chemistry

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126 terms

polar

An unknown substance dissolves readily in water but not in benzene (a nonpolar solvent). Molecules of what type are present in the substance?

Hydration

The interaction between solute particles and water molecules, which tends to cause a salt to fall apart in water, is called

Ethanol contains a polar O-H bond, and benzene does not

Consider two organic molecules, ethanol and benzene. One dissolves in water and the other does not. Why?

T

T F Polar molecules have an unequal distribution of charge within the molecule.

c)HClO4

Which of the following is a strong acid?a) HF b)KOH c)HClO4 d)HClO e)HBrO

b)HBr

All of the following are weak acids except
a) HCNO b)HBr c)HF d) HNO2 e) HCN

c)NH3

Which of the following is not a strong base?
a) Ca(OH)2 b)KOH c)NH3 d)LiOH e)Sr(OH)2

b)HNO3 - weak acid

Which of the following is paired incorrectly?
a) H2SO4 - strong acid b)HNO3 - weak acid
c) Ba(OH)2 - strong base d)HCl - strong acid e)NH3 - weak base

Ans: a

What is the kinetic energy of a 1.50-kg object moving at 86.0 km/hr?
a) 4.28  102 kJ
b) 5.55  103 kJ
c) 4.28  10-4 kJ
d) 8.56  102 kJ
e) 1.79  101 kJ

Ans: c

Which of the following statements correctly describes the signs of q and w for the following exothermic process at P = 1 atm and T = 370 K?
H2O(g)  H2O(l)
a) q and w are negative.
b) q is positive, w is negative.
c) q is negative, w is positive.
d) q and w are both positive.
e) q and w are both zero.

Ans: c

For a particular process q = 20 kJ and w = 15 kJ. Which of the following statements is true?
a) Heat flows from the system to the surroundings.
b) The system does work on the surroundings.
c) E = 35 kJ
d) All of the above are true.
e) None of the above are true.

Ans: c

Which of the following statements is correct?
a) The internal energy of a system increases when more work is done by the system than heat was flowing into the system.
b) The internal energy of a system decreases when work is done on the system and heat is flowing into the system.
c) The system does work on the surroundings when an ideal gas expands against a constant external pressure.
d) All statements are true.
e) All statements are false.

Ans: d

Calculate the work for the expansion of CO2 from 1.0 to 5.8 liters against a pressure of 1.0 atm at constant temperature.
a) 4.8 L·atm
b) 5.8 L·atm
c) 0 L·atm
d) -4.8 L·atm
e) -5.8 L·atm

Ans: e

Which statement is true of a process in which one mole of a gas is expanded from state A to state B?
a) When the gas expands from state A to state B, the surroundings are doing work on the system.
b) The amount of work done in the process must be the same, regardless of the path.
c) It is not possible to have more than one path for a change of state.
d) The final volume of the gas will depend on the path taken.
e) The amount of heat released in the process will depend on the path taken.

Ans: b

Calculate the work associated with the compression of a gas from 121.0 L to 80.0 L at a constant pressure of 20.7 atm.
a) -849 L atm
b) 849 L atm
c) 1.98 L atm
d) -1.98 L atm
e) 101 L atm

Ans:

8. According to the first law of thermodynamics, the energy of the universe is constant. Does this mean that ΔE is always equal to zero?
a) Yes, ΔE = 0 at all times, which is why q = -w.
b) No, ΔE does not always equal zero, but this is only due to factors like friction and heat.
c) No, ΔE does not always equal zero because it refers to the system's internal energy, which is affected by heat and work.
d) No, ΔE never equals zero because work is always being done on the system or by the system.
e) No, ΔE never equals zero because energy is always flowing between the system and surroundings.

Ans: False

T F A property that is independent of the pathway is called an intensive property.

Ans: True

T F A state function does not depend on the system's past or future.

Ans: True

T F When a system performs work on the surroundings, the work is reported with a negative sign.

Ans: True

T F In exothermic reaction, potential energy stored in chemical bonds is being converted to thermal energy via heat.

Ans: c

Which of the following properties is (are) intensive properties?
I. mass
II. temperature
III. volume
IV. concentration
V. energy
a) I, III, and V
b) II only
c) II and IV
d) III and IV
e) I and V

Ans: b

For the reaction H2O(l)  H2O(g) at 298 K and 1.0 atm, H is more positive than E by 2.5 kJ/mol. This quantity of energy can be considered to be
a) the heat flow required to maintain a constant temperature
b) the work done in pushing back the atmosphere
c) the difference in the H-O bond energy in H2O(l) compared to H2O(g)
d) the value of H itself
e) none of these

Ans: c

Which one of the following statements is false?
a) The change in internal energy, E, for a process is equal to the amount of heat absorbed at constant
volume, qv.
b) The change in enthalpy, H, for a process is equal to the amount of heat absorbed at constant pressure,
qp.
c) A bomb calorimeter measures H directly.
d) If qp for a process is negative, the process is exothermic.
e) The freezing of water is an example of an exothermic reaction.

Ans: a

C2H5OH(l) + 3O2(g)  2CO2(g) + 3H2O(l), H = -1.37  103 kJ
For the combustion of ethyl alcohol as described in the above equation, which of the following is true?
I. The reaction is exothermic.
II. The enthalpy change would be different if gaseous water was produced.
III. The reaction is not an oxidation-reduction one.
IV. The products of the reaction occupy a larger volume than the reactants.
a) I, II
b) I, II, III
c) I, III, IV
d) III, IV
e) only I

Ans: a

Two metals of equal mass with different heat capacities are subjected to the same amount of heat. Which
undergoes the smallest change in temperature?
a) The metal with the higher heat capacity.
b) The metal with the lower heat capacity.
c) Both undergo the same change in temperature.
d) You need to know the initial temperatures of the metals.
e) You need to know which metals you have.

Ans: e

Consider the reaction
H2(g) + 1
2 O2(g)  H2O(l) H° = -286 kJ
Which of the following is true?
a) The reaction is exothermic.
b) The reaction is endothermic.
c) The enthalpy of the products is less than that of the reactants.
d) Heat is absorbed by the system.
e) Both A and C are true.

Ans: c

In the lab, you mix two solutions (each originally at the same temperature) and the temperature of the resulting
solution decreases. Which of the following is true?
a) The chemical reaction is releasing energy.
b) The energy released is equal to s  m  T.
c) The chemical reaction is absorbing energy.
d) The chemical reaction is exothermic.
e) More than one of these.

Ans: d

What is the specific heat capacity of a metal if it requires 178.6 J to change the temperature of 15.0 g of the metal from 25.00°C to 32.50°C?
a) 0.630 J/g°C
b) 11.9 J/g°C
c) 23.8 J/g°C
d) 1.59 J/g°C
e) 291 J/g°C

Ans: b

Exactly 143.0 J will raise the temperature of 10.0 g of a metal from 25.0°C to 60.0°C. What is the specific heat capacity of the metal?
a) 2.45 J/g°C
b) 0.409 J/g°C
c) 21.5 J/g°C
d) 34.2 J/g°C
e) none of these

Ans: b

On a cold winter day, a steel metal fence post feels colder than a wooden fence post of identical size because:
a) The specific heat capacity of steel is higher than the specific heat capacity of wood.
b) The specific heat capacity of steel is lower than the specific heat capacity of wood.
c) Steel has the ability to resist a temperature change better than wood.
d) The mass of steel is less than wood so it loses heat faster.
e) Two of the above statements are true.

Ans: d

If a student performs an endothermic reaction in a calorimeter, how does the calculated value of H differ from the actual value if the heat exchanged with the calorimeter is not taken into account?
a) Hcalc would be more negative because the calorimeter always absorbs heat from the reaction.
b) Hcalc would be less negative because the calorimeter would absorb heat from the reaction.
c) Hcalc would be more positive because the reaction absorbs heat from the calorimeter.
d) Hcalc would be less positive because the reaction absorbs heat from the calorimeter.
e) Hclac would equal the actual value because the calorimeter does not absorb heat.
Ans: d

Ans: True

T F The specific heat capacities of metals are relatively low.

Ans: False

T F The change in enthalpy can always be thought of as equal to energy flow as heat.

Ans: c

Which of the following does not have a standard enthalpy of formation equal to zero at 25°C and 1.0 atm?
a) F2(g)
b) Al(s)
c) H2O(l)
d) H2(g)
e) They all have a standard enthalpy equal to zero.

Ans: a

Consider the reaction:
2ClF3(g) + 2NH3(g)  N2(g) + 6HF(g) + Cl2(g)
When calculating the ΔH°rxn, why is the ΔHf° for N2 not important?
a) Because nitrogen is in its standard elemental state and no energy is needed for this product to exist.
b) Because any element or compound in the gaseous state requires a negligible amount of energy to exist.
c) Because the products are not included when calculating ΔH°rxn.
d) Because nitrogen is in its elemental state and does not contribute to the reaction itself.
e) Two of the above statements explain why N2 is not important when calculating ΔH°rxn.

Ans: e

The following statements concerning petroleum are all true except:
a) It is a thick, dark liquid composed mostly of hydrocarbons.
b) It must be separated into fractions (by boiling) in order to be used efficiently.
c) Some of the commercial uses of petroleum fractions include gasoline and kerosene.
d) It was probably formed from the remains of ancient marine organisms.
e) All of its hydrocarbon chains contain the same number of carbon atoms.

Ans: a

This fossil fuel was formed from the remains of plants that were buried and exposed to high pressure and heat over time.
a) coal
b) natural gas
c) diesel fuel
d) propane
e) gasoline

Ans: d

The coal with the highest energy available per unit burned is
a) Lignite.
b) Subbituminous.
c) Bituminous.
d) Anthracite.
e) They are equal in energy value.

Ans: e

All of the following statements about the greenhouse effect are true except:
a) It occurs only on earth.
b) The molecules H2O and CO2 play an important role in retaining the atmosphere's heat.
c) Low humidity allows efficient radiation of heat back into space.
d) The carbon dioxide content of the atmosphere is quite stable.
e) A and D

Ans: d

Which of the following is both a greenhouse gas and a fuel?
a) carbon dioxide
b) coal
c) freon
d) methane
e) nitrogen

Ans: a

One of the main advantages of hydrogen as a fuel is that:
a) The only product of hydrogen combustion is water.
b) It exists as a free gas.
c) It can be economically supplied by the world's oceans.
d) Plants can economically produce the hydrogen needed.
e) It contains a large amount of energy per unit volume of hydrogen gas.

Ans: e

Which of the following is not being considered as an energy source for the future?
a) ethanol
b) methanol
c) seed oil
d) shale oil
e) carbon dioxide

Ans: internal energy

The __________ of a system is the sum of the kinetic and potential energies of all the particles in the system.

Ans: Heat

__________ involves the transfer of energy between two objects due to a temperature difference.

c

Which form of electromagnetic radiation has the longest wavelengths?
a) gamma rays
b) microwaves
c) radio waves
d) infrared radiation
e) x-rays

e

Which of the following are incorrectly paired?
a) wavelength - 
b) frequency - 
c) speed of light - c
d) hertz - s-1
e) x-rays - shortest wavelength

c

A line in the spectrum of atomic mercury has a wavelength of 258 nm. When mercury emits a photon of light at this wavelength, the frequency of this light is
a) 8.61  10-16 s-1
b) 7.70  10-19 s-1
c) 1.16  1015 s-1
d) 77.3 s-1
e) none of these

a

What is the wavelength of a photon of red light (in nm) whose frequency is 4.64  1014 Hz?
a) 646 nm
b) 1.55  106 nm
c) 155 nm
d) 464 nm
e) none of these

c

Green light can have a wavelength of 512 nm. The energy of a photon of this light is
a) 1.02  10-31 J
b) 5.12  10-7 J
c) 3.88  10-19 J
d) 5.86  1014 J
e) 2.58  1018 J

a

Which one of the following types of radiation has the shortest wavelength, the greatest energy, and the highest frequency?
a) Ultraviolet radiation.
b) Infrared radiation.
c) Visible red light.
d) Visible blue light.
e) None, because short wavelength is associated with low energy and low frequency, not high energy and high frequency.

b

What is the energy of a photon of violet light that has a wavelength of 425 nm?
a) 4.25  10-7 J
b) 4.67  10-19 J
c) 7.05  1014 J
d) 8.44  10-32 J
e) 2.14  1018 J

a

How many of the following is/are incorrect?
i. The importance of the equation E = mc2 is that energy has mass.
ii. Electromagnetic radiation can be thought of as a stream of particles called photons.
iii. Electromagnetic radiation exhibits wave properties.
iv. Energy can only occur in discrete units called quanta.
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
e) 4

d

The four lines observed in the visible emission spectrum of hydrogen tell us that:
a) The hydrogen molecules they came from have the formula H4.
b) We could observe more lines if we had a stronger prism.
c) There are four electrons in an excited hydrogen atom.
d) Only certain energies are allowed for the electron in a hydrogen atom.
e) The spectrum is continuous.

d

In an investigation of the electronic absorption spectrum of a particular element, it is found that a photon having  = 500 nm provides just enough energy to promote an electron from the second quantum level to the third. From this information, we can deduce
a) the energy of the n = 2 level
b) the energy of the n = 3 level
c) the sum of the energies of n = 2 and n = 3
d) the difference in energies between n = 2 and n = 3
e) all of these

b

When a hydrogen electron makes a transition from n = 3 to n = 1, which of the following statements is true?
I. Energy is emitted
II. Energy is absorbed
III. The electron loses energy
IV. The electron gains energy
V. The electron can not make this transition
a) I, IV
b) I, III
c) II, III
d) II, IV
e) V

b

What is the wavelength of light that is emitted when an excited electron in the hydrogen atom falls from n = 5 to n = 1?
a) 1.05  107 m
b) 9.50  10-8 m
c) 2.09  10-18 m
d) 9.12  10-8 m
e) none of these

c

Which of the following is a reasonable criticism of the Bohr model of the atom?
a) It makes no attempt to explain why the negative electron does not eventually fall into the positive nucleus.
b) It does not adequately predict the line spectrum of hydrogen.
c) It does not adequately predict the ionization energy of the valence electron(s) for elements other than hydrogen.
d) It does not adequately predict the ionization energy of the first energy level electrons for one-electron species for elements other than hydrogen.
e) It shows the electrons to exist outside of the nucleus.

a

The energy of the light emitted when a hydrogen electron goes from n = 2 to n = 1 is what fraction of its ground-state ionization energy?
a) 3/4
b) 1/2
c) 1/4
d) 1/8
e) 1/9

b

In Bohr's atomic theory, when an electron moves from one energy level to another energy level more distant from the nucleus:
a) Energy is emitted.
b) Energy is absorbed.
c) No change in energy occurs.
d) Light is emitted.
e) None of these.

a

Which of the following is incorrect?
a) The emission spectrum of hydrogen contains a continuum of colors.
b) Diffraction produces both constructive and destructive interference.
c) All matter displays both particle and wavelike characteristics.
d) Niels Bohr developed a quantum model for the hydrogen atom.
e) The lowest possible energy state of a molecule or atom is called its ground state.

d

Which of the following statements is (are) true?
I.
An excited atom can return to its ground state by absorbing electromagnetic radiation.
II.
The energy of an atom is increased when electromagnetic radiation is emitted from it.
III.
The energy of electromagnetic radiation increases as its frequency increases.
IV.
An electron in the n = 4 state in the hydrogen atom can go to the n = 2 state by emitting electromagnetic radiation at the appropriate frequency.
V.
The frequency and wavelength of electromagnetic radiation are inversely proportional to each other.
a) II, III, IV
b) III, V
c) I, II, III
d) III, IV, V
e) I, II, IV

c

Which of the following statements best describes the Heisenberg uncertainty principle?
a) The exact position of an electron is always uncertain.
b) The velocity of a particle can only be estimated.
c) It is impossible to accurately know both the exact location and momentum of a particle.
d) The location and momentum of a macroscopic object are not known with certainty.
e) The location and momentum of a particle can be determined accurately, but not the identity of the particle.

c

Which of the following best describes an orbital?
a) space where electrons are unlikely to be found in an atom
b) space which may contain electrons, protons, and/or neutrons
c) the space in an atom where an electron is most likely to be found
d) small, walled spheres that contain electrons
e) a single space within an atom that contains all electrons of that atom

d

Which of the following is not determined by the principal quantum number, n, of the electron in a hydrogen atom?
a) The energy of the electron.
b) the minimum wavelength of the light needed to remove the electron from the atom.
c) The size of the corresponding atomic orbital(s).
d) The shape of the corresponding atomic orbital(s).
e) All of the above are determined by n.

a

How many f orbitals have the value n = 2?
a) 0
b) 3
c) 5
d) 7
e) 1

b

How many d orbitals have n = 4?
a) 2
b) 5
c) 10
d) 7
e) 18

b

If n = 2, how many orbitals are possible?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 2
d) 8
e) 6

c

A given set of p orbitals consists of ______ orbitals.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5

c

Which of the following is an incorrect designation for an atomic orbital?
a) 1s
b) 3d
c) 1p
d) 4f
e) 6s

a

The number of orbitals having a given value of l is equal to
a) 2l + 1
b) 2n + 2
c) 3l
d) l + ml
e) the number of lobes in each orbital

a

A point in the wave function where the amplitude is zero defines
a) the node
b) the excited state
c) the amplitude of the wave function
d) the frequency of radiation
e) none of the above

c

How many electrons in an atom can have the quantum numbers n = 3, l = 2?
a) 2
b) 5
c) 10
d) 18
e) 6

a

How many electrons can be described by the quantum numbers n = 2, l = 2, ml = 1?
a) 0
b) 2
c) 6
d) 10
e) 14

e

How many electrons can be contained in all of the orbitals with n = 4?
a) 2
b) 8
c) 10
d) 18
e) 32

b

What is the l quantum number for a 4p orbital?
a) 2
b) 1
c) 0
d) 3
e) more than one of the above

e

Which of the following could not be a valid ml quantum number for a 4f orbital?
a) 3
b) 1
c) -1
d) 2
e) 4

d

How many electrons in an atom can have the quantum numbers n = 4, l = 2?
a) 14
b) 12
c) 5
d) 10
e) 6

c

If l = 3, how many electrons can be contained in all the possible orbitals?
a) 7
b) 6
c) 14
d) 10
e) 5

a

Which of the following combinations of quantum numbers is not allowed?
a) n = 1, l = 1, ml = 0, ms = 1
2
b) n = 3, l = 0, ml = 0, ms = - 1
2
c) n = 2, l = 1, ml = -1, ms = 1
2
d) n = 4, l = 3, ml = -2, ms = - 1
2
e) n = 4, l = 2, ml = 0, ms = 1
2

d

The small, but important, energy differences between 3s, 3p, and 3d orbitals are due mainly to
a) the number of electrons they can hold
b) their principal quantum number
c) the Heisenberg uncertainty principle
d) the penetration effect
e) Hund's rule

b

Mendeleev is given the most credit for the concept of a periodic table of the elements because:
a) He had the longest history of research in elemental properties.
b) He emphasized its usefulness in predicting the existence and properties of unknown elements.
c) His representation of the table was the most understandable.
d) His periodic table was arranged in octaves.
e) He grouped elements into triads of similar properties.

a

Which of the following atoms or ions has three unpaired electrons?
a) N
b) O
c) Al
d) S2-
e) Ti2+

b

The electron configuration for the barium atom is:
a) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d10
b) [Xe]6s2
c) 1s22s22p63s23p64s1
d) 1s22s22p63s23p64s2
e) none of these

d

The complete electron configuration of antimony is
a) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p65s24d105d105p3
b) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104d104p3
c) 1s22s22p63s23p64s24p65s24d105d105p3
d) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p65s24d105p3
e) none of these

c

Which of the following statements is true?
a) The exact location of an electron can be determined if we know its energy.
b) An electron in a 2s orbital can have the same n, l, and ml quantum numbers as an electron in a 3s
orbital.
c) Ni has two unpaired electrons in its 3d orbitals.
d) In the buildup of atoms, electrons occupy the 4f orbitals before the 6s orbitals.
e) Only three quantum numbers are needed to uniquely describe an electron.

b

The statement that "the lowest energy configuration for an atom is the one having the maximum number of unpaired electrons allowed by the Pauli principle in a particular set of degenerate orbitals" is known as
a) the aufbau principle
b) Hund's rule
c) Heisenberg uncertainty principle
d) the Pauli exclusion principle
e) the quantum model

d

All alkali metals have the following number of valence electrons:
a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) 1
e) none of these

b

Ti has __________ in its d orbitals.
a) one electron
b) two electrons
c) three electrons
d) four electrons
e) none of these

b

Germanium has __________ in its 4p orbitals.
a) one electron
b) two electrons
c) three electrons
d) four electrons
e) none of these

d

Fe has __________ that is (are) unpaired in its d orbitals.
a) one electron
b) two electrons
c) three electrons
d) four electrons
e) none of these

e

In which group do all the elements have the same number of valence electrons?
a) P, S, Cl
b) Ag, Cd, Ar
c) Na, Ca, Ba
d) P, As, Se
e) none of these

b

An atom of fluorine contains nine electrons. How many of these electrons are in s orbitals?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
e) none

c

How many unpaired electrons are there in an atom of sulfur in its ground state?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
e) 4

a

Of the following elements, which has occupied d orbitals in its ground-state neutral atoms?
a) Ba
b) Ca
c) Si
d) P
e) Cl

d

Of the following elements, which needs three electrons to complete its valence shell?
a) Ba
b) Ca
c) Si
d) P
e) Cl

e

Which of the following electron configurations is correct?
a) Ga: [Kr]4s23d104p1
b) Mo: [Kr]5s24d5
c) Ca: [Ar]4s13d10
d) Br: [Kr]4s23d104p7
e) Bi: [Xe]6s24f145d106p3

b

1s22s22p63s23p64s23d3 is the correct electron configuration for which of the following atoms?
a) Ga
b) V
c) As
d) Nb
e) none of these

d

Which of the following atoms has three electrons in p orbitals in its valence shell?
a) Ba
b) Ga
c) V
d) Bi
e) none of these

b

How many of the following electron configurations for the species in their ground state are correct?
I.
Ca:
1s22s22p63s23p64s2
II.
Mg:
1s22s22p63s1
III.
V:
[Ar]3s23d3
IV.
As:
[Ar]4s23d104p3
V.
P:
1s22s22p63p5
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5

b

The number of unpaired electrons in the outer subshell of a Cl atom is
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
e) none of these

a

For which of the following elements does the electron configuration for the lowest energy state show a partially filled d orbital?
a) Ti
b) Rb
c) Cu
d) Ga
e) Kr

e

Which of the following electron configurations is different from that expected?
a) Ca
b) Sc
c) Ti
d) V
e) Cr

e

Which of the following have 10 electrons in the d orbitals?
a) Mn
b) Fe
c) Cu
d) Zn
e) two of the above

d

Which of the following is the highest energy orbital for a silicon atom?
a) 1s
b) 2s
c) 3s
d) 3p
e) 3d

c

Which of the following processes represents the ionization energy of bromine?
a) Br(s)  Br+(g) + e-
b) Br(l)  Br+(g) + e-
c) Br(g)  Br+(g) + e-
d) Br(s)  Br+(s) + e-
e) Br2(g)  Br2
+(g) + e-

a

Order the elements S, Cl, and F in terms of increasing ionization energy.
a) S, Cl, F
b) Cl, F, S
c) F, S, Cl
d) F, Cl, S
e) S, F, Cl

d

Order the elements S, Cl, and F in terms of increasing atomic radii.
a) S, Cl, F
b) Cl, F, S
c) F, S, Cl
d) F, Cl, S
e) S, F, Cl

e

Which of the following atoms would have the largest second ionization energy?
a) Mg
b) Cl
c) S
d) Ca
e) Na

c

The first ionization energy of Mg is 735 kJ/mol. The second ionization energy is
a) 735 kJ/mol
b) less than 735 kJ/mol
c) greater than 735 kJ/mol
d) More information is needed to answer this question.
e) None of these.

d

Which of the following exhibits the correct orders for both atomic radius and ionization energy,
respectively? (smallest to largest)
a) S, O, F, and F, O, S
b) F, S, O, and O, S, F
c) S, F, O, and S, F, O
d) F, O, S, and S, O, F
e) none of these

d

Choose the element with the highest ionization energy.
a) Na
b) Mg
c) Al
d) P
e) S

b

Which of the following concerning second ionization energies is true?
a) That of Al is higher than that of Mg because Mg wants to lose the second electron, so it is easier to
take the second electron away.
b) That of Al is higher than that of Mg because the electrons are taken from the same energy level, but the Al atom has one more proton.
c) That of Al is lower than that of Mg because Mg wants to lose the second electron, thus the energy change is greater.
d) That of Al is lower than that of Mg because the second electron taken from Al is in a p orbital, thus it is easier to take.
e) The second ionization energies are equal for Al and Mg.

c

Consider a planet where the temperature is so high that the ground state of an electron in the hydrogen atom is n = 4. What is the ratio of ionization energy for hydrogen on this planet compared to that on Earth?
a) 1 : 4
b) 4 : 1
c) 1 : 16
d) 16 : 1
e) 1 : 1

d

Consider the following orderings.
I.
Na+ < Mg2+ < Al3+ < Si4+
II.
Be < Mg < Ca < Sr
III.
I < Br < Cl < F
IV.
Al < Si < P < Cl
Which of these give(s) a correct trend in ionization energy?
a) III
b) II, IV
c) I, IV
d) I, III, IV
e) none of them

b

List the following atoms in order of increasing ionization energy: Li, Na, C, O, F.
a) Li < Na < C < O < F
b) Na < Li < C < O < F
c) F < O < C < Li < Na
d) Na < Li < F < O < C
e) Na < Li < C < F < O

a

Consider the ionization energy (IE) of the magnesium atom. Which of the following is not true?
a) The IE of Mg is lower than that of sodium.
b) The IE of Mg is lower than that of neon.
c) The IE of Mg is lower than that of beryllium.
d) The IE of Mg is higher than that of calcium.
e) The IE of Mg is lower than that of Mg+.

a

Of the following elements, which has the lowest first ionization energy?
a) Ba
b) Ca
c) Si
d) P
e) Cl

e

Of the following elements, which is most likely to form a negative ion with charge 1-?
a) Ba
b) Ca
c) Si
d) P
e) Cl

c

Which of the following atoms has the largest ionization energy?
a) O
b) Li
c) Ne
d) Be
e) K

b

Which of the following statements is true?
a) The first ionization potential of H is greater than that of He.
b) The ionic radius of Fe+ is larger than that of Fe3+.
c) The ionization energy of S2- is greater than that of Cl-.
d) The atomic radius of Li is larger than that of Cs.
e) All are false.

c

Which of the following statements is false?
a) A sodium atom has a smaller radius than a potassium atom.
b) A neon atom has a smaller radius than an oxygen atom.
c) A fluorine atom has a smaller first ionization energy than an oxygen atom.
d) A cesium atom has a smaller first ionization energy than a lithium atom.
e) All are true.

d

The statement that the first ionization energy for an oxygen atom is lower than the first ionization energy for a nitrogen atom is
a) consistent with the general trend relating changes in ionization energy across a period from left to right, because it is easier to take an electron from an oxygen atom than from a nitrogen atom
b) consistent with the general trend relating changes in ionization energy across a period from left to right, because it is harder to take an electron from an oxygen atom than from a nitrogen atom
c) inconsistent with the general trend relating changes in ionization energy across a period from left to right, due to the fact that the oxygen atom has two doubly-occupied 2p orbitals and nitrogen has only one
d) inconsistent with the general trend relating changes in ionization energy across a period from left to right, due to the fact that oxygen has one doubly-occupied 2p orbital and nitrogen does not
e) incorrect

c

Sodium losing an electron is an ________ process and fluorine losing an electron is an _______ process.
a) endothermic, exothermic
b) exothermic, endothermic
c) endothermic, endothermic
d) exothermic, exothermic
e) more information needed

d

Which of the following statements is true about the ionization energy of Mg+?
a) It will be equal to the ionization energy of Li.
b) It will be equal to and opposite in sign to the electron affinity of Mg.
c) It will be equal to and opposite in sign to the electron affinity of Mg+.
d) It will be equal to and opposite in sign to the electron affinity of Mg2+.
e) None of the above.

a

Which of the following statements is true?
a) The krypton 1s orbital is smaller than the helium 1s orbital because krypton's nuclear charge draws the electrons closer.
b) The krypton 1s orbital is larger than the helium 1s orbital because krypton contains more electrons.
c) The krypton 1s orbital is smaller than the helium 1s orbital because krypton's p and d orbitals crowd the s orbitals.
d) The krypton 1s orbital and helium 1s orbital are the same size because both s orbitals can only have two electrons.
e) The krypton 1s orbital is larger than the helium 1s orbital because krypton's ionization energy is lower, so it's easier to remove electrons.

d

Which of the following statements are false?
I.
It takes less energy to add an electron to nitrogen than to carbon because nitrogen will be closer to achieving a noble gas configuration.
II.
It takes more energy to add an electron to fluorine than to oxygen because the radius of fluorine is smaller and more repulsion would occur in the p-orbitals.
III.
It takes more energy to add an electron to nitrogen than to carbon because of the extra repulsions that would occur in the 2p orbitals.
IV.
Less energy is released in adding an electron to iodine than to chlorine because the radius of iodine is larger and the electron is added at a distance further from the nucleus.
a) II, III
b) I, II, IV
c) III only
d) I, II
e) All of the above are false statements.

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