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All non-picture questions from dental decks for NBDE Part I - Microbiology/Pathology (317): Ab, Bact, Bld Disord, Dn Disord, Cells/Org, Dis, Disord, Fungi, Hrt Disord, Hemody Dys, Immun, Inf, IC, Infl

The Hepatitis A virus, Poliovirus, and Rotavirus have which portal of entry?
- Respiratory tract
- Gastrointestinal tract
- Skin
- Genital tract
- Blood

Gastrointestinal tract

(M/P Vir)

Which virus causes pneumonia and bronchiolitis in infants?
- Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
- Human Immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
- Epstein Barr virus
- Varicelle Zoster virus

Respiratory synctial virus (RSV)

(M/P Vir)

Reoviruses:
- Have a unique single-shelled capsid that contains a non-segmented double-stranded DNA genome
- Have a unique double-shelled capsid that contains a segmented single-stranded RNA genome
- Have a unique double-shelled capsid that contains a segmented double-stranded RNA genome
- Have a unique single-shelled capsid that contains a segmented single-stranded DNA genome

Have a unique double-shelled capsid that contains a segmented double-stranded RNA genome

(M/P Vir)

Which growth curve describes the lytic reproduction cycle that releases a large number of phage simultaneously?
- One step growth curve
- Two step growth curve
- Horizontal growth curve
- None of the above

One step growth curve

(M/P Vir)

Which of the following viruses does not cause upper respiratory tract infections, including symptoms of the common cold?
- Paramyxoviruses
- Papovaviruses
- Coronaviruses
- Rhinoviruses
- Orthomyxoviruses

Papovaviruses

(M/P Vir)

Which two of the following herpes viruses do not cause a vesicular rash, both in primary infections and in reactivations?
- Epstein Barr virus (EBV)
- Varicella Zoster virus (VZV)
- Herpes simplex virus type 1
- Herpes simplex virus type 2
- Cytomegalovirus

Epstein Barr virus (EBV)
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

(M/P Vir)

All of the following viruses are paramyxoviruses except:
- Mumps virus
- Measles virus
- Influenza A, B, and C viruses
- Respiratory synctial virus (RSV)
- Parainfluenza virus

Influenza A, B, and C viruses

(M/P Vir)

All of the following statements concerning viruses are true except:
- A viral nucleic acid (genome) is composed of either DNA or RNA (but not both) that is encased in a protein coat called a capsid
- They are either naked or enveloped, depending on whether the capsid is surrounded by a lipid bilayer known as an envelope
- They replicate only in living cells and therefore are obligate intracellular parasites
- They are sensitive to antibiotics
- They depend on host cells for energy production
- They cannot be observed with a light microscope
- They pass through filters that retain bacteria

They are sensitive to antibiotics

(M/P Vir)

Influenza virus A has all of the following features except:
- A helical capsid
- Negative stranded RNA
- A lipid envelope of cellular origin
- A nonsegmented RNA genome
- Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase spikes embedded on their surfaces

A nonsegmented RNA genome

(M/P Vir)

All of the following statements are true except:
- DNA viruses, with one exception (poxviruses), replicate in the nucleus and use the host cell DNA-dependent RNA polymerase to synthesize their mRNA
- The genome of all DNA viruses consists of double-stranded DNA, except for the parvoviruses, which have a single-stranded DNA genome
- Most RNA viruses undergo their entire replicative cycle in the cytoplasm (except retroviruses and influenza viruses, which replicate in the nucleus of the host cell)
- Negative polarity is defined as an RNA with the same base sequence as the mRNA

Negative polarity is defined as an RNA with the same base sequence as the mRNA

(M/P Vir)

Which virus can cause herpes zoster lesions along sensory nerve roots in later life?
- Smallpox virus
- Epstein Barr virus
- Varicella Zoster virus

Varicella Zoster virus

(M/P Vir)

Which of the following is the cause of infectious mononucleosis?
- Streptococci
- Epstein Barr virus
- Rubella viruses
- Paramyxovirus

Epstein Barr virus

(M/P Vir)

All of the following statements concerning coxsackieviruses are true except:
- They belong to the Picornavirus family
- They are divided into two groups (A and B) on the basis of the lesions observed in mice
- Group A viruses cause herpangina and head-foot-and-mouth disease, whereas group B cause pleurodynia, myocarditis, and pericarditis
- Group B viruses have a predilection for skin and mucous membranes, whereas group A cause disease in various organs such as the heart, pleura, pancreas, and liver
- Their replication is similar to that of the poliovirus

Group B viruses have a predilection for skin and mucous membranes, whereas group A cause disease in various organs such as the heart, pleura, pancreas, and liver

(M/P Vir)

After the initial primary attack during the early childhood period, the herpes simplex virus remains inactive for periods of time and most commonly resides in the:
- Submandibular ganglion
- Trigeminal ganglion
- Sublingual ganglion
- Ciliary ganglion

Trigeminal ganglion

(M/P Vir)

Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is caused by an enveloped, single-stranded, linear, positive-polarity RNA virus known as:
- An arbovirus
- A parovirus
- A retrovirus
- An adenovirus

A retrovirus

(M/P Vir)

A highly infectious viral disease that chiefly affects children and leads to paralysis, muscular atrophy, and often deformity is called:
- Mumps
- Measles
- Poliomyelitis
- Infectious mononucleosis

Poliomyelitis

(M/P Vir)

Which of the following DNA enveloped viruses are the largest and most complex?
- Herpes viruses
- Hepatitis B virus
- Poxviruses

Poxviruses

(M/P Vir)

The cytopathic effect that is seen when a virus infects a specific cell culture:
- Is the same for most viruses
- Is not useful in diagnostic virology
- Is characteristic of each virus and can be used for detection of that virus
- Does not affect the specific infected cell

Is characteristic of each virus and can be used for detection of that virus

(M/P Vir)

All of the following diseases are associated with adenoviruses except:
- Acute respiratory infections
- Acute contagious conjunctivitis (pinkeye)
- Generalized systemic disease with a maculopapular rash
- Phayngoconjunctival fever characterized by fever, pharyngitis, and conjunctivitis

Generalized systemic disease with a maculopapular rash

(M/P Vir)

All of the following diseases are associated with adenoviruses except:
- Acute respiratory infections
- Acute contagious conjunctivitis (pinkeye)
- Generalized systemic disease with a maculopapular rash
- Phayngoconjunctival fever characterized by fever, pharyngitis, and conjunctivitis

Generalized systemic disease with a maculopapular rash

(M/P Vir)

Herpes viruses can be described as:
- Large sized enveloped viruses with an icosahedral nucleocapsid containing circular, single stranded DNA
- Medium sized enveloped viruses with an icosahedral nucleocapsid containing linear, double stranded RNA
- Small sized enveloped viruses with an icosahedral nucleocapsid containing circular, double stranded DNA
- Medium sized enveloped viruses with an icosahedral nucleocapsid containing linear, double stranded DNA

Medium sized enveloped viruses with an icosahedral nucleocapsid containing linear, double stranded DNA

(M/P Vir)

The infectious viral particle is called a:
- Viroid
- Virion
- Prion
- Neon

Virion

(M/P Vir)

All of the following statements concerning herpes simplex type 1 are true except:
- Many children have asymptomatic primary infections
- May be diagnosed by a Tzanck smear for rapid identification when skin lesions are involved
- May involve a primary infection (e.g., gingivostomatitis) or a recurrent infection (e.g., cold sores)
- Can be treated prophylactically by a vaccine

Can be treated prophylactically by a vaccine

(M/P Vir)

The leading cause of childhood gingivostomatitis in children ages 1 to 3 is:
- Herpes simplex
- Chickenpox
- Influenza
- Rubella

Herpes simplex

(M/P Vir)

A bacteriophage with the ability to form a stable, nondisruptive relationshipe within a bacterium is called a:
- Virulent phage
- Plasmid
- Temperate phage
- Phage T4

Temperate phage

(M/P Vir)

A bacteriophage:
- Is a bacterium that phagocytizes other organisms
- Is a bacterium that becomes phagocytosed by other organisms
- Is a virus that infects bacteria
- Is a fragment of DNA

Is a virus that infects bacteria

(M/P Vir)

The usual site of latency for the Herpes simplex virus type 2 is:
- The cranial sensory ganglion
- The lumbar or sacral sensory ganglion
- The cranial or thoracic sensory ganglion
- B lymphocytes

The lumbar or sacral sensory ganglion

(M/P Vir)

Which group of viruses posses an RNA genome that does not function as a positive or negative sense molecule but acts as a template for the production of viral DNA?
- Coronaviruses
- Picornaviruses
- Retroviruses
- Togaviruses

Retroviruses

(M/P Vir)

All of the following are DNA enveloped viruses except:
- Herpes viruses
- Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
- Poxviruses
- Hepatitis B virus

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

(M/P Vir)

An increase in the size of an organ or tissue due to an increase in the size of cells is known as:
- Hypertrophy
- Atrophy
- Hyperplasia
- Aplasia
- Hypoplasia
- Metaplasia

Hypertrophy

(M/P Terms)

An interactive association between two population of different species living together in which one population benefits from the association, while the other is not affected is called:
- Symbiosis
- Mutualism
- Commensalism
- Latency

Commensalism

(M/P Terms)

Missense mutations:
- Stop protein synthesis prematurely
- Result in the substitution of one amino acid for another
- Generate a termination codon
- Almost always destroy protein function

Result in the substitution of one amino acid for another

(M/P Terms)

Which bacteria produce a toxin that can be detected using the ELISA assay?
- Bacteroides
- Escherichia coli
- Neisseria
- Eikenella

Escherichia coli

(M/P Bact)

All of the following are important features of bacterial spores except:
- They are highly resistant to heating
- They are highly resistant to many disinfectants
- They are produced only be members of genera of bacteria of medical importance, Baciullus and Clostridium, both of which are gram-positive rods
- They can survive for many years, especially in soil
- They exhibit a great amount of metabolic activity
- They contain dipicolinic acid (calcium dipicolinate), a calcium chelator that is found virtually nowhere else in the biological world

They exhibit a great amount of metabolic activity

(M/P Bact)

The process in which DNA released by lysis of one bacterium is taken up by a second bacterium, leading to a change in phenotype of that second bacterium, is called:
- Transduction
- Conjugation
- Transformation
- Sexduction

Transformation

(M/P Bact)

Which of the following is the region in prokaryotes where the DNA is concentrated?
- Granules
- Nucleoid
- Plasmids
- Transposons

Nucleoid

(M/P Bact)

Two different pathways are involved in the metabolism of glucose: one anaerobic and one aerobic. The aerobic process occurs in the:
- Mitochondria and is very efficient
- Cytoplasm and is only moderately efficient
- Mitochondria and is not efficient
- Cytoplasm and is very efficient

Mitochondria and is very efficient

(M/P Bact)

The enzymes superoxide dismutase and catalase are present in:
- Obligate aerobes only
- Facultative anaerobes only
- Obligate anaerobes only
- Both obligate aerobes and facultative anaerobes

Both obligate aerobes and facultative anaerobes

(M/P Bact)

All of the following are prokaryotic cells except:
- Bacteria
- Mycoplasmas
- Fungi
- Rickettsia
- Chlamydia

Fungi

(M/P Bact)

All of the following bacteria have been found to be the principal bacterial associated with adult preiodontitis except:
- Porphyromonas gingivalis
- Prevotella intermedia
- Capnocytophaga ochraceus
- Bacteroides forsythus
- Campylobacter rectus

Capnocytophaga ochraceus

(M/P Bact)

Which toxin or enzyme produced by Group A beta-hemolytic Streptococci (S. pyogenes) activates plasminogen to form plasmin, which dissolves fibrin in clots, thrombi, and emboli?
- Streptokinase
- Streptodornase
- Hyaluronidase
- Erythrogenic toxin
- Streptolysin O
- Streptolysin S
- Pyrogenic exotoxin A

Streptokinase

(M/P Bact)

Which two bacteria have been found to be the principal bacteria associated with acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG)?
- Streptococcus sanguis
- Prevotella intermedia
- Spirochetes
- Actinomyces israeli
- Porphyromonas gingivalis

Prevotella intermedia
Spirochetes

(M/P Bact)

The synthesis of single-stranded RNA (ribonucleic acid) molecules based on a DNA sequence is called:
- Translation
- Transcription
- Transduction

Transcription

(M/P Bact)

Opsonization of microbial cells by complement is prevented by:
- Peptidoglycans
- The capsule
- Teichoic acid
- Adhesin

The capsule

(M/P Bact)

All of the following are stages of phagocytosis except:
- Chemotaxis
- Adherence
- Transduction
- Pseudopodium formation
- Phagosome formation
- Phago lysosome formation

Transduction

(M/P Bact)

During conjugation, what is transferred from the Hfr bacterium to the F- bacterium?
- The sex factor (F factor)
- Portions of the Hfr chromosome
- The sex factor and portions of the Hfr chromosome
- Nothing is transferred

Portions of the Hfr chromosome

(M/P Bact)

Which of the following bacteria are facultative anaerobic, gram-negative rods?
- Escherichia
- Mycobacterium
- Neisseria
- Bacteroides

Escherichia

(M/P Bact)

All of the following statements concerning Streptococcus pyogenes are true except:
- It is also known as Group B beta hemolytic Streptococcus and is not a frequent bacterial pathogen of humans
- It is a gram positive coccus that occurs in pairs or chains. It is frequently part of the endogenous microflora that colonizes the skin and oropharynx
- It is the cause of several acute pyogenic (pus forming) infections in man, such as scarlet fever, erysipelas, and sore throat ("strep throat")
- It elaborates several exotoxins (i.e., erythrogenic toxins and streptolysisn S and O)

It is also known as Group B beta hemolytic Streptococcus and is not a frequent bacterial pathogen of humans

(M/P Bact)

The symptoms of sepsis include all of the following except:
- Fever
- Weakness
- Painful urination
- Nausea
- Vomiting
- Diarrhea
- Chills

Painful urination

(M/P Bact)

A bacterial toxin that has been weakened until it is no longer toxic but is strong enough to induce the formation of antibodies and immunity to the specific disease caused by the toxin is called a(n):
- Antitoxin
- Toxoid

Toxoid

(M/P Vac)

Which disease is prevented with a vaccine that contains attenuated live viruses?
- Hepatitis A
- Varicella (Chickenpox)
- Influenza
- Rabies

Varicella (Chickenpox)

(M/P Vac)

Freund's adjuvant is a mixture composed of all of the following except:
- Mineral oil
- Lanolin
- Formalin
- Inactivated and dried mycobacteria

Formalin

(M/P Vac)

The erythrogenic exotoxin produced by Streptococcus pyogenes causes:
- Gas gangrene
- Bacterial dysentery
- Scarlet fever
- Tetanus

Scarlet fever

(M/P Bact)

Human HBIG (human serum containing a high titer of antibodies against HBV) to prevent hepatitis B in those not actively immunized with the HepB vaccine is an example of:
- Naturally acquired passive immunity
- Naturally acquired active immunity
- Artificially acquired active immunity
- Artificially acquired passive immunity

Artificialy acquired passive immunity

(M/P Vac)

Microorganisms which grow at an optimum pH well above neutrality (7.0) are called:
- Acidophiles
- Alkaliphiles
- Neutrophiles

Alkaliphiles

(M/P Bact)

The streptococcus pneumonia vaccine is an example of a:
- Capsular polysaccharide vaccine
- Inactivated protein exotoxin (toxoid) vaccine
- Killed bacterial vaccine
- Live attenuated bacterial vaccine

Capsular polysaccharide vaccine

(M/P Vac)

Lactobacillus is a part of the group of:
- Irregular, nonsporing, gram negative rods
- Regular, nonsporing, gram positive bacteria
- Anaerobic, gram negative cocci
- Endospore forming, gram positive cocci

Regular, nonsporing, gram positive bacteria

(M/P Bact)

All of the following bacteria have been found to be the principal bacteria associated with aggressive periodontitis except:
- Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans (AA)
- Capnocytophaga ochraceus
- Wolinella recta
- Prevotella intermedius
- Eikenella corrodens

Wolinella recta

(M/P Bact)

A gelatinous coat that is often used as an indicator of virulence is called the:
- Cell wall
- Capsule
- Pellicle
- Plasma membrane

Capsule

(M/P Bact)

A thin murein layer is characteristic of:
- Gram positive bacterial cell walls
- Gram negative bacterial cell walls
- Viral cell walls
- Fungal cell walls

Gram negative bacterial cell walls

(M/P Bact)

The acid-fast stain may be performed on any clinical specimen but is most commonly used in examining sputum for which bacteria?
- Escherichia coli
- Streptococcus pneumoniae
- Clostridium botulinum
- Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

(M/P Bact)

Which of the following bacteria form unusual acids, called mycolic acids, that are associated with their cell walls?
- Streptococci
- Lactobacilli
- Mycobacteria
- Staphylococci

Mycobacteria

(M/P Bact)

Which bacteria is a gram-positive coccus that grows in grape-like, irregular clusters in culture?
- Streptococcus
- Neisseria
- Salmonella
- Staphylococcus

Staphylococcus

(M/P Bact)

Hyaluronidase is an enzyme produced by bacteria that digests connective tissue, allowing them to spread through tissues more readily. Species from which bacteria below do no produce this enzyme?
- Streptococcus
- Clostridium
- Staphylococcus
- Neisseria

Neisseria

(M/P Bact)

Endotoxins are the lipopolysaccharide component of the cell wall of:
- Gram positive bacteria
- Gram negative bacteria
- Both gram positive and gram negative bacteria

Gram negative bacteria

(M/P Bact)

Endotoxins are:
- Produced by gram positive bacteria and are located in the inner membrane of the bacteria
- Produced by gram negative bacteria and are located in the inner membrane of the bacteria
- Produced by gram negative bacteria and are located in the outer membrane of the bacteria
- Produced by gram positive bacteria and are located in the outer membrane of the bacteria

Produced by gram negative bacteria and are located in the outer membrane of the bacteria

(M/P Bact)

Gamma-hemolytic streptococci can be differentiated from alpha and beta streptococci on blood agar plates by observing:
- A clear zone of hemolysis about the colony with no intact corpuscles
- Small colonies surrounded by a greenish discoloration
- No hemolysis
- Small colonies surrounded by a zone of partial hemolysis and an outer clear zone

No hemolysis

(M/P Bact)

Identify the four phases on a standard bacterial growth curve.
......__
...../....\
__/.......

Lag phase
Log (Exponential) phase
Stationary phase
Decline (Death) phase

(M/P Bact)

All of the following statements concerning Staphylococcus aureus are true except:
- It is a gram negative coccus that typically grows in a linear fashion and is a very uncommon bacterial pathogen
- It is the most common cause of suppurative infections involving the skin, joints, and bones and is the leading cause of infective endocarditis
- It is coagulase positive whereas other Staphylococci are coagulase negative
- It posseses a surface protein (protein A), that binds the Fc receptor of IgG, thereby blocking complement activation by the classical pathway

It is a gram negative coccus that typically grows in a linear fashion and is a very uncommon bacterial pathogen

(M/P Bact)

Members of which species below are predominant in saliva?
- Actinomyces
- Veillonella
- Streptococcus
- Staphylococcus

Streptococcus

(M/P Bact)

How long does it take to kill bacterial spores when a dental instrument is placed in a 2% solution of glutaraldehyde?
- 10 minutes
- 1 hour
- 10 hours
- 24 hours

10 hours

(M/P IC)

Neurofibromatosis is a(n):
- Sex linked dominant disorder
- Autosomal recessive disorder
- Sex linked recessive disorder
- Autosomal dominant disorder

Autosomal dominant

(M/P Disord)

Which of the following is a powerful oxidizing agent that inactivates bacteria and many viruses by oxidizing free sulfhydryl groups?
- Alcohol
- Chlorine
- Formaldehyde
- Phenol

Chlorine

(M/P IC)

Quaternary ammonium compounds, which are widely used for skin antisepsis, are classified as:
- Nonionic detergents
- Anionic detergents
- Cationic detergents

Cationic detergents

(M/P IC)

The proper time and temperature for autoclaving is:
- 350ºF (177ºC) for 1 hour
- 250ºF (121ºC) for 15-20 minutes
- 450ºF (232ºC) for 5 minutes
- 89ºF (31ºC) for 30 minutes

250ºF (121ºC) for 15-20 minutes

(M/P IC)

The term "antiseptic" best relates to a(n):
- Autoclave
- Dry heat sterilizer
- Chemical used on contaminated counter tops
- Handwash agent

Handwash agent

(M/P IC)

Which type of pathogens provide the ultimate test for efficacy of sterilization?
- Bacteria
- Spore forming
- Viruses
- Fungi

Spore forming

(M/P IC)

The proper time and temperature for dry heat sterilization is:
- 320ºF (160ºC) for 2 hours
- 250ºF (121ºC) for 20-30 minutes
- 450ºF (232ºC) for 5 minutes
- 89ºF (31ºC) for 30 minutes

320ºF (160ºC) for 2 hours

(M/P IC)

The killing or removal of all microorganisms, including bacterial spores, is called:
- Disinfection
- Cleaning
- Sterilization
- Wiping

Sterilization

(M/P IC)

All of the following statements concerning ethylene oxide sterilization are true except:
- It is used extensively in hospitals for the sterilization of heat labile materials such as surgical instruments and plastics
- It kills by alkylating both proteins and nucleic acids
- It is a fast process (20-50 minutes) depending on the material to be sterilized
- It is very toxic to humans and is also flammable

It is a fast process (20-50 minutes) depending on the material to be sterilized

(M/P IC)

The greatest occupational health care worker risk for bloodborne infection is:
- Hepatitis C virus
- Human Immunodeficiency Virus
- Hepatitis B virus
- Tuberculosis

Hepatitis B virus

(M/P IC)

All of the following are advantages of using alcohols (70% isopropyl and 70% ethyl alcohol) as surface disinfectants except:
- They are bactericidal
- They are sporicidal
- They are tuberculocidal
- They are economical

They are sporicidal

(M/P IC)

Which of the following is used as a handwash agent?
- Chlorhexidine gluconate
- Triclosan
- Isopropyl alcohol
- Both chlorhexidine gluconate and triclosan
- All of the above

Both chlorhexidine gluconate and triclosan

(M/P IC)

Antimicrobial chemical agents which destroy microorganisms when applied onto inanimate surfaces such as counter tops or lights, are called:
- Antiseptics
- Sterilants
- Disinfectants
- None of the above

Disinfectants

(M/P IC)

The marker microorganism for intermediate surface disinfection is:
- Bacillus stearothermophilus
- Pseudomonas aeruginosa
- Hepatitis B virus
- Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

(M/P IC)

An antibacterial solution which directly kills bacteria is said to be:
- Bactericidal
- Bacteriostatic
- Substantive

Bactericidal

(M/P IC)

Cleaning surfaces prior to disinfection in clinical settings is required to:
- Destroy all pathogens
- Inhibit pathogen growth
- Reduce the concentration of pathogens
- Weaken the virulence of pathogens

Reduce the concentration of pathogens

(M/P IC)

The antigens most responsible for an immediate Type I reaction to natural rubber latex are:
- Proteins
- Accelerators
- Corn starch powders
- Anti oxidants

Proteins

(M/P IC)

The most common form of an adverse epithelial reaction noted for health-care-professionals is:
- Irritation dermatitis
- Type I immediate latex allergy
- Type IV, delayed latex allergy
- Superficial fungal infections on the fingers

Irritation dermatitis

(M/P IC)

The most efficient way to kill microbes is:
- Cold sterilization
- Proper handwashing with sterilizing antiseptics
- Heat sterilization
- Immersion of contaminated items in chemical sterilants

Heat sterilization

(M/P IC)

The complete destruction of all forms of microbial life, including spores, best describes:
- Disinfection
- Sterilization
- Pasteurization
- Sanitization

Sterilization

(M/P IC)

One of your patients develops a Type I, immediate allergic reaction to latex. When treating them and wearing gloves from now on, you can:
- Wear vinyl or nitrile gloves
- Wear hypoallergenic latex gloves
- Get an exemption and not wear gloves
- Refuse to treat them

Wear vinyl or nitrile gloves

(M/P IC)

A particular kind of antimicrobial treatment, such as that for our drinking water which lowers the total microbial load to safe public health levels is called:
- Antisepsis
- Sanitization
- Disinfection
- Sterilization

Sanitization

(M/P IC)

Which of the following statements are true?
- Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) is the most infectious target of Standard (universal) Blood Precautions
- Hapatitis B Virus (HBV) is the most infectious target of Standard (univeral) Blood Precautions
- There are no Standard Precautions for health care

Hapatitive B Virus (HBV) is the most infectious target of Standard (universal) Blood Precautions

(M/P IC)

Which of the following have been involved in the transmission of Hepatitis C?
- Accidental needlesticks
- Blood transfusions
- Drug addicts sharing contaminated syringes
- All of the above

All of the above

(M/P IC)

Which phase describing an aspect of infection control is not appropriate?
- Exposure is not synonymous with infection
- Do not disinfect when you can sterilize
- Sterilization of all clinical instruments and inanimate environmental surfaces is mandatory
- Known AIDS patients can be treated using Standard Bloodborne Precautions

Sterilization of all clinical instruments and inanimate environmental surfaces is mandatory

(M/P IC)

An infection caused by normally non-pathogenic microorganisms in a host whose resistance has been decreased or compromised is known as a(n):
- Nosocomial infection
- Secondary infection
- Opportunistic infection
- Medical infection

Opportunistic infection

(M/P IC)

Latex allergy risk factors include all of the following except:
- Persons with multiple surgeries
- Atopy
- Rubber industry workers
- Persons with an allergy to pollen
- Persons with an allergy to bananas

Persons with an allegy to pollen

(M/P IC)

It is recommended that face masks be changed:
- Between patients
- Daily
- Twice per day

Between patients

(M/P IC)

Rapid heat transfer sterilization provides:
- A very fast cycle time
- No dulling of cutting edges
- Dry instruments after cycle
- All of the above

All of the above

(M/P IC)

What is recommended for all instruments that are used in the mouth?
- Disinfection
- High level disinfection
- Sterilization involving the use of heat
- Both disinfection and sterilization involving the use of heat

Sterilization involving the use of heat

(M/P IC)

In healthcare what is the primary disease prevention measure?
- Wipe wipe
- Spray wipe spray
- Handwashing
- Vaccines

Handwashing

(M/P IC)

Personal protective equipment clinic jackets should be:
- Short sleeve, high neck
- Long sleeve, high neck
- Long sleeve, turtle neck
- Whatever your preference

Long sleeve, high neck

(M/P IC)

Because ____________ are the hardiest microbes, their destruction is required before the definition sterilization has been met.
- Hepatitis B viruses
- Bacterial endospores
- Mycobacteria
- Vegetative bacteria

Bacterial endospores

(M/P IC)

Sterilization is the elimination of all microbial organisms including spore formers. Disinfection is the destruction of disease causing microorganisms not including spore formers.
- The first statement is true and the second statement is false
- The first statement is false and the second statement is true
- Both statements are true
- Both statements are false

Both statements are true

(M/P IC)

Which of the following has been shown to be the most effective antimicrobial agent for reducing plaque and gingivitis long-term?
- Stannous fluoride
- Phenolic compounds
- Chlorhexidine
- Quaternary ammonium compounds

Chlorhexidine

(M/P Oral Cav)

All of the following bacteria may be etiologically related to dental caries except:
- Streptococcus mutans
- Actinomyces viscosus
- Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans (AA)
- Streptococcus salivarius
- Streptococcus sanguis
- Actinomyces naeslundi
- Actinomyces isreali
- Lactobacillus casei

Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans (AA)

The principal oral site for the growth of spirochetes, fusobacteria, and other gram-negative anaerobes is:
- Saliva
- Calculus
- The gingival margin
- The gingival sulcus

The gingival sulcus

(M/P Oral Cav)

Which species has been implicated in the dental caries process?
- Staphylococcus
- Bacteroides
- Escherichia coli
- Streptococcus

Streptococcus

(M/P Oral Cav)

Young plaque is dominated by:
- Gram positive cocci
- Gram positive rods
- Gram negative rods
- Filaments

Gram positive cocci

(M/P Oral Cav)

All of the following statements concerning bacterial plaque are true except:
- It is the key etiologic agent in the initiation of gingivitis and periodontal disease
- It is an accumulation of a mixed bacterial community in a dextran matrix
- It forms on a cleaned tooth within minutes
- It is composed of solids (80%; 95% of which are bacteria) and water (20%)
- There are two categories: supragingival and subgingival plaque
- Different bacteria may be found in plaque (cocci, rods, and filaments) and their proportions change with time, diet, and location

It is composed of solids (80%; 95% of which are bacteria) and water (20%)

(M/P Oral Cav)

All of the following statements are true concerning supragingival and subgingival plaque except:
- Subgingival plaque can be attached or loosely adherent (epithelium associated)
- Supragingival plaque is attached or tooth associated
- Subgingival plaque is dominated by gram negative rods
- Supragingival plaque is dominated by gram positive cocci
- Supragingival plaque has more anaerobes than subgingival plaque

Supragingival plaque has more anaerobes than subgingival plaque

(M/P Oral Cav)

All of the following statements concerning calculus are true except:
- It is calcified or mineralized bacterial plaque
- It forms on natural teeth, dentures, and other dental prostheses
- The surface is very rough and is covered by a layer of bacterial plaque
- Inorganic material makes up about 10-15% of the composition while organic material and water make up about 70-90% of the composition
- Its main role in periodontal disease is to serve as a collection site for more bacteria

Inorganic material makes up about 10-15% of the composition while organic material and water make up about 70-90% of the composition

(M/P Oral Cav)

Which one of the following organisms is commonly implicated with the etiology of acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis?
- Streptococcus sanguis
- Actinomyces israelii
- Prevotella intermedia
- Streptococcus uberis

Prevotella intermedia

(M/P Oral Cav)

Which statement is true concerning interferons?
- They are antiviral antibodies
- They are antibacterial substances
- They act to prevent the replication of a range of viruses by inducing resistance
- They are not considered to be a nonspecific resistance factor

They act to prevent the replication of a range of viruses by inducing resistance

(M/P Sub)

Cytokines are:
- Insoluble mediators that play an important role in blood clotting
- Soluble mediators that play an important role in immunity
- Soluble mediators that play an important role in genetic recombination
- Insoluble mediators that play an important role in glomerular filtration

Soluble mediators that play an important role in immunity

(M/P Sub)

All of the following are formed via the cyclooxygenase pathway except:
- Prostaglandins
- Prostacyclin
- Leukotrienes
- Thromboxanes

Leukotrienes

(M/P Sub)

Histamine release within the body causes all of the following except:
- Increased capillary permeability
- Increased gastric secretion
- Bronchiolar constriction
- A rise in blood pressure

A rise in blood pressure

(M/P Sub)

All of the following statements concerning serotonin are true except:
- It is widely considered to be a neurotransmitter
- It is present in the brain
- It is believed to play a role in temperature regulation, in sensory perception, and in the onset of sleep
- It is synthesized from the amino acid arginine

It is synthesized from the amino acid arginine

(M/P Sub)

All of the following statements concerning fibrinolysin are true except:
- It is also called plasmin
- It is a proteolytic enzyme derived from plasminogen
- It is essential in blood clot dissolution (fibrinolysis)
- It is a component of the body's nonspecific disease mechanism
- It is the most important fibrinolytic protease

It is a componet of the body's nonspecific disease mechanism

(M/P Sub)

Which of the following is an enzyme formed in the kidney and released into the bloodstream where it has an important role in activating angiotensin?
- Plasmin
- Lysozyme
- Renin
- Fibrinogen

Renin

(M/P Sub)

Which of the following are respiratory enzymes capable of undergoing alternate reduction and oxidation?
- Pyrimidine nucleotides
- Cytochromes
- Reductants
- Purine nucleotides

Cytochromes

(M/P Sub)

The immunity to infectious agents that is provided by serum lysozyme is:
- Acquired and T cell mediated
- Acquired and B cell mediated
- Innate and IgG mediated
- Innate and nonspecific

Innate and nonspecific

(M/P Cells/Org)

Which organelle contains hydrolytic enzymes necessary for intracellular digestion?
- Lysosome
- Golgi apparatus
- Microbody
- Phagosome

Lysosome

(M/P Cells/Org)

Autolysis:
- Refers to degradative reactions in cells caused by intracellular enzymes indigenous to the cell
- Refers to the cellular degradation by enzymes derived from sources extrinsic to the cell
- Is the sum of intracellular degradative reactions occuring after the death of individual cells within a living organism
- Is the death of single cells within clusters of other cells

Refers to degradative reactions in cells caused by intracellular enzymes indigenous to the cell

(M/P Cells/Org)

The enzyme catalase is contained in which organelle within a cell?
- Nucleus
- Microbodies
- Golgi apparatus
- Mitochondrion

Microbodies

(M/P Cells/Org)

Which of the following is classified as an antifungal agent?
- Bacitracin
- Amphotericin B
- Polymyxin B
- Neomycin

Amphotericin B

(M/P Ab)

The standard prophylactic regime for nonallergic patients is:
- Adults: 2.0 grams Amoxicillin one hour before procedure
- Adults: 2.0 grams Penicillin Vk one hour before procedure
- Children: 100 mg/kg Amoxicillin one hour before procedure
- Children: 100 mg/kg Penicillin Vk one hour before procedure

Adults: 2.0 grams Amoxicillin one hour before procedure

(M/P Ab)

Which antibiotic is not only effective against most staphylococci, aerobic and anaerobic streptococci, but is most effective in treating infections due to bacteroides species?
- Penicillin VK
- Erythromycin
- Tetracycline
- Cephalexin (Keflex)
- Clindamycin

Clindamycin

(M/P Ab)

The only drug that a patient can take is clindamycin, so the patient must be instructed to notify the dental office is (s)he:
- Develops a hearing problem
- Has 5 or more watery stools per day
- Has trouble sleeping
- Develops headaches

Has 5 or more watery stools per day

(M/P Ab)

Which of the following conditions may predispose a patient to candidiasis?
- Hormonal disorder
- Coronary condition
- Immune deficiency disorder
- Chronic respiratory condition

Immune deficiency disorder

(M/P Ab)

Which of the following antibiotics is considered a broad-spectrum antibiotic?
- Penicillin VK
- Cefaclor (Ceclor)
- Penicillin G

Cefaclor (Ceclor)

(M/P Ab)

The penicillins act to:
- Weaken the bacterial cell wall to the point that the cell dies when it ruptures
- Inhibit protein synthesis and suppress bacterial growth
- Disrupt bacterial protein synthesis destroying the bacterial cell
- Disrupt specific biochemical reactions destroying the cell

Weaken the bacterial cell wall to the point that the cell dies when it ruptures

(M/P Ab)

Which penicillin is prescribed primarily in the treatment of severe penicillinase-producing staphylococcal infections?
- Methicillin
- Ampicillin
- Penicillin VK
- Carbenicillin

Methicillin

(M/P Ab)

Which two antibiotics are usually prescribed in the treatment of rickettsial diseases?
- Tetracycline
- Polymixin B
- Erythromycin
- Chloramphenicol

Tetracycline
Chloramphenicol

(M/P Ab)

All of the following statements concerning fungi are true except:
- They are prokaryotic and lack a cell wall
- There are two types: yeasts and molds
- They can be dimorphic; that is, they have two morphologic forms
- They have a distinct nuclear membrane as part of the cellular structure
- They have both asexual and sexual reproduction capabilities
- Most fungi are obligate aerobes; some are facultative anaerobes; but none are obligate anaerobes

They are prokaryotic and lack a cell wall

(M/P Fungi)

Which genera of fungi is not responsible for causing dermatophytosis (tinea or ringworm)?
- Trichophyton
- Microsporum
- Histoplasma
- Epidermophyton

Histoplasma

(M/P Fungi)

A fungal infection that may develop in people who have poorly controlled diabetes is called:
- Aspergillosis
- Coccidioidomycosis
- Mucormycosis
- Cryptococcosis

Mucormycosis

(M/P Fungi)

All of the following statements concerning fungal spores are true except:
- Morphologic characteristics (e.g., the shape, color, and arrangement) of conidia are a useful aid for the identification of fungi
- A conidium is an asexually formed fungal spore
- Fungal spores are as resistant to heat as bacterial spores
- Fungal spores cause allergies in some people

Fungal spores are as resistant to heat as bacterial spores

(M/P Fungi)

All of the following statements concerning coccidioidomycosis are true except:
- It is caused by the inhalation of dust aerosols containing the Coccidioides immitis arthrospores, which are highly infectious
- It is endemic in hot, dry regions of the S.W. United States and Central and South America
- It is referred to as "valley fever" or "San Joaquin fever"
- It can be treated with penicillin
- The primary infection or lesion is in the lung
- It is by and large an inapparent and self limiting infection in endemic areas

It can be treated with penicillin

(M/P Fungi)

Aflatoxins are produced by:
- Candida species
- Coccidioides species
- Aspergillus species
- Histoplasma species

Aspergillus species

(M/P Fungi)

A single-celled parasite that causes amebiasis in humans is:
- Giardia lamblia
- Entamoeba histolytica
- Trichomonas vaginalis
- Balantidium coli

Entamoeba histolytica

(M/P P)

All of the following statements concerning malaria are true except:
- It is an infection of white blood cells
- Drugs taken for prevention are not 100% effective
- Symptoms can begin a month after the infecting mosquito bite
- Early symptoms are nonspecific and often are mistaken for those of influenza
- Rapid diagnosis and early treatment are important, particularly for falciparum malaria, which is fatal in up to 20% of infected people

It is an infection of white blood cells

(M/P P)

Infections caused by certain nematodes results in:
- Marked neutrophilia
- Marked eosinophilia
- Marked basophilia
- All of the above

Marked eosinophilia

(M/P P)

Humans may acquire Toxoplasma gondii by:
- Swimming in contaminated water
- Sustaining a dog bite
- Ingestion of cysts in poorly cooked meat
- Airborne conidia

Ingestion of cysts in poorly cooked meat

(M/P P)

The thymus gland and parathyroid glands are malformed and dysfunctional or missing altogether in:
- Sjogren's syndrome
- DiGeorge syndrome
- Shy Drager syndrome
- Peutz Jeghers syndrome

DiGeorge syndrome

(M/P Syndr)

Mallory-Weiss syndrome is bleeding from an arterial blood vessel in the upper gastrointestinal tract, caused by a mucosal gastric tear at or near the point where the esophagus and stomach join. It is most common in:
- Women who are pregnant
- Men over age 40, especially alcoholics
- Preschool aged children
- Postmenopausal women

Men over age 40, especially alcoholics

(M/P Syndr)

A tall, infertile male with small testes most likely has which of the following conditions?
- Adrenogenital syndrome
- Klinefelter's syndrome
- Testicular feminization
- Turner's syndrome

Klinefelter's syndrome

(M/P Syndr)

Chvostek's sign and Trousseau's sign are reliable indicators of:
- Bell's palsy
- Botulism
- Rickets
- Tetany

Tetany

(M/P Syndr)