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E

1. The reticuloendothelial system
A. is a support network of connective tissue fibers.
B. originates in the cellular basal lamina.
C. provides a passageway within and between tissues and organs.
D. is heavily populated with macrophages.
E. All of the choices are correct.

D

2. The primary, natural habitat of a pathogen where it continues to exist is called the A. fomite.

B. carrier.
C. vector.
D. reservoir.
E. source.

D

3. The more a sample can be diluted and yet still react with antigen, the______ the
concentration of antibodies in that sample and the_______Is its titer.
A. lower, lower
B. higher, lower
C. lower, higher
D. higher, higher

B

4. Which of the following antimicrobials is contraindicated for children due to permanent tooth
discoloration?
A. Penicillin G
B. Tetraclycline
C. Gentamicin
D. Vancomycin
E. Erythromycin

A

9. Disinfection of beverages, such as apple juice, milk, and wine, is optimally achieved by:
A. pasteurization.
B. chlorination.
C. moist heat autoclave.
D. filtration.
E. boiling water.

C

10. Which is correct regarding the rate of microbial death?
A. cells die at increasingly greater rates
B. only older cells die in a culture
C. cells in a culture die at a constant rate
D. upon contact with the control agent, all cells die at one time
E. cells become metabolically inactive but are never killed

B

11. These white blood cells are particularly attracted to sites of parasitic infections. They are known as
A. monocytes.
B. eosinphils.
C. basophils.
D. neutrophils.
E. lymphocytes.

C

12. The chemical mediator that causes prolonged bronchospasm, vascular permeability, and mucus secretion of asthmatic patients is
A. prostaglandin.
B. histamine.
C. leukotriene.
D. serotonin.
E. platelet-activating factor.

C

18. Antibiotics are derived from all the following except
A. Penicillium.
B. Bacillus.
C. Staphylococcus.
D. Streptomyces.
E. Cephalosporium.

E

19. All of the following are methods to diagnose viral infections, except:
A. detection of viral nucleic acid using specific probes.
B. Western blot.
C. cells taken from patient are examined for evidence of viral infection.
D. signs and symptoms.
E. the light microscope

C

20. Which of these drugs is useful in treating infections by methicillin-resistant S. aureus and vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus?
A. tetracycline
B. isoniazid
C. linezolid
D. aminoglycosides
E. cephalosporins

D

21. Which test uses radioactive isotopes to label antibodies or antigens in order to detect minute amounts of corresponding antigen or antibody?
A. Ouchterlony double diffusion
B. Western blot
C. immunelectrophoresis
D. radioimmunoassay (RIA)
E. the Quellung test

E

26. Serotyping of the pneumococcus based on capsular polysaccharide is performed in:
A. Ouchterlony double diffusion.
B. Western blot.
C. immunelectrophoresis.
D. radioimmunoassay (RIA).
E. the Quellung test

B

27. If the ID for gonorrhea is 1,000 cells and the ID for tuberculosis is 10 cells, which organism is more virulent?
A. Neisseria gonorrhea
B. Mycobactenum tuberculosis
C. They are equally virulent
D. It is impossible to determine

C

28. The number of new cases of a disease in a population over a specific period of time compared with the healthy population is the
A. mortality rate.
B. morbidity rate.
C. incidence rate.
D. prevalence rate.
E. epidemic rate.

B

29. Live, attenuated vaccines
A. include the Sabin polio vaccine.
B. include the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine (MMR).
C. contain viable microbes that can multiply in the person.
D. require smaller doses and fewer boosters compared to inactivated vaccines.
E. All of the choices are correct

B

34. When grafted tissue such as bone marrow contains passenger lymphocytes, what could result?
A. Host rej ection of graft
B. Graft versus host disease
C. Formation of autoantibodies
D. Hypogarnmaglobulinemia
E. None of the choices are correct

D

35. Which cells play the greatest role in allergic symptoms?
A. T cells
B. monocytes
C. plasma cells
D. mast cells
E. eosinophils

D

36. Immune sera is produced in horses for all the following except
A. diphtheria.
B. botulism.
C. snakebites.
D. chickenpox.
E. spider bites.

B

37. Virulence factors include all the following, except
A. capsules.
B. ribosomes.
C. exoenzymes.
D. endotoxin.
E. exotoxin.

A

43. Which event is the process of releasing chemical mediators?
A. Degranulation
B. Binding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils
C. Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils
D. Histamine acts on smooth muscle
E. Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability

B

44. Commercial products containing which chemicals are more effective at killing
microorganisms?
A. bacteriostatic
B. bacteriocidal
C. carbohydrate
D. lead
E. None of these are correct

B

45. Treatment for agammaglobulinemia is
A. frequent transfusions of Rh+ blood.
B. passive immunotherapy and continuous antibiotic therapy.
C. bone marrow transplant.
D. allografts of skin.
E. continuous immunosuppressive therapy.

A

46. The sterilizing gas used in a special chamber is:
A. ethylene oxide.
B. iodophor.
C. glutaraldehyde.
D. formaldehyde.
E. chlorine dioxide.

B

47. When macrophages migrate to the skin and remain there, they are called ____cells.
A. Alveolar
B. Langerhans
C. GALT
D. Kupffer

C

53. The use of chemical agents directly on exposed body surfaces to destroy or inhibit vegetative pathogens is:
A. disinfection.
B. sterilization.
C. antisepsis.
D. sanitization.
E. degermation

E

54. Diapedesis is the
A. loss of blood due to hemorrhaging.
B. production of only red blood cells.
C. production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets.
D. plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding.
E. migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues

A

55. Which structures are found along lymphatic vessels but are heavily clustered in the armpit, groin, and neck?
A. Lymph nodes
B. Thymus
C. spleen
D. GALT
E. Tonsils

D

56. Which test is used to measure the IgE present in allergic patients?
A. fluorescent antibody tests
B. Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) test
C. Weil-Felix reaction
D. RIST
E. ELISA

E

61. When antiserum is subjected to electrophoresis, the gamma globulin band contains mostly
A. IgM.
B. IgA.
C. IgD..
D. IgE.
E. IgG.

C

62. Which of the following is officially accepted as a sterilant and high-level disinfectant?
A. benzalkonium chloride
B. silver nitrate
C. glutaraldehyde
D. triclosan
E. cresol

B

63. All of the following are characteristics of an effective vaccine except
A. it should have a relatively long shelf life.
B. it should stimulate only the antibody (B-cell) response.
C. it should protect against wild forms of the pathogen.
D. it should not require numerous boosters.
E. it should be easy to administer.

D

64. Why has the United States and Europe banned the use of human drugs in animal feeds?
A. Because it makes the animals grow too large.
B. Because it causes infections in the cows and poultry fed them.
C. Because it raises the price of the meat too high.
D. Because it contributes to the growing drug resistance problem.
E. All of the choices are correct.

D

65. All of the following could be reasons why antimicrobic treatment fails except
A. the inability of the drug to diffuse into the infected body compartment.
B. a mixed infection where some of the pathogens are drug resistant.
C. not completing the full course of treatment.
D. a disk diffusion test showing pathogen sensitivity to the antimicrobic.
E. diminished gastrointestinal absorption due to an underlying condition or age.

A

70. Some diseases can be vertically transmitted. This is understood to mean the disease is transmitted
A. from parent to offspring via milk, ovum, sperm, or placenta.
B. from parent to offspring via respiratory route.
C. by contact between siblings.
D. between people living or working in the same building.
E. between higher and lower animals.
.

C

71. Which is mismatched?
A. Fimbriae - adherence to substrate
B. Capsules - antiphagocytic factor
C. Coagulase - dissolve fibrin clots
D. Leukocidins - damage white blood cells
E. Hemolysins - damage red blood cells

C

72. Herceptin is an example of a monoclonal antibody-based drug for
A. asthma.
B. Chron's disease.
C. breast cancer.
D. respiratory syncytial virus.
E. All of the choices are correct

E

73. Vaccinia virus is often used in the technique to make
A. adjuvant.
B. booster.
C. antibodies to toxin.
D. gamma globulin.
E. "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine

C

74. In the secondary response to an antigen, the predominant antibody is
A. IgD.
B. IgE.
C. IgG.
D. IgM.
E. IgA.

C

80. When would Koch's Postulates be utilized?
A. To determine the cause of a patient's illness in a hospital microbiology lab.
B. To develop a new antibiotic in a pharmaceutical lab.
C. To determine the cause of a new disease in a microbiology research lab.
D. To formulate a vaccine against a new pathogen in a genetic engineering lab.
E. Whenever the scientific method is used to investigate a microbiological problem.

C

81. The most numerous WBCs, that have multilobed nuclei and are very phagocytic are
A. basophils.
B. eosinophils.
C. neutrophils.
D. monocytes.
E. lymphocytes.

C

82. All of the following pertain to fluoroquinolones except
A. broad spectrum.
B. include ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin.
C. are nephrotoxic.
D. used to treat respiratory, urinary, and sexually transmitted infections.
E. they work by inhibiting bacterial DNA replication

D

83. Which is mismatched
A. interferon alpha and beta - inhibits viral replication
B. interleukin-2 - stimulate T cell mitosis and B cell antibody production
C. serotonin - causes smooth muscle contraction
D. prostaglandins - activate eosinophils and B cells
E. tumor necrosis factor - increases chemotaxis and phagocytosis

C

84. An animal, such as an arthropod, that transmits a pathogen from one host to another is a
A. fomite.
B. carrier.
C. vector.
D. reservoir.
E. source.

A

90. Which of the following does not contain a heavy metal?
A. tincture of iodine
B. Merthiolate
C. silver nitrate solutions
D. zinc
E. Mercurochrome

B

91. In direct antigen testing, the reaction is generally seen with the:
A. electron microscope.
B. naked eye.
.
C. light microscope.
D. API 20E miniature identification system.
E. PCR reaction.

C

92. Bee sting venom is considered to be which type of allergen?
A. Ingestant
B. Inhalant
C. Injectant
D. Contactant
E. None of the choices are correct

D

93. The circulating substances that affect the hypothalamus and initiate fever are
A. complement.
B. interferons.
C. leukotrienes.
D. pyrogens.
E. lysozymes.

E

94. All the following are correct about detergents, except:
A. they are polar molecules that act as surfactants.
B. the most effective ones are positively charged.
C. in low concentrations they are bacteriostatic.
D. they are ineffective against the tuberculosis bacteria.
E. they are active in the presence of organic matter

B

5. Which of the following is being used to replace hypochlorites in treating water because of
the possibility of cancer-causing substances being produced?
A. hydrogen peroxide
B. chloramines
C. fluorine
D. quaternary ammonium compounds
E. sodium iodide

D

6. The clearance of pus, cellular debris, dead neutrophils, and damaged tissue after inflammation is performed by
A. basophils.
B. eosinophils.
C. neutrophils.
D. macrophages.
E. complement.

B

7. Joe cut his finger on a sharp twig and now is experiencing dolor. This means
A. redness.
B. pain.
C. loss of function.
D. warmth.
E. swelling

D

8. Plasma cells
A. function in cell-mediated immunity.
B. are derived from T-lymphocytes.
C. function in blood clotting.
D. produce and secrete antibodies.
E. All of the choices are correct.

C

13. The DiGeorge syndrome is the result of
A. autoantibodies.
B. delayed hypersensitivity.
C. congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland.
D. failure of B cell development and maturity.
E. a genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells

A

14. All of the following pertain to platelets, except
A. they contain hemoglobin to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide.
B. they are also called thrombocytes.
C. they originate from giant multinucleate cells called megakaryocytes.
D. they function in blood clotting and inflammation.
E. they are not whole cells but are pieces of cells

A

15. Nosocomial infections involve all the following, except
A. they are only transmitted by medical personnel.
B. they often involve the patient's urinary tract and surgical incisions.
C. the patient's resident flora can be the infectious agent.
D. Escherichia coli and staphylococci are common infectious agents.
E. medical and surgical asepsis help lower their occurrence

A

16. This body region is protected by fatty acids, acidic pH, lactic acid, and a tough cell barrier with its own normal flora
A. skin.
B. respiratory tract.
C. digestive tract.
D. urinary tract.
E. eyes.

C

17. The multidrug resistant pumps in many bacterial cell membranes cause
A. bacterial chromosomal mutations.
B. synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure.
C. prevention of drug entry into the cell.
D. alteration of drug receptors on cell targets.
E. All of the choices are correct.

B

22. Which of the following is mismatched?
A. Ingestant - nuts
B. Inhalant - bee
C. Injectant - vaccine
D. Contactant - rubber
E. Ingestant - food additive

C

23. All of the following are correct about the indirect ELISA, except:
A. it can detect antibodies in a serum sample.
B. it is the common screening test for antibodies to Helicobacter.
C. color development indicates that antibody was not present in the patient's serum.
D. it is the common screening test for antibodies to hepatitis A.
E. a known antigen is adsorbed to the surface of a well.

D

24. The physician orders an antistreptolysin O (ASO) titer test to check for rheumatic fever. A patient serum sample is exposed to known suspensions of streptolysin and then allowed to incubate with RBCs? If the patient does have rheumatic fever, what will happen?
A. Not enough information is provided to speculate.
B. The red blood cells will lyse.
C. The red blood cells will agglutinate only.
D. The red blood cells will not lyse.
E. The red blood cells will fluoresce.

E

25. Severe combined immunodeficiencies (SGIDs) are due to
A. autoantibodies.
B. delayed hypersensitivity.
C. congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland.
D. failure of B cell development and maturity.
E. a genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells.

D

30. The process of using a cleansing technique to mechanically remove and reduce microorganisms and debris to safe levels is:
A. disinfection.
B. sterilization.
C. antisepsis.
D. sanitization.
E. degermation.

B

31. What is the Arthus reaction?
A. An autoimmune disorder.
B. An acute response to a second injection of vaccines at the same site.
C. A positive tuberculosis skin test.
D. The lysis of RBC due to complement during an incorrect blood transfusion.
E. The name given to skin wheals that occur during an allergy skin test.

D

32. What does Vancomycin target?
A. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
B. Clostridium difficile
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Both A & B are correct choices

C

33. When serum proteins are separated by electrophoresis and then antibodies specific for the serum proteins are placed in a parallel trough in order to form reaction arcs for each protein, the test is called:
A. Ouchterlony double diffusion.
B. Western blot.
C. immunelectrophoresis.
D. radioimmunoassay (RIA).
E. the Quellung test.

A

38. Which organ is responsible for metabolizing and detoxifying foreign chemicals in the blood, including drugs?
A. Liver
B. Kidneys
C. Gallbladder
D. Spleen
E. Stomach

A

39. Dry heat:
A. is less efficient than moist heat.
B. cannot sterilize.
C. includes tyndallization.
D. is used in devices called autoclaves.
E. will sterilize at 121° C for 15 minutes.

D

40. An example of natural passive immunity would be
A. chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity.
B. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
C. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
D. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
E. None of the choices are correct.

D

41. Specificity and memory are associated with which body defense mechanism?
A. Inflammatory response
B. Phagocytosis by macrophages and neutrophils
C. Interferon
D. T cell and B cell responses
E. Anatomical barriers in the body

B

42. Antivirals that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat
A. influenza A virus.
B. HIV.
C. herpes zoster virus.
D. respiratory syncytial virus.
E. hepatitis C virus.

B

48. All of the following are correct about Type O blood, except
A. persons with this type of blood are considered universal donors.
B. persons with this type of blood carry an O antigen on their RBC.
C. persons with this type of blood have anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their plasma.
D. this is the most common blood type among all racial groups in the U.S.

B

49. Sam works in construction and stepped on a sharp nail. He can't remember the last time he
had a tetanus shot. What type of immunity is the most important for him to receive?
A. Natural active immunity
B. Artificial passive immunity
C. Natural passive immunity
D. Artificial active immunity
E. None of the choices will help him

A

50. Ampicillin, amoxicillin, mezlocillin, and penicillin G all have
A. a beta-lactam ring.
B. resistance to the action of penicillinase.
C. a semisynthetic nature.
D. an expanded spectrum of activity.
E. All of the choices are correct.

E

51. Which of the following items are typically irradiated in order to kill microbes?
A. ground beef and other meat and poultry
B. human tissues such as heart valves and skin
C. operating room air
D. surgical gloves
E. All of the choices are correct

E

52. All of the following are signs of infectious diseases, except
A. fever.
B. leucopenia.
C. swollen lymph nodes.
D. antibodies in serum.
E. nausea.

E

57. The property of a test to detect even small amounts of antibodies or antigens that are test targets is:

A. cross-reactions.
B. agglutination.
C. precipitation.
D. specificity.
E. sensitivity.

A

58. The minimum sterilizing conditions in a steam autoclave are:
A. 121 ° C at 15 psi for 15 minutes.
B. 63° C for 30 minutes.
C. 160° C for 2 hours.
D. 71.6° C for 15 seconds.
E. 100° C for 30 minutes.

B

59. All of the following are correct about iodophors, except:
A. they are complexes of iodine and a neutral polymer.
B. this formulation allows a quick release of free iodine.
C. this formulation increases its penetration.
D. it is less prone to staining or irritating tissue.
E. a common iodophor is Betadine.

C

60. Which sequence of events is correct for a specific immune response?
A. Lymphocyte development, presentation of antigens, antibody production, challenge of B
cells.
B. Lymphocyte development, challenge of B cells, antibody production, presentation of
antigens.
C. Lymphocyte development, presentation of antigens, B cell challenge, antibody production.
D. Antibody production, lymphocyte production, B cell challenge, presentation of antigens

B

66. The body region where a ciliary escalator helps to sweep microbes trapped in mucus away from that body site is the
A. skin.
B. respiratory tract.
C. digestive tract.
D. urinary tract.
E. eyes.

E

67. A ratio of the dose of the drug that is toxic to humans versus the minimum effective dose for that pathogen is assessed to predict the potential for toxic drug reactions. This is called the
A. Kirby-Bauer.
B. antibiogram.
C. E-test.
D. MIC.
E. therapeutic index (TI).

A

68. Which control method would not be a suitable choice for killing Mycobacteria in a capped culture tube?
A. ultraviolet (germicidal) light
B. gamma rays
C. 121° Cat 15 psi for 15 minutes
D. 160° C for 2 hours
E. All of the choices are correct.

A

69. When a disease occurs occasionally at irregular intervals and random locales, it is referred to as
A. sporadic.
B. pandemic.
C. endemic.
D. epidemic.
E. chronic.

C

75. Which portal of entry is the most commonly used by pathogens?
A. urogenital
B. gastrointestinal
C. respiratory
D. skin
E. They are all equally used as portals

A

76. Which antimicrobic does not inhibit cell wall synthesis?
A. gentamicin
B. vancomycin
C. cephalosporins
D. penicillins
E. clavamox

D

77. Which is incorrect about DiGeorge syndrome?
A. It is a severe deficiency of T cells.
B. Sometimes, it is associated with a deletion in chromosome 22.
C. Common childhood diseases can be fatal in affected children.
D. The major therapy is a bone marrow transplant.
E. Symptoms include reduced growth and unusual facial characteristics.

A

78. Which genus is resident flora of the mouth, large intestine, and, from puberty to menopause, the vagina?
A. Lactobacillus
B. Streptococcus
C. Haemophilus
D. Escherichia
E. Mycobacterium

E

79. Which of these metals have antimicrobial properties associated with them?
A. Silver
B. Gold
C. Tin
D. Aluminum
E. Both A and B are correct.

B

85. The easiest microbial forms to kill or inhibit are:
A. naked viruses.
B. vegetative bacteria and fungi.
C. endospores.
D. protozoan cysts.
E. Mycobacteria and Staphylococci

B

86. Whole antigens are detected in which type of test?
A. cross-reactions
B. agglutination
C. precipitation
D. specificity
E. sensitivity

A

87. Maria was scratched on her arm by her cat and the site is experiencing rubor. This means
A. redness.
B. pain.
C. loss of function.
D. warmth.
E. swelling.

E

88. All of the following are examples of autoimmune diseases, except
A. multiple sclerosis.
B. Graves disease.
C. Hashimoto thyroiditis.
D. myasthenia gravis.
E. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

A

89. The heart of a baboon transplanted to a human would be a
A. xenograft.
B. autograft.
C. allograft.
D. heterograft.
E. homograft

E

95. This drug is used to treat cases of tuberculosis
A. penicillin G.
B. vancomycin.
C. aminoglycosides.
D. synercid.
E. isoniazid.

B

96. Sulfonamides
A. interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan.
B. are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis.
C. attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis.
D. damage cell membranes.
E. block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules

B

97. Which test is the confirming test for people who initially tested antibody-positive in the screening ELISA test?
A. Ouchterlony double diffusion
B. Western blot
C. immunelectrophoresis
D. radioimmunoassay (RIA)
E. the Quellung test

C

98. The immunoglobulin/s found on the surface of B cells is/are
A. IgM only.
B. IgG only.
C. IgD only.
D. IgM and lgG.
E. IgE and lgA.

E

99. Microbial hyaluronidase, coagulase, and streptokinase are examples of
A. adhesive factors.
B. exotoxins.
C. hemolysins.
D. antiphagocytic factors.
E. exoenzymes.

A

100. Which of the following is an example of GALT?
A. Appendix
B. Lymph nodes
C. Spleen
D. Tonsils
E. Thymus gland

B

101. Salvarsan was
A. discovered in the mid-1900's.
B. used to treat syphilis.
C. formulated from the red dye prontosil.
D. first discovered as a product of Penicillium notatum.
E. discovered by Robert Koch.

E

102. All of the following are types of agranulocytes because they do not have prominent granules in their cytoplasm when stained, except
A. T cells.
B. B cells.
C. monocytes.
D. lymphocytes.
E. basophils.

B

103. The indirect ELISA test detects___ in a patient's blood
A. antigen
B. antibody
C. microorganisms
D. IgE only
E. complement

E

109 Alcohols:
A. denature proteins when in a 50-95% alcohol-water solution.
B. disinfect items soaked in alcohol.
C. are skin degerming agents.
D. at 50% or higher concentrations dissolve cell membrane lipids.
E. All of the choices are correct

A

110. Variolation involved using
A. dried, ground smallpox scabs.
B. a recombinant carrier with genetic material of the smallpox virus.
C. preparations of human cowpox lesions.
D. antibodies to the smallpox virus.
E. None of the choices are correct.

D

111. The dried residues of fine droplets from mucus or saliva that harbor and transmit pathogen are
A. fomites.
B. aerosols.
C. mechanical vectors.
D. droplet nuclei.
E. biological vectors

D

112. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the complement fixation test?
A. First antigen and antibody are allowed to react.
B. Purified complement proteins are added to the antigen-antibody tube.
C. Sheep red blood cells are added to the antigen-antibody-complement mixture.
D. Hemolysis of the sheep red blood cells occurs in a positive test result.
E. None of the choices are correct.

C

117. A student has their teeth cleaned. The hygienist nicks their gum tissue. The student develops endocarditis due to Streptococcus. What kind of pattern of infection is this?
A. Localized
B. Mixed Infection
C. Focal
D. Systemic
E. All of the choices are correct

B

118. Which of the following methods is categorized as a direct test in order to analyze a
specimen?
A. Catalasetest
B. Gram stain
C. Phage typing
D. Antimicrobic sensitivity
E. Production of gas

A

119. A secondary acquired immunodeficiency is
A. AIDS.
B. adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency.
C. DiGeorge syndrome.
D. agammaglobulinemia.
E. Type I diabetes.

B

120. Joe contracted Hepatitis A by eating contaminated doughnuts from a local bakery. The source of the disease is ___and the reservoir is___ .
A. Joe, the doughnut
B. the doughnut, humans
C. humans, flour
D. flour, Joe
E. humans, Joe

C

126. All of the following are correct about mechanical vectors, except
A. cockroaches are an example.
B. the vector can carry the pathogen on its feet and mouthparts.
C. the vector is important to the life cycle of the infectious agent.
D. they can spread viral, bacterial, protozoan, and worm infections.
E. some, like flies feed on garbage and feces.

B

127. The contribution of B cells is mainly in
A. inflammation.
B. humoral immunity.
C. complement activity.
D. cell mediated immunity.
E. phagocytosis.

C

128. The membrane attack stage of the complement cascade involves
A. initiation of the cascade.
B. production of inflammatory cytokines.
C. a ring-shaped protein digests holes in bacterial cell membranes and virus envelopes.
D. cleaving of C3 to yield C3a and C3b.
E. C1 q binds to surface receptors on a membrane.

A

129. All the following are events of early inflammation, except
A. macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis.
B. chemical mediators and cytokines are released.
C. brief vasoconstriction is followed by vasodilation.
D. exudate and pus can accumulate.
E. capillaries become more permeable resulting in edema

D

130. Cody is 4 months old and is given an MMR injection by his pediatrician as part of the routine immunization schedule. What type of immunity is this?
A. Natural active immunity
B. Artificial passive immunity
C. Natural passive immunity
D. Artificial active immunity
E. None of the choices will protect him.

B

136. Local edema, swollen lymph nodes, fever, soreness, and abscesses are indications of
A. toxemia.
B. inflammation.
C. sequelae.
D. a syndrome.
E. latency.

B

137. Antimicrobics effective against only gram positive bacteria would be termed
A. antibiotics.
B. narrow-spectrum drugs.
C. semisynthetic drugs.
D. synthetic drugs.
E. broad-spectrum drugs.

C

138. Sputum is obtained by:
A. swabbing the mouth to sample saliva.
B. a clean catch urine sample.
C. the patient coughing up mucus from the lower respiratory system.
D. a spinal tap above the chest.
E. a throat swab.

A

139. Which of the following is not a biochemical test used to identify a pathogen?
A. Acid-fast reaction
B. Hydrolysis of gelatin

C. Coagulase production
D. Oxygen requirements
E. Carbohydrate fermentation

B

140. An example of artificial active immunity would be
A. chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity.
B. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
C. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
D. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
E. None of the choices are correct

C

145. Marion is going to the hospital for a triple bypass operation. She will have general anesthesia, intravenous catheter, surgical wounds, and a urinary catheter. Which nosocomial infection is she at greatest risk for contracting?
A. respiratory

B. septicemia
C. urinary tract
D. surgical site
E. meningitis

A

146. Antitoxins

A. contain antibodies to neutralize specific toxin.
B. use Vaccinia virus with genetic material of bacterial toxins.
C. contain purified, chemically denatured bacterial exotoxin.
D. include capsule material against the pneumococcus and meningococcus.

C

147. Acyclovir is used to treat
A. influenza A virus.
B. HIV.
C. shingles, chickenpox, and genital herpes.
D. respiratory syncytial virus.
E. hepatitis C virus.

E

148. Which of the following is an example of vertical transmission?
A. Drinking contaminated water.
B. A sneeze transmitting a cold.
C. Oral-fecal transmission involving a diaper.
D. A mosquito bite.
E. A mother transmitting syphilis to her fetus.

B

149. All of the following operate in surveillance and destruction of tumor cells, except
A. macrophages.
B. B cells.
C. natural killer cells.
D. cytotoxic T cells

D

154. Edward Tenner's work involved
A. inoculation of dried pus from smallpox pustules into a person to stimulate immunity.
B. development of passive immunotherapy.
C. development of an immunization to protect people against cowpox.
D. immunization using a related, less pathogenic organism to give protection against a more
pathogenic one.
E. All of the choices are correct.

C

155. Which of the following is involved in the in vitro diagnostic testing of serum?
A. mycology
B. hematology
C. serology
D. histology
E. virology

B

156. Using toilet bowl cleaner and nonionizing radiation to non-animate surfaces only removes
or kills vegetative bacteria. The term that best describes this action is:
A. Sterilization
B. Disinfection
C. Antisepsis
D. Degermation
E. None of these are correct

E

157. Which of the following is not a mode of action of an anti-viral?
A. block penetration
B. block transcription and translation
C. inhibit DNA synthesis
D. block maturation
E. bond to ergosterol in the cell membrane

A

162. Large quantities of antibodies that react to the second entry of antigen and lead to formation of antigen-antibody complexes that deposit in basement membranes occur in
A. serum sickness.
B. delayed hypersensitivity.
C. anaphylaxis.
D. hemolytic disease of the newborn.
E. All of the choices are correct.

B

163. The drug used against intestinal anaerobic bacteria, that can also alter normal flora causing antibiotic-associated colitis is
A. chloramphenicol.
B. clindamycin.
C. ciprofloxacin.
D. bacitracin.
E. gentamicin.

D

164. Juan has influenza and has aches, pains, and a fever. His mother, a physician, tells him to
take an antipyretic. What is she telling him to take?
A. An antibiotic, like eiythromycin
B. An antiviral drug, like Tamiflu
C. An antihistamine
D. Acetaminophen, like Tylenol
E. Herbal tea with honey

D

165. Which of the following does not belong with transformed cancer cells?
A. Oncogenic viruses
B. Increased rate of growth
C. Chromosomal alterations
D. Capacity for limited division
E. Changed surface molecules

D

171. Which of the following nonspecific mediators inhibits virus replication and cellular division while increasing some lymphocyte action?
A. TNF
B. IL-1
C. IL-6
D. IFN
E. Chemokines

C

172. Any heightened or inappropriate immune response resulting in tissue damage is called a/an
A. autoimmune disease.
B. immunodeficiency.
C. hypersensitivity.
D. transfusion reaction.
E. desensitization.

D

173. Mary had an accidental needlestick one night during her shift as an emergency medical technician. Initially, she tested positive for HIV by the ELISA test. Which test would be done next to confirm an HIV infection?
A. immunoelectrophoresis
B. Ouchterlony
C. complement fixation
D. Western blot
E. radioimrnunoassay

B

174. What will be the immediate action of allergen when it enters the body for a second time?
A. degranulation
B. bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils
C. binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils
D. histamine acts on smooth muscle
E. prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability

B

179. All of the following are correct about the autoclave, except:
A. it is important not to overload the chamber.
B. it is effective for sterilizing powders, oils, and waxy substances.
C. the duration of the process depends on how full the chamber is.
D. it is the temperature that kills the microbes, not the pressure by itself.
E. sterilization is achieved when steam condenses against the objects in the chamber and raises
their temperatures.

D

180. A superinfection results from
A. build up of a drug to toxic levels in the patient.
B. the wrong drug administered to the patient.
C. an immune system reaction to the drug.
D. decrease in most normal flora with overgrowth of an unaffected species.
E. All of the choices are correct.

A

181. Jose needs a kidney due to his diabetes. His sister is a close match and is willing to give him one of hers. What type of transplant is this?
A. Allograft
B. Xenograft
C. Autograft
D. Heterograft
E. None of the choices are correct

E

182. Maggie was told she has a positive titer to measles. Which of the following could explain this?
A. She was vaccinated against measles.
B. She had measles sometime in her life.
C. She has measles now.
D. The test was a false positive.
E. All of the choices are correct

C

184. In lab, a student observes some dull, wrinkled brown colonies growing on their agar. They gram stain the sample and observe single bacilli. Their blood agar does not reveal any hemolysis while their MSA has growth and fermentation. Using the following table and the given observations, determine which microorganism this would most likely be.
A. E. coli
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. B. subtilis
D. B. cereus

A

188. Reliable vaccines exist for all of the following diseases except
A. malaria.
B. botulism.
C. cholera.
D. yellow fever.
E. rabies.

D

189. This can be a consequence of a genetic deficiency in B cell survival and maturity
A. host rejection of graft
B. graft versus host disease
C. formation of autoantibodies
D. hypogammaglobulinemia
E. None of the choices are correct

E

190. Which of the following is not a possible symptom of Type I hypersensitivity?
A. rhinitis
B. rashes
C. sneezing
D. diarrhea
E. contact dermatitis

D

191. All of the following are advantages of attenuated vaccines over inactivated vaccines except
A. they require smaller doses.
B. they require fewer boosters.
C. they confer longer lasting protection.
D. they can be transmitted to other people.
E. they produce infection but not disease

A

197. The process of clonal deletion is designed to
A. destroy clones of lymphocytes able to react to self molecules.
B. slow down the primary immune response to an antigen.
C. slow down the secondary immune response to an antigen.
D. limit the number of lymphocyte clones an individual has in order to make the system more
efficient.
E. slow down the immune system in the elderly.

A

198. Which of the following is a special binding substance that enhances immugenicity and prolongs antigen retention at the injection site?
A. Adjuvant
B. Booster
C. Antibodies to toxin
D. Gamma globulin
E. "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine

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