Medical Microbiology Exam 4

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"Pox" is a term synonymous with which of the following?

a pustule

"Ringworm" is caused by

dermatophytes growing in the upper dead tissue layers of the skin.

A(n) __________ vaccine to prevent cervical cancer was recently developed.

recombinant

An anamnestic response is

another name for secondary response.

Another name for brucellosis is

undulant fever.

Antibodies are a part of which type of immunity?

humoral

Antigen processing and presentation

is a way for a cell to give information about its activities.

An antigen that is potent enough to activate a B cell on its own is known as

T-independent antigens.

Antigens are

specific molecules, or parts of molecules, that the body recognizes as foreign.

Antivenin is

an antitoxin used to treat snakebites.

BCG is a vaccine against Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The vaccine is composed of a live Mycobacterium bovis variant called bacillus of Calmette and Guérin. This is an example of which type of vaccine?

attenuated whole agent vaccine

Both the innate and adaptive defenses of the immune system work to prevent

the penetration and colonization by pathogens, and the diseases they cause.

A bull's-eye rash is associated with infections of which of the following?

Borrelia burgdorferi

Cat scratch disease is caused by

Bartonella henselae.

The causative agent of bubonic and pneumonic plague is

Yersinia pestis.

The condition known as "pinkeye" may be the result of infection with

Haemophilus influenzae.

Cytokines are produced by which of the following cells?

Helper T-cells

Dengue hemorrhagic fever is actually

a hyperimmune response to reinfection with dengue virus.

Diapedesis is the process of

the squeezing of cells through the lining of capillaries to attack invading microbes.

The disease known as cryptococcal meningitis

results from exposure to bird droppings and begins as a lung infection.

Ebola hemorrhagic fever is caused by which of the following virus types?

filoviruses

Encephalitis is an infection of

the brain

Endocytosis of Streptococcus pneumoniae by various body cells is triggered by

phosphorylcholine.

Enhanced immune responses to subsequent exposures to an antigen to which the body has already been exposed are known as

memory responses

Exposure to HIV can be verified using a(n) __________ assay.

western blot

First line defenses have what aspect in common with each other?

They are physical barriers against invading pathogens.

First line of defense may be described as

intact skin, sebum, tears, etc

Functions of the meninges include

support for the brain and spinal cord and protection from external shock.

The glycoprotein and glycolipid molecules on the surface of red blood cells

stimulate the production of antibodies that contribute to the development of a transfusion reaction.

HIV directly infects T-cells. Why is this problematic for cell-mediated immunity?

Cytotoxic T-cells begin to attack the virally infected T-cells, reducing the number of T-cells in the body.

How can a sufficient humoral immune response occur if a plasma cell only lives for a few days?

Each plasma cell can produce up to 2000 antibodies every second.

How can type I allergic reactions be diagnosed?

by injecting very small quantities of dilute solutions of suspected allergens under the skin

How do helper T-cells and cytotoxic T-cells work together?

Helper T-cells produce cytokines to activate other cells of the immune system.

How do phagocytes communicate to other cells what they have captured?

They present antigens from engulfed foreign cells.

How does tetanospasmin act?

It blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters in the CNS.

How is phagocytosis in the immune system different from protozoan phagocytosis?

Protozoan phagocytosis is used for feeding; phagocytosis by immune cells is used to fight infection.

How is the secondary response different from the primary response in terms of antibody concentration in the blood?

The secondary response is faster and produces more antibodies than the primary response.

How might a pathogenic bacterium be affected by antibodies?

The antibodies may block proteins necessary for binding the pathogen to the host, may opsonize the bacterium, or may agglutinate bacteria.

If a new bacterial pathogen entered a human body through an accidental needle stick, the first cell that would try to kill the pathogen would likely be

a phagocyte.

If a person turns their ankle, how would one determine if damage to the tissue in the ankle has occurred?

The ankle is red, swollen, and warm to the touch.

An indication of infection with Human herpesvirus 4 is

high fever and sore throat.

An inflammatory response would result from which of the following?

jellyfish sting

The least common type of polio is

paralytic polio

Legionella pneumophila is an opportunistic pathogen that

survives in the environment as an intracellular parasite of a protozoan.

The leukocytes called natural killer lymphocytes

are nonspecific leukocytes that secrete toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells.

Limiting exposure to rodents and their waste materials is an important means of controlling

Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome.

Listeria monocytogenes pathogenesis is directly related to its ability to

live and reproduce inside its host's cells.

Lyme disease is caused by ____________ and is transmitted by __________.

B. burgdorferi; Ixodes

The M protein on the surface of Streptococcus pyogenes

is part of the capsule and prevents adherence of phagocytes to its surface.

The majority of adult cases of pneumonia are caused by

Streptococcus pneumoniae.

The majority of cases of otitis media are caused by

Streptococcus pneumoniae.

Natural killer cells are activated by

TH1 cells.

nfection with which of the following species of Plasmodium is most likely to be fatal?

P. falciparum

Opportunistic infections typical of AIDS but rare otherwise include

Pneumocystis pneumonia and Kaposi's sarcoma.

The optic nerves are an example of which of the following?

sensory nerves

Pathogenic streptococci of the upper respiratory tract (such as Streptococcus pyogenes) are distinguished from non-pathogenic streptococci by

beta hemolytic activity.

A patient enters the emergency room with itchy, swollen hives. This is an example of a ___________ allergic response called __________.

localized; urticaria

A patient exhibiting arthritis secondary to Lyme disease is likely in which phase of the infection?

third

Patients can receive one of two different types of influenza vaccine, both of which use whole viruses. The nasal spray uses live virus and is an example of a(n) ________ vaccine, while the injection uses killed virus and is an example of a(n)___________ vaccine.

attenuated whole agent, inactivated whole agent

Phagocytes release ________, which result in the production of fever.

pyrogens

Phagocytosis is defined as

the ingestion of solid material by a eukaryotic cell.

The phenomenon know as chemotaxis is defined as

the movement of a cell toward or away from a chemical stimulus.

A pigment produced by an opportunistic pathogen that contributes to tissue damage is

pyocyanin.

Pneumocystis jiroveci is

a common member of the respiratory microbiota in humans.

Poliovirus is most often transmitted via

contaminated water.

The primary immune response involves

a slow rise in the concentration of antibodies, followed by a gradual decline.

Primary immunodeficiency diseases

are detectable close to birth

Protection from infection known as species resistance is a result of

both the absence of necessary receptors and lack of suitable environment in the body.

A response that is uniquely directed against pathogenic Bordetella pertussis would involve what component?

antibodies

The skin is an effective barrier against invading microbes because

the outer layers are dead and covered in salt.

Slow deterioration of muscle function occurring over many years occurs in

postpolio syndrome

T cells recognized the antigen displayed by what protein of the B cell?

MHC

T or F: Sweat contains lysozyme.

True

TH2 cells produce cytokines that activate

B cells

Titration is a serological procedure that

determines the amount of an antibody in the blood.

To vaccinate children against the bacterial infection diphtheria, pure diphtheria toxin is chemically modified and injected as a vaccine. This is an example of which type of vaccine?

toxoid vaccine

Transovarian transmission is a process by which

an infected female vector transmits a pathogen to the eggs in its ovaries.

Trypanosoma cruzi is transmitted by which of the following?

Triatoma bugs

Tsetse flies transmit

African sleeping sickness.

The tuberculin response is mediated by

memory T cells

Tuberculosis is the name of the ___________ caused by the _________ Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

disease; bacterium

Tuberculosis may be diagnosed using

a direct fluorescent antibody test.

Type I diabetes is a(n) __________ .

autoimmune disease

The typical signs and symptoms of flu are a result of

cytokines released as part of the immune response.

A vaccine is currently available against which of the following microbes?

poliovirus

The vaccine to prevent tetanus is a(n) __________ vaccine.

toxoid

What can you deduce from the treatment strategy for M. tuberculosis infection?

The organism has some innate resistance to antibiotics.

What is a feature of the small fragments presented by MHC-I proteins?

They are small peptides, roughly 8-10 amino acids long.

What is apoptosis?

The process of programmed cell death.

What is produced by the process of clonal expansion?

plasma cells and memory B cells

What is the fate of activated cytotoxic T-cells?

They proliferate into a clone of cells specific to the same antigen; some of these cells then differentiate into long-lived memory T-cells, while others mature to attack infected cells.

What is the function of inflammation in response to a burn from a hot iron?

To repair the damaged tissue

What is the function of the CD8 receptor?

Bind to MHC molecules

What is the role of plasma cells in humoral immunity?

Plasma cells produce antibodies.

What is the underlying problem in most acquired immunodeficiencies?

declining cell-mediated immunity

What makes agglutination by antibodies possible?

Each antibody has at least two antigen-binding sites.

When do helper T-cells develop into TH1 or TH2 cells?

After proliferation into a clonal population

When does MHC-II loading occur?

During the fusion of vesicles containing MHC-II proteins with vesicles containing digested pathogens.

Where are MHC molecules located on a cell?

On the surface of the cell

Which cells are involved in a secondary response?

Memory B cells and plasma cells

Which event happens first during cytotoxic T-cell activation?

CD8 binds to MHC molecules of infected cells

Which molecule triggers apoptosis?

Granzyme

Which of the cells listed below can present antigens on Class II MHC proteins?

macrophages

Which of the following best characterizes clonal selection?

The production of identical B cells producing the same antibody

Which of the following can cause birth defects?

rubella

Which of the following causative agents of bacterial meningitis is transmitted by contaminated food?

Listeria monocytogenes

Which of the following could be true of tuberculosis of the kidney?

The patient would likely be infected with MDR TB or XDR TB.
The disease could be subsequent to a normal primary infection.
The patient would likely have a positive skin test.
The disease could be subsequent to a reactivated latent infection.
ALL OF THE ABOVE COULD BE TRUE.

Which of the following diseases is a major problem for AIDS patients?

toxoplasmosis

Which of the following diseases is considered diagnostic for AIDS?

Pneumocystis pneumonia

Which of the following diseases is currently vaccine-preventable in humans?

yellow fever

Which of the following factors is primarily responsible for the ability of Mycobacterium tuberculosis to survive long periods of time in dried droplets of respiratory aerosols?

the presence of mycolic acid in the cell wall

Which of the following forms of leishmaniasis is typically fatal?

visceral

Which of the following is classified as a spongiform encephalopathy?

variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

Which of the following is NOT one of the signs of inflammation?

swelling (tumor), heat (calor), redness (rubor), ODOR, pain (dolor)

Which of the following is part of the upper respiratory system?

pharynx

Which of the following must happen during Lyme disease?

There is an adaptive immune response.

Which of the following produces the most deadly toxins known?

Clostridium botulinum

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the common cold?

Cold viruses are frequently spread by contaminated fomites.

Which of the following types of bacterial toxins is associated exclusively with Gram-negative bacteria?

endotoxin

Which of the following vessels carries blood from the heart to the rest of the body?

the aorta

Which of the following would be most affected by treatment with an antihistamine?

mast cells and basophils

Which of the following would NOT be an example of a common allergen?

HAY FEVER, dust mites, pollen, peanuts

Which of the following would test positive for the tuberculin response?

someone who has been immunized with the tuberculosis vaccine or has previously had tuberculosis

Which organelle assists directly with the presentation of MHC-I antigens?

the endoplasmic reticulum

Which part of the adaptive immune response involves B cells?

humoral

Which proteins on the antigen-presenting cell are recognized by the helper T-cell?

MHC proteins

Which receptor on the helper T-cell recognizes the specific antigen from an antigen-presenting cell?

TCR

Which type of cell directly attacks infected cells?

Cytotoxic T-cells

Whole blood with the formed elements and clotting proteins removed is called

serum

Why would a body cell that is not a phagocyte need to present antigens?

Non-phagocytic body cells can become infected with a virus.

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