Continuity Management is concerned with managing an organization's ability to continue to provide a pre-determined and agreed level of IT Services to support the minimum business requirements following an interruption
to the business. Effective IT Service Continuity requires a balance of risk reduction measures such as resilient systems and recovery options including back-up facilities. Configuration Management data is required to facilitate this prevention and
planning.

Which ITIL process carries out a risk analysis on the possible threats to and vulnerabilities of the IT infrastructure?
A. Configuration Management
B. IT Service Continuity Management
C. Problem Management
D. Capacity Management

Answer: B
Explanation:
Continuity management is the process by which plans are put in place and
managed to ensure that IT Services can recover and continue should a serious
incident occur. It is not just about reactive measures, but also about proactive
measures - reducing the risk of a disaster in the first instance.

Which of the following statements about the Service Catalogue is correct?
A. It describes only those services that are also included in the Service Level Agreement
(SLA).
B. It describes all services that can be supplied by the IT management organization.
C. It is necessary in order to draw up an SLA.
D. It can be used instead of an SLA.

Answer: B
Explanation: Service Catalogue lists all of the services that IT provides to the business. This catalogue should list the services from a users perspective. Actual components required in a Service Catalogue will differ depending on the business situation.

Which aspects are described in a Service Level Agreement (SLA)?
A. the costs and expected revenue of the services offered
B. the quality, expressed in quantity and costs, of the services offered
C. the company strategy
D. the technological developments that can affect the services offered

Answer: B
Explanation:
Service Level Agreements (SLAs) - agreements between the customer and the Service Desk on the level of service provision delivered to the customer

What aspects would you not expect to see in a Service Level report designed for the
customer?
A. the average utilization level of the Service Desk
B. the level of availability realised and the time not available per period
C. the percentage of incidents that was resolved within the target
D. the successful and reverted Changes during a specific period

Answer: A
Explanation: The average utilization level of the Service Desk is not of interest to
the customer as long as the SLA is not violated and even if a too high average
utilization of the service desk could cause violations against the SLA, you still only
report the violations, not the cause of the violation.

How can an organization determine the effectiveness of the Service Level
Management process?
A. by checking contracts with suppliers
B. by measuring customer satisfaction
C. by defining service levels
D. by reporting on all incidents

Answer: B
Explanation: The customer satisfaction level is the only way to determine if the Service Level Management process is working and delivering service according to the SLA.

Which ITIL process is responsible for creating the cost agreements for extra support of the Service Desk?
A. Availability Management
B. Financial Management for IT Services
C. Incident Management
D. Service Level Management

Answer: D
Explanation:
Implementing the Service Level Management process enables both the customer and the IT services provider to have a clear understanding of the expected level of delivered services and their associated costs for the organization, by documenting
these goals into formal agreements. Service Level Management can be used as a basis for charging for services, and can demonstrate to customers the value they are receiving from the Service Desk. It also assists the Service Desk with managing external supplier relationships, and
introduces the possibility of negotiating improved services and/or reduced costs.

Users have complained about the e-mail service. An evaluation of the service has been performed.
Which activity takes place after the evaluation of a service?
A. adjusting of the service
B. monitoring of Service Levels
C. compilation of Service Level Reports
D. defining Service Levels

Answer: A

Where are activities documented with the aim of improving an IT service?
A. Service Catalogue
B. Service Improvement Program (SIP)
C. Service Level Agreement (SLA)
D. Service Quality Plan (SQP)

Answer: B
Explanation:
When the SIP is implemented, it will provide
- Improved levels of service quality and agility in response to business requirements for change
- Services that meet business, customer and user demands
- Enhanced customer satisfaction
- Increased productivity of business and Information Services staff
- Integrated centralised processes that are repeatable, consistent and self-improving
- Detailed information on the performance of Information Services against Service Level targets
- Cost justified IT infrastructure and IT services
- Consistent, high quality support services.

In the Service Level Management Process, what happens during the activity called "monitoring"?
A. identifying the needs of customers
B. guarding negotiations with the customer
C. guarding agreements with the customer
D. acquiring customers

Answer: C
Explanation: During the "monitoring" activity the Service Level Manager verifies that the service delivered is according to the SLA agreed on.

Which ITIL process verifies that the modifications which have been made to the IT infrastructure have been properly documented?
A. Availability Management
B. Configuration Management
C. Problem Management
D. Incident Management

Answer: B
Explanation: Configuration Management assists Change Management by recording which Configuration Item have been changed and controlling the status of Configuration Item throughout the entire Configuration Item lifecycle. Configuration Management ensures any changes made to Configuration Item s are recorded and kept accurate.

Information and Communication Technologies (ICT) includes both Asset Management and Configuration Management. What is the difference between Asset Management and Configuration Management?
A. Asset Management focuses exclusively on the book value and Configuration Management on the status of Configuration Items.
B. Asset Management monitors aspects such as depreciation and Configuration Management monitors aspects such as the relationships between the Configuration Items.
C. Configuration Management is a component of Asset Management, so there are no
differences between them.
D. Configuration Management makes an inventory of the Configuration Items and Asset
Management registers them.

Answer: B
Explanation: IT Asset Management is the discipline of managing finances, contracts and usage of IT assets throughout their lifecycles for the purpose of maintaining an optimal balance between business service requirements, total costs, budget
predictability, and contractual and regulatory compliance. Traditional ITAM activities include the management of inventory, software licenses, vendors, procurement, leases, warranties, cost accounting, retirement and disposal. The goal of Configuration Management is to provide a logical model of the IT infrastructure that is accessed by all ITIL processes to drive consistency among them. Activities include identifying, controlling, maintaining, and verifying the versions of
configuration items (CIs). This CI information is to be stored in a single repository - the Configuration Management Database (CMDB).

In Certkiller .com a specific component of the IT infrastructure has been modified. This could have consequences for other components. What ITIL process should be set up in order to provide good insight into these consequences?
A. Availability Management
B. Capacity Management
C. Change Management
D. Configuration Management

Answer: D
Explanation: Configuration Management is to provide a logical model of the IT infrastructure that is accessed by all ITIL processes to drive consistency among them. Activities include identifying, controlling, maintaining, and verifying the versions of configuration items (CIs).

What does the term 'detail level' mean in the context of the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?
A. the relationship between the different Configuration Items
B. the depth of the database structure
C. the quantity of stored Configuration Items
D. the location of the Configuration Item

Answer: B
Explanation: CIs should be recorded at a level of detail justified by the business need. This gives the depth of the database.

Which ITIL process includes the activity of describing and registering all components in the IT infrastructure?
A. Capacity Management
B. Configuration Management
C. Problem Management
D. Service Level Management

Answer: B
Explanation:
Configuration Management is to provide a logical model of the IT infrastructure that is accessed by all ITIL processes to drive consistency among them. Activities include identifying, controlling, maintaining, and verifying the versions of configuration items (CIs).

What is a baseline in the IT infrastructure?
A. the most important infrastructure (such as a network) to which all kinds of workstations and services can be linked
B. a document that states how the infrastructure must be dealt with in an organization
(vision)
C. a minimum value for Certkiller .com service ('must at least satisfy...')
D. a standard configuration (such as a standard workstation)

Answer: D
Explanation: A baseline is a standard configuration recorded in the CMDB that you use as a starting point when, for example, creating a solution to a problem or testing a new software in a Change process

For which of the following activities of Configuration Management are audits
regularly implemented?
A. identification
B. planning
C. status monitoring
D. verification

Answer: D
Explanation:
Configuration Management essentially consists of 4 tasks:
Identification - this is the specification, identification of all IT components and their inclusion in the CMDB.
Control - this is the management of each Configuration Item, specifying who is authorised to 'change' it.
Status - this task is the recording of the status of all Configuration Items in the CMDB, and the maintenance of this information.
Verification - this task involves reviews and audits to ensure the information contained in
the CMDB is accurate.

Which data, for a new Configuration item (CI), is recorded in the Configuration
Management Database (CMDB)?
A. the impact of the Configuration Item
B. the relationship to other Configuration Items
C. the Request for Change number for the Configuration Item
D. repairs to the Configuration Item

Answer: B
Explanation: The CMDB that contains details of the organization's elements that are used in the provision and management of its IT services. Impact, RFC's and repairs should not be recorded here. Only "what" it is, "where" it is and how it is connected to other CI's.

A number of new PCs have been installed at a company's offices.
For which of the following activities was Configuration Management responsible?
A. establishing the correct links in the Local Area Network
B. installing software
C. making available the necessary user's manuals
D. recording data regarding the PCs

Answer: D
Explanation: The CMDB that contains details of the organization's elements (such as workstations) that are used in the provision and management of its IT services

Which of the following questions can not be answered directly from the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?
A. Which Requests for Change have been submitted for a specific server?
B. Which members of staff of department X have moved to department Y?
C. What incidents or problems have there been for this PC?
D. Which Configuration Items does a specific service consist of?

Answer: B
Explanation: The CMDB holds a much wider range of information about items that the organisation's IT Services are dependant upon. This range of information includes:
- Hardware
- Software
- Documentation
- Personnel

What is the criterion used by Change Management in determining the category for a Request for Change?
A. impact
B. content
C. priority
D. urgency

Answer: A
Explanation: Priorities and categories are specified for RFCs. Priority specifies the level of importance and category specifies the basis of impact and resources.

When is a back-out plan invoked?
A. When it is found that something went wrong when building a Change.
B. When it is found that something went wrong when implementing a Change.
C. When it is found that something went wrong when scheduling resources.
D. When it is found that something went wrong when testing a Change.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Change Management is the practice of ensuring all changes to Configuration Items are carried out in a planned and authorised manner. This includes ensuring that there is a business reason behind each change, identifying the specific Configuration
Items and IT Services affected by the change, planning the change, testing the change, and having a back-out plan should the change result in an unexpected state
of the Configuration Item during the implementation

Release Management has distributed a defective Release. As a result, monthly invoicing has come to a standstill. This has very radical consequences for the business and has been reported as an incident.
According to ITIL best practices, what should happen next?
A. Problem Management will submit a Request for Change (RFC).
B. Change Management will start a Post Implementation Review (PIR).
C. Release Management will implement the back-out plan.
D. Service Level Management will start a Service Improvement Program (SIP).

Answer: C
Explanation: Every Change should have a back-out plan prior to implementation, in case the change should result in an unexpected state of the Configuration item.

What is the first activity when implementing a release?
A. designing and building a release
B. testing a release
C. compiling the release schedule
D. communicating and preparing the release

Answer: C
Policy and Planning - A document, called the Release Policy, is developed by the Release Manager and defines how and when releases are configured. Prior to planning a release, information must be gathered about various aspects of the release, such as product life cycle, description of relevant IT service and service levels, authorization for relative RFCs, etc. Planning the release involves coordination, scheduling, drawing up a communication plan, defining roles and responsibilities, constructing back-out and quality plans, and more.

The spell check module of a word-processing software package contains a number of errors. The Development department has corrected these errors in a new version.
Which process is responsible for ensuring this updated version is tested?
A. Configuration Management
B. Incident Management
C. Problem Management
D. Release Management

Answer: D
Explanation: The steps involved in the Release Management process is:
Policy and Planning - A document, called the Release Policy, is developed by the Release Manager and defines how and when releases are configured. Prior to planning a release, information must be gathered about various aspects of the release, such as product life cycle, description of relevant IT service and service levels, authorization for relative RFCs, etc. Planning the release involves coordination, scheduling, drawing up a communication plan, defining roles and responsibilities, constructing back-out and quality plans, and more.
Design, Building and Configuration - Standard and reusable procedures and documentation should be used for designing, building and configuring releases. Configuration items within the release may come from internal or external bodies. In
either case, laboratory-based development testing along with appropriate operational documentation should be prerequisites before a release is considered available for implementation.
Testing and Acceptance - Lack of testing is the most common cause for unsuccessful changes and releases. Releases should undergo functional, operational, performance and
integration testing by the appropriate personnel. Testing should include back-out plans. Acceptance should be performed for each step of the release process and be submitted to
Change Management for approval. Once approved, the release can be rolled out and the relevant configuration changes can be integrated within the CMDB (see Configuration Management).
Rollout Planning - Includes a detailed timetable of release events including staff responsibilities and action items, documentation, and purchasing plans for required
hardware and software.
Communication - Personnel, typically the Service Desk or Customer Relations, communicate the planned changes to users and the expected service impact. Training
sessions may be required to aid users with the release.
Distribution and Installation - Involves the distribution of software and supporting hardware identified and approved in the previous activities.

Which of the following is the best description of the contents of the Definitive
Software Library?
A. copies of all software versions that are needed
B. copies of all live software programs
C. authorized versions of all software used on the infrastructure
D. software awaiting user acceptance testing

Answer: C
Explanation: Release Management works with Configuration Management to ensure that the CMDB is kept up to date and that all new software releases are stored in the Definitive Software Library (DSL). All spare hardware components
and assemblies are stored within the Definitive Hardware Store (DHS).

Software is checked for viruses before it goes into the Definitive Software Library
(DSL).
What ITIL process is responsible for ensuring that only virus-free software is put
into the DSL?
A. Application Management
B. Capacity Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Release Management

Answer: D
Explanation: Only authorized software should be accepted into the DSL, strictly controlled by Change and Release Management

Which ITIL process is responsible for annually allocating the costs of Underpinning
Contracts?
A. Availability Management
B. Capacity Management
C. Financial Management for IT Services
D. Service Level Management

Answer: C
Explanation: IT Financial Management is the discipline of ensuring IT infrastructure is obtained at the most effective price (which does not necessarily mean cheapest), and calculating the cost of providing IT services so that an
organisation can understand the costs of its IT services

Which ITIL process is responsible for setting up the cost allocation system?
A. Availability Management
B. Capacity Management
C. Financial Management for IT Services
D. Service Level Management

Answer: C
Explanation: IT Financial Management is the discipline of ensuring IT infrastructure is obtained at the most effective price (which does not necessarily mean cheapest), and calculating the cost of providing IT services so that an
organisation can understand the costs of its IT services.

Which activity in the ITIL process "Financial Management for IT Services" is responsible for billing the services that were provided to the customer?
A. Accounting
B. Budgeting
C. Charging
D. Reporting

Answer: C
Explanation: Charging provides the ability to assign costs of an IT Service proportionally and fairly to the users of that service. It may be used as a first step towards an IT organization operating as an autonomous business. It may also be
used to encourage user to move in a strategically important direction - for example by subsidizing newer systems and imposing additional charges for the use of legacy
systems.

Which ITIL process provides an insight, through the Modeling activity, into trends
that could cause performance problems in the future
A. Availability Management
B. Capacity Management
C. Incident Management
D. Service Level Management

Answer: B
Explanation: Capacity Management supports the optimum and cost effective provision of IT services by helping organizations match their IT resources to the business demands. The high level activities are: Application Sizing, Workload Management, Demand Management, Modeling, Capacity Planning, Resource
Management, and Performance Management.

Which ITIL process has responsibility in preventing unauthorized access to data?
A. Availability Management
B. IT Service Continuity Management
C. Release Management
D. Security Management

Answer: D
Explanation: A basic concept of the Security Management is the information security. The primary goal of information security is to guarantee safety of the information. Safety is to be protected against risks. Security is the means to be safe
against risks. When protecting information it is the value of the information that has to be protected. These values are stipulated by the confidentiality, integrity and availability

Where are agreements regarding Security Management recorded?
A. in a Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
B. in a Service Level Agreement (SLA)
C. in a Definitive Software Library (DSL)
D. in a Capacity Plan

Answer: B
Explanation: The goal of the Security Management is split up in two parts:
1. The realization of the security requirements defined in the Service Level Agreement (SLA) and other external requirements which are specified in underpinning contracts,
legislation and possible internal or external imposed policies.
2. The realization of a basic level of security. This is necessary to guarantee the continuity of the management organization. This is also necessary in order to reach a
simplified Service Level Management for the information security, as it happens to be easier to manage a limited number of SLAs as it is to manage a large number of SLAs.

Which ITIL process handles the implementation of the policy for access management and access to information systems?
A. Availability Management
B. Incident Management
C. Release Management
D. Security Management

Answer: D
Explanation: The first activity in the Security Management Process is the "Control" sub-process. The Control sub-process organizes and manages the security Management process itself. The Control sub-process defines the processes, the allocation of responsibility the policy statements and the management framework.

Which ITIL process ensures that the information that has been made available satisfies the specified information security requirements?
A. Availability Management
B. IT Service Continuity Management
C. Security Management
D. Service Level Management

Answer: C
Explanation: A basic concept of Security Management is the information security. The primary goal of information security is to guarantee safety of information

Which of the following describes the basic concept of Integrity in the Security
Management process?
A. the capacity to verify the correctness of the data
B. the correctness of the data
C. protection of the data against unauthorized access and use
D. access to the data at any moment

Answer: B
Explanation: Integrity- Safeguarding the accuracy and completeness of information

Security Management includes a number of sub-processes. Which activity of Security Management leads to a security sub-clause in the Service
Level Agreement (SLA)?
A. Implement
B. Maintenance
C. Plan
D. Control

Answer: C
Explanation:
The Plan sub-process contains activities that in cooperation with the Service Level Management lead to the (information) Security section in the SLA. Furthermore, the Plan sub-process contains activities that are related to the underpinning
contracts which are specific for (information) security.

Which of the following benefits would be LEAST useful in supporting a business case for service improvement?
A Reduced technology investment by 20% due to more accurate capacity and performance modeling processes
B Reduced support manpower demand by 30% due to automated incident and problem management processes
c Reduced level of customer complaints due to more effective
Service Level Management
D Reduced Problem resolution time by half due to improved knowledge management

C.
CSI discusses how Intangible or soft benefits that do not have direct financial or other measurable benefits are difficult to use in business cases: When used in Business Cases, soft benefits (intangibles) are I T investment payoff areas not expressed in monetary ways. Traditionally, one of the most difficult business Case problems is quantifying soft benefits such as increased brand image and customer satisfaction. When hard numbers are available to support an ROI argument, it may seem easier to leave the soft benefits out altogether.

If something cannot be measured, it should not be
documented is a principle that applies to which of the
following?
A The Glossary of Terms
B. the service level agreement (SLA)
C An Incident Management record
D A Configuration Item (CI)

Every organization may find that they have limitations on what can actually be measured. If you cannot measure something then it should not appear in an SLA.

Question 5
Which of the following is step 1 in the 7 Step
Improvement Process?
A Prepare for action
B Define what you should measure
C Where are we now?
D identify gaps in the SLA achievement

These are the 7 steps:
B
1. Define what you should measure
2. Define what you can measure
3. Gathering the data
4. Processing the data
5. Analyzing the data
6. Presenting and using the information
7. Implementing corrective action

Question 10
Which is the first activity of the Continual Service
Improvement (CSI) model?
A Assess the current business situation
B Understand the vision of the business
C Agree on priorities for improvemen
D Create and verify a plan

The first activity of the Continual Service Improvement
(CSI) model is to embrace the vision by understanding
the high-level business objectives. The vision should
align the business and I T strategies

The 7 Step Improvement Process can most accurately be described as?
A The Seven P's of Continual Service Improvement (CSI)
B a service improvement methodology based on the deming cycle
C A set of roles and responsibilities for managing service improvements
D A process for defining what is to be measured, gathering the data, processing the data and using it to take corrective action

D

22.
Which of the following roles may be involved in the
Continual Service Improvement process? 1. The
Continual Service Improvement Manager 2. The
customer 3. The Service Manager 4. The Process
Owners

A 1 only
B 1 and 3 only
C 1, 3, and 4 only
D All of the above

D

Not only all the internal roles in the Service Provider organization but also the customers should be involved in Continual serviced Improvement. Service Manager, Service Owner, Service Level Manager, CSI Manager, Process Owner, process managers, customers, business/I T analysts and senior I T managers. Service Manager, Service Owner, Process Owner, process managers, internal and external
providers are some of the roles responsible for identifying opportunities for improvement.

Question 28
Why should monitoring and measuring be used when trying to improve services?
A. To validate, direct, justify and intervene.
B. To validate, measure, monitor and change.
C . To validate, plan, act and improve.
D. To validate, assign resources, purchase technology and train
people.

Basically, there are four reasons to monitor and measure:
A

To validate monitoring and measuring to validate previous decisions.
To direct monitoring and measuring to set direction for activities in order to meet set targets. It is the most prevalent reason for monitoring and measuring.
To justify monitoring and measuring to justify, with factual evidence or proof, that a course of action is required.
To intervene monitoring and measuring to identify a point of intervention including subsequent changes
and corrective actions

Question 30
The Service Portfolio is the single integrated source of information on the status, interfaces and dependencies of each service used by activities within the following stages in the Service Lifecycle: 1. Service Strategy 2. Service Transition 3. Service Design 4. Service Operation
[a 1 only
[b 1 and 2 only
[c 1, 2, and 3 only
D All of the above

D

The connection point between each of the core volumes is the service portfolio. It is the spine which connects the lifecycle stages to each other

Question 31
Which of the following statements is the CORRECT
description of the ACT stage in the Deming Cycle for
quality improvement?
A At this stage goals and measures are established
B at this stage the implemented improvements are compared to the measures of success
c At this stage it is determined to keep the status quo, close the gap or add necessary resources
D At this stage a project to close identified gaps is developed and implemented

D

The 'Act' stage requires implementing the actual service and service management process improvements. A decision to keep the status quo, close the gap or add necessary resources needs to be made to determine if further work is required to close remaining gaps and to allocate resources necessary to support another round of improvement. Project decisions at this stage are the input for the next round
of the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle, closing the loop as input to the next Plan stage

Question 34
Performance Management is part of which process?
A Availability Management
B Capacity Management
C I T Service Continuity Management
D Service Level Management

B

Performance Management is the Process responsible
for day-to-day Capacity Management Activities. These
include monitoring, threshold detection, Performance
analysis and Tuning, and implementing changes
related to Performance and capacity

step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model?

The correct steps are:
What is the vision?
Where are we now?
Where do we want to be?
How do we get there?
Did we get there?
How do we keep the momentum going?

Question 14
Which of the following should be done when closing
an Incident? 1: Check the Incident categorization and
correct it if necessary 2: Decide whether a Problem
needs to be logged

A 1 only
B Both of the above B
C 2 only
D none of the above

D

The Service Desk should check that the incident is
fully resolved and that the users are satisfied and
willing to agree the incident can be closed. The
Service Desk should also check the following:
_ Closure categorization
_ User satisfaction survey
_ Incident documentation
_ Ongoing or recurring problem?
_Formal closure

Question 15
I T Operations Management have been asked by a
customer to carry out a non-standard activity, that will
cause them to miss an agreed service level target.
How should they respond?
A
Refuse the request because they must operate the service to meet
the agreed service levels
B
Make a decision based on balancing stability and
responsiveness B
c
Accept the request as they must support customer business
outcomes
D they escalate this decision to service strategy.

D.
No matter how good the functionality is of an I T
service and no matter how well it has been designed,
it will be worth far less if the service components are
not available or if they perform inconsistently. This
means that Service Operation needs to ensure that
the I T Infrastructure is stable and available as
designed. At the same time, Service Operation needs to recognize that business and I T requirements change.

Question 17
Which of the following statements is CORRECT? An
Event could be caused by: 1: An exception to normal
operation, such as a device exceeding a threshold or an unauthorized Configuration Item (CI) being
detected on the network 2: Normal operation, such as a user logging into an application or an email reaching its intended recipient

[a 2 only
[b 1 only
[c Both of the above
D Neither of the above

There are many different types of events, for example:
C.
_ Events that signify regular operation such as notification that a scheduled workload has completed
_ Events that signify an exception such as a user attempts to log on to an application with the incorrect password
_ Events that signify unusual, but not exceptional, operation. These are an indication that the situation
may require closer monitoring.

Which of the following BEST describes when a Known Error record should be raised?

A. Known Error should not be raised until a temporary resolution or workaround has been found
B A Known Error should be raised at any time that it would be useful to do so
c As soon as it becomes obvious that a quick resolution of the Problem will not be found
D Immediately following the Problem resolution, so a permanent historical record of all actions is retained in case of a recurrence

B

In some cases it may be advantageous to raise a Known Error Record even earlier in the overall process just for information purposes, for example even though the diagnosis may not be complete or a workaround found, so it is inadvisable to set a concrete procedural point exactly when a Known Error
Record must be raised. It should be done as soon as it becomes useful to do so.

Question 37
Which of the following is NOT an example of a Service Request?
A A user calls the Service Desk to order a toner cartridge
B A user calls the Service Desk because they would like to change the functionality of an application
c A Manager submits a request for a new employee to be given access to an application
D A user logs onto an internal web site to download a licensed copy of software from a list of approved options

D
The term Service Request is used as a generic description for many varying types of demands that are placed upon the I T Department by the users.

Many of these are actually small changes low risk, frequently occurring, low cost, etc. (e.g. a request to
change a password, a request to install an additional software application onto a particular workstation, a request to relocate some items of desktop equipment) or maybe just a question requesting information

Operations Control refers to?
A. The managers of the Technical and Applications Management
functions
B. Overseeing the execution and monitoring of I T operational
events and activities
c. The tools used to monitor and display the status of the I T
Infrastructure and Applications
D. The situation where the Service Desk is required to monitor the
status of the infrastructure when Operators are not available

Operations Control oversees the execution and monitoring of the operational activities and events in the I T Infrastructure. This can be done with the assistance of an Operations Bridge or Network Operations Centre.

Which of the following is NOT an activity that I T
Operations Management is responsible for?
A Console management
B Management of facilities
c output management
D maintenance of a stable technical infrastructure

D
The role of Operations Management is to execute the
ongoing activities and procedures required to manage
and maintain the I T Infrastructure so as to deliver and
support I T Services at the agreed levels. It is responsible for Operations Control, Console Management, Job Scheduling, Backup and Restore, Print and Output management, maintenance activities, Facilities Management. Maintenance of a stable technical infrastructure is the responsibility of
Technical Management.

What is the best description of an incident?
A. Any event that deviates or may cause a deviation from the (expected) standard working of an I T service.
B x any report from a user to the service desk as long as it is I T related.
C Any situation in which the Management takes measures to improve the service.
D. Any contact a user or technician makes with the service desk.

In ITIL terminology, an incident is defined as: An unplanned interruption to an I T service or reduction in the quality of an I T service. Failure of a configuration item that has not yet impacted service is also an incident, for example failure of one disk from a mirror set.

A customer rings the Service Desk to report that the
expected output has not appeared on the monitor.
When is the priority of this incident decided for the
first time?
A When the Service Desk logs the incident .
B When the solution is known and can be implemented
C. When the reason why the output has not appeared is investigated.
D When the user is contacted for the second time

An important aspect of initial logging of every incident is to agree and allocate an appropriate prioritization code as this will determine how the incident is handled both by support tools and support staff.

Only one of the following statements is FULLY
correct. Which one?
* Capacity plans answer specific questions, such as the best way to
^ improve performance for a particular user.
B Capacity plans propose solutions to performance problems.
C Capacity plans show when future enhancements will be
required and give an indication of how much they will cost.xx
D
Capacity plans collect information about how heavily
devices are use

The Capacity Plan might typically cover:
_ Current performance and utilization details, with
recent trends for all key CIs
_ Estimated performance and utilization for all such
CIs during the planning period (e.g. the next three
months)
_ Comparative data with previous estimates to allow
confidence in future estimates to be judged
_ Reports on any specific capacity difficulties
encountered in the past period, with details of
recovery and preventive actions taken for the future
_ Details of any required upgrades or procurements
needed and planned for the future, with indicative
costs and timescales.
_ Any potential capacity risks that are likely with
suggested countermeasures should they arise.

Assume that I T Operations is separated from
Technical and Application Management. Which of the
following roles does Technical an Application
Management normally NOT play in the Event
Management process?
A Participating in the instrumentation of the services
B Testing the services to ensure that Events are properly generated
C Ensuring that any auto responses are defined
D. Monitoring Events

D

Where I T Operations is separated from Technical or Application Management, it is common for Event Monitoring and first-line response to be delegated to
I T Operations Management.

Which of the following goals are the primary goals for
Service Operations? 1. To allow for changes and
improvements 2. To design processes for the
operation of I T services 3. To achieve effectiveness
and efficiency in the delivery and support of services
4. To maintain stability
[a. 3 only.
[b. 3 and 4 only.
[c. 1, 3, and 4 only.
[d. All of the above.

The purpose of Service Operation is to coordinate and
carry out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users and customers. The primary goals are to allow for changes and improvements, to achieve effectiveness and efficiency in the delivery and support of services and to maintain stability.

Technology can be used for an integrated ITSM and
that includes the following core functionality:
Self-Help
Workflow or process engine
Integrated CMS
Discovery/Deployment/Licensing Technology
Remote control
Diagnostic utilities
Reporting
Dashboards
Integration with Business Service Management

Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help
capabilities?

A Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests
B Menu-driven range of self help and service requests
C Web front-end
A direct interface into the back end process handling software

A

any organizations find it beneficial to offer Self-Help
capabilities to their users. The technology should
therefore support this capability with some form of
web front-end allowing web pages to be defined
offering a menu-driven range of Self-Help and Service
Requests with a direct interface into the back-end
process handling software.

Question 56

Which of the following functions would be responsible
for management of a data centre?
A Technical Management
B Service Desk
C I T operations control
D facilities management

Facilities Management refers to the management of the physical environment of I T Operations, usually located in Data Centers or computer rooms. Involvement in Contract Management of the various
suppliers and service providers involved in the facility is one of the components of Facilities Management.

Question 38
Which of the following statements is CORRECT? An Event could be caused by: 1: An exception to normal operation, such as a device exceeding a threshold or an unauthorized Configuration Item (CI) being
detected on the network 2: Normal operation, such as
a user logging into an application or an email reaching
its intended recipient
A 2 only
B 1 only
C Both of the above
D Neither of the above

Question 38
Which of the following statements is CORRECT? An Event could be caused by: 1: An exception to normal operation, such as a device exceeding a threshold or an unauthorized Configuration Item (CI) being
detected on the network 2: Normal operation, such as
a user logging into an application or an email reaching
its intended recipient
A 2 only
B 1 only
C Both of the above
D Neither of the above

Question 30
Assume that I T Operations is separated from Technical and Application Management. Which of the
following roles does Technical and Application Management normally NOT play in the Event Management process?
A Participating in the instrumentation of the services
B Testing the services to ensure that Events are properly generated
C Ensuring that any auto responses are defined
D Monitoring Events

Where I T Operations is separated from Technical or
Application Management, it is common for Event Monitoring and first-line response to be delegated to I T Operations Management.

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