Government Exam 2

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1) A basic reason for the existence of so many interest groups in the United States is
a. the American tradition of free association.
b. the extent of diverse interests in American society.
c. America's federal system of government.
d. the separation of powers in American government.
e. All these answers are correct.

e. All these answers are correct.

2) According to James Madison, the source of most factions is the

a. unequal distribution of property.
b. American political tradition of association.
c. system of separation of powers in the U.S.
d. spirit of individualism.
e. concept of majority rule.

a. unequal distribution of property.

3) The most fully organized interests are those that have which of the following as their primary purpose?
a. agriculture
b. economic activity
c. civil liberties
d. labor reform
e. reform of government

b. economic activity

4) Citizens' interest groups are distinguished from economic interest groups by the fact that
a. their leaders are elected by secret ballot of the group's members.
b. their members receive no direct economic benefit from attainment of the group's goals.
c. they do not lobby government officials directly, but rely instead on public service announcements to get their views across to society.
d. they always pursue goals in which there is a high level of agreement among society members.
e. All these answers are correct.

b. their members receive no direct economic benefit from attainment of the group's goals.

5) Why have issue networks become more prevalent than iron triangles?
a. the increasing power of corporate lobbying
b. the increasing diversity of interest groups
c. the increasing influence of PACs
d. the instability of candidates' positions
e. the increasing complexity of policy problems

e. the increasing complexity of policy problems

6) The situation in which individuals are tempted not to contribute to a cause because they will get the benefits even if they do not participate is called
a. the size factor.
b. the free-rider problem.
c. the special-interest paradox.
d. the disincentive factor.
e. the zero-sum game

b. the free-rider problem.

7) Roughly one in six American workers currently belong to unions. True or False

False

8) Economic groups have an advantage over non-economic groups because
a. they nearly always have larger memberships.
b. they are organized primarily for political purposes.
c. they have better leadership.
d. they have greater access to financial resources.
e. their members are committed to their causes.

d. they have greater access to financial resources.

9) "Agency capture" occurs when
a. a regulatory agency funnels money back into the lobbying organizations that are seeking policy changes.
b. regulatory agencies side with the industries they are supposed to regulate rather than with the public.
c. the executive branch takes back control of a regulatory agency by passing regulation to prevent undue influence by lobbying organizations.
d. a regulatory agency must be dismantled because it has become corrupted.
e. an election results in the replacement of an agency's leadership through appointive positions under a new president.

b. regulatory agencies side with the industries they are supposed to regulate rather than with the public.

10) Which citizens' group did a Fortune magazine survey rank as the nation's most powerful lobbying group?
a. the NAACP
b. the AFL-CIO
c. the AARP
d. MADD
e. Common Cause

c. the AARP

11) In acknowledging the dilemma inherent in group activity, James Madison
a. argued that the free-rider problem would hurt some groups more than others.
b. claimed that government could listen to all groups, but should only enact policies that promote the interests of majority groups.
c. worried that government would be overly dominated by groups, but recognized that a free society is obliged to permit the advocacy of self-interest.
d. argued that government must restrict the activities of groups, so that political parties could act as the major instrument of democracy.
e. All these answers are correct.

c. worried that government would be overly dominated by groups, but recognized that a free society is obliged to permit the advocacy of self-interest.

12) Effective inside lobbying is based upon
a. countering the aims of other groups.
b. providing useful and persuasive information to key officials.
c. mobilizing the group's members.
d. bribing or threatening officials.
e. using the media to exert pressure.

b. providing useful and persuasive information to key officials.

13) A main difference between iron triangles and issue networks is that
a. an iron triangle includes members of the legislative, executive, and judicial branches, while issue networks bypass the judicial branch.
b. issue networks involve a stable group of bureaucrats, legislators, and lobbyists, while iron triangles exclude lobbyists in an attempt to reach impartial decisions.
c. issue networks are generally less stable than iron triangles, in that the members of an issue network may change as the issue develops.
d. issue networks, being less formal, rely on outside lobbying only, while iron triangles use inside lobbying only.
e. All these answers are correct.

c. issue networks are generally less stable than iron triangles, in that the members of an issue network may change as the issue develops.

14) In recent decades, lobbyists in Washington, D.C. have increasingly
a. targeted the executive branch in their efforts to influence policy decisions.
b. relied on coercive tactics, such as threats of withdrawing election support.
c. worked to defeat incumbent members of Congress in order to replace them with members who would be more supportive.
d. relied exclusively on inside lobbying as the means of gaining their policy goals.
e. ignored the judicial branch as a means of influencing policy decisions.

a. targeted the executive branch in their efforts to influence policy decisions.

15) The influence of interest groups through the courts occurs through
a. initiating lawsuits.
b. lobbying for certain judges to be appointed to the bench.
c. outside lobbying only.
d. PACs.
e. both initiating lawsuits and lobbying for certain judges to be appointed to the bench.

e. both initiating lawsuits and lobbying for certain judges to be appointed to the bench.

16) The term iron triangle refers to
a. a tightly-knit set of lobbying groups.
b. the relationship between the Congress, the military, and defense contractors.
c. a small and informal but relatively stable set of bureaucrats, legislators, and lobbyists who are concerned with promoting a particular interest.
d. the strategy of lobbying all three branches of government simultaneously.
e. a corrupt relationship among the president, Congress, and the Supreme Court.

c. a small and informal but relatively stable set of bureaucrats, legislators, and lobbyists who are concerned with promoting a particular interest.

17) Which of the following is roughly the amount that was spent on lobbying in the United States in 2009?
a. $250 billion
b. $10 billion
c. $350 million
d. $35 billion
e. $3.5 billion

e. $3.5 billion

18) The support of ________ was critical to passage of a controversial prescription drug program for the elderly in 2003.
a. the AARP
b. Greenpeace
c. the ACLU
d. the NAACP
e. the ABA

a. the AARP

19) The largest number of PACs are those associated with
a. single-issue groups, such as environmental groups and right-to-life groups.
b. labor.
c. business.
d. agriculture.
e. education.

c. business.

20) During his visit to this country in the 1830s, Alexis de Tocqueville described the United States as "a nation of ________."
a. freeloaders
b. loners
c. joiners
d. fighters
e. stalwarts

c. joiners

1. The news provides a refracted version of reality because it
a. emphasizes dramatic and compelling news stories.
b. is biased in favor of a Republican viewpoint.
c. is biased in favor of a Democratic viewpoint.
d. is biased in favor of a liberal perspective.
e. is biased in favor of a conservative perspective.

a. emphasizes dramatic and compelling news stories.

2. The yellow journalism of the late nineteenth century was characterized by
a. the use of the telegraph.
b. the emphasis on sensationalism as a way of selling newspapers.
c. prejudice against Asian people and countries.
d. an unwillingness to take editorial positions because of a fear of losing circulation.
e. the desire to present the news in an objective manner.

b. the emphasis on sensationalism as a way of selling newspapers.

3. Objective journalism is based on the idea that the reporter's job is to
a. report the facts and cover alternative sides of a partisan debate.
b. report what political leaders want them to report.
c. discover what other reporters are saying and provide a uniform interpretation of events.
d. scrutinize the partisan debate, and inform the news audience about which party has the better argument.
e. All these answers are correct.

a. report the facts and cover alternative sides of a partisan debate.

4. The federal government's licensing of broadcasting is based primarily on
a. the fact that broadcasting is a national medium.
b. the scarcity of broadcasting frequencies.
c. the fact that broadcasting was invented after the First Amendment was adopted.
d. the desire of national officials to control the content of broadcast news and entertainment.
e. a desire to censor reporters so that they will stop criticizing governmental officials.

b. the scarcity of broadcasting frequencies.

5. The term "framing" is used to describe
a. the media's ability to influence what is on people's minds.
b. the process of selecting certain aspects of reality and making them the most salient part of the communication, thereby conveying a particular interpretation of a situation.
c. the media's obligation to convey a uniform and standard interpretation of a situation.
d. the nature of media reporting when objectivity has weakened and the system has tilted in favor of yellow journalism.
e. the primary right of the media that is protected by the First Amendment.

b. the process of selecting certain aspects of reality and making them the most salient part of the communication, thereby conveying a particular interpretation of a situation.

6. What development brought about a dramatic reduction in television's capacity to generate an interest in news?
a. an increase in newspaper circulation
b. the loss of objective journalistic standards
c. the rapid spread of cable
d. the rise of Internet news consumption
e. a drop in education levels in the United States

c. the rapid spread of cable

7. One of the reasons the reporting of national news is relatively uniform among news sources is that
a. the government dictates much of what is reported.
b. there are only a few important events each day that merit news coverage.
c. a small number of news organizations and news services generate most of the news.
d. reporters are not given much freedom by their editors.
e. journalists have a tendency to be fairly lazy.

c. a small number of news organizations and news services generate most of the news.

8. How has the Internet affected the watchdog capacity of the media?
a. It has diluted the watchdog capacity with an overflow of opinions.
b. It has expanded the watchdog capacity of the media.
c. It has tainted the watchdog role with a partisan bent.
d. It has almost completely usurped the watchdog role from the traditional media outlets.
e. It has had little to no effect because it lacks the objective standards of traditional media outlets.

b. It has expanded the watchdog capacity of the media

9. During the era of objective journalism, the commitment of newspapers to two-sided news reporting
a. did not extend to their editorializing.
b. was enshrined in the editorial section.
c. was uniform throughout the sections of a newspaper.
d. deteriorated democracy in the United States.
e. All these answers are correct.

a. did not extend to their editorializing.

10. During what decade did the American news audience change from a growing to a shrinking one?
a. the 1960s
b. the 1980s
c. the 1990s
d. the 1970s
e. The audience has not yet begun to shrink.

b. the 1980s

11. In the 1960s, presidential candidates
a. received more negative coverage than they do today.
b. were largely ignored by the media.
c. were hounded by the media incessantly.
d. had longer sound bites, on average, in broadcast television newscasts.
e. None of these answers is correct.

d. had longer sound bites, on average, in broadcast television newscasts.

12. The traditional media have "softened" their news by
a. infusing it with more partisan talk shows.
b. infusing it with more stories about celebrities, crime, and the like.
c. infusing it with more coverage of international affairs.
d. focusing on editorials instead of nonpartisan facts.
e. None of these answers is correct.

b. infusing it with more stories about celebrities, crime, and the like.

13. Yellow journalism contributed to public support for the
a. Spanish-American War.
b. Civil War.
c. War of 1812.
d. Mexican War of 1848.
e. American Revolution.

a. Spanish-American War.

14. One special contribution of Internet-based news is that it
a. provides the ordinary citizen with an opportunity to be part of the news system.
b. provides much faster reporting.
c. offers more unbiased reporting.
d. prevents rampant editorializing.
e. is more accessible by a larger audience than television or radio news reporting.

a. provides the ordinary citizen with an opportunity to be part of the news system.

15. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Objective journalism is based on communication of facts and fairness.
b. Yellow journalism attempts to describe what is taking place or has occurred.
c. The New York Post is the bulletin board of major newspapers.
d. Objective journalism is based on communication of facts and fairness, while yellow journalism attempts to describe what is taking place or has occurred.
e. None of these answers is correct.

a. Objective journalism is based on communication of facts and fairness.

16. CNN and MSNBC have responded to Fox's ratings success by
a. reducing the number of talk shows in their line-up.
b. increasing the number of talk shows hosted by liberals.
c. attempting to lure audiences by focusing on their unbiased news reporting.
d. installing talk-show hosts with nonpartisan appeal.
e. installing talk-show hosts with partisan or hard-edged appeals.

e. installing talk-show hosts with partisan or hard-edged appeals.

17. The reason the news product is designed to fascinate as well as to inform is because
a. news organizations are fundamentally businesses and must obtain revenue to survive.
b. of the high level of illiteracy.
c. the print media wish to emulate the broadcast media.
d. of the need to compete with Hollywood productions.
e. All these answers are correct.

a. news organizations are fundamentally businesses and must obtain revenue to survive.

18. Agenda-setting is an action that falls under which of the major roles played by the press?
a. common-carrier
b. signaling
c. watchdog
d. partisan advocate
e. news interpreter

b. signaling

19. The Watergate scandal illustrates the
a. futility of media attempts to forecast political events.
b. inadequacy of the media as a common-carrier to the public.
c. power of the media to serve as watchdog to safeguard against abuses of power.
d. ability of the press to serve as the public's representative in political disputes.
e. abuse of power by journalists in the United States.

c. power of the media to serve as watchdog to safeguard against abuses of power.

20. The news media's common-carrier role is based on the idea that
a. the news will be available to all citizens.
b. various news organizations should interpret the news in nearly the same way.
c. the press should not charge for public service announcements.
d. the press should provide a channel through which political leaders can communicate their views to the public.
e. the press should be patriotic in the reporting of the news.

d. the press should provide a channel through which political leaders can communicate their views to the public.

1. If the Rules Committee applies the "closed rule" to a bill,
a. no amendments will be permitted.
b. the bill will not be allowed a vote.
c. the bill will require a 2/3 majority for passage.
d. no further floor debate is allowed.
e. no filibusters will be allowed to prevent a vote.

a. no amendments will be permitted.

2. Compared to House incumbents, Senate incumbents are more likely to face the problem of
a. raising enough money to run a strong campaign.
b. an electorate that is inclined to judge their fitness for reelection in the context of pork-barrel legislation and other favors for the local community.
c. a strong challenger.
d. name recognition.
e. All these answers are correct.

c. a strong challenger.

3. Compared with the Senate majority leader, the Speaker of the House has more power because
a. the House places more limits on debate.
b. the House is the larger chamber in terms of membership.
c. the House has less of a tradition as a chamber of equals.
d. the Speaker is that chamber's presiding officer.
e. All these answers are correct.

e. All these answers are correct.

4. A standing committee in the House or Senate
a. is a permanent committee.
b. has jurisdiction over a particular policy area.
c. has authority to draft, amend, and recommend legislation.
d. is usually organized according to the seniority principle.
e. All these answers are correct.

e. All these answers are correct.

5. When the House and Senate pass different versions of a bill, the differences are resolved by a
a. conference committee.
b. standing committee.
c. select committee.
d. rules committee.
e. joint committee.

a. conference committee.

6. One must be ________ years of age to serve in the U.S. House of Representatives, and ________ years of age to serve in the U.S. Senate.
a. 18; 21
b. 21; 25
c. 25; 30
d. 35; 45
e. 40; 50

c. 25; 30

7. The second most powerful federal official (after the president) is often said to be
a. the chair of the House Appropriations Committee.
b. the president pro tempore of the U.S. Senate.
c. the Speaker of the U.S. House of Representatives.
d. the chair of the Senate Foreign Relations Committee.
e. the Senate majority leader.

c. the Speaker of the U.S. House of Representatives.

8. In the nation's first century,
a. service in Congress was even more of a lifetime career than it is now.
b. members of Congress would move from House to Senate and back with little concern for the relative power and prestige of the chambers.
c. service in Congress was not seen as a lifetime career for most of its members.
d. service in Congress was restricted by the imposition of term limits in many states.
e. service in Congress was greatly preferred to service in state government.

c. service in Congress was not seen as a lifetime career for most of its members.

9. The modern Congress is different from the nineteenth century Congress in that most members
a. are now professional politicians who want to stay in Congress.
b. are now amateur politicians who want only to spend a short time in Congress.
c. are now minorities or women.
d. now have previously been governors of their home states.
e. return to their respective state legislatures after their congressional service is over.

a. are now professional politicians who want to stay in Congress.

10. Because of the inherent tension in Congress between the need for strong leadership at the top and the individual congressional member's need to act according to local concerns,
a. Congress is unable to take effective action to counter the growth in the power of the president.
b. power in the Congress is widely fragmented.
c. power in the Congress is highly centralized in the Speaker and Senate president pro tempore.
d. members of Congress prefer to address international issues because the tension between local and national issues is less substantial in this situation.
e. Congress has been unable to take effective action to counter the growth in the power of the Supreme Court.

b. power in the Congress is widely fragmented.

11. Which nation does NOT have a one-house dominant legislature?
a. Canada
b. Germany
c. the United States
d. Great Britain
e. None of these answers is correct, as all these nations have one-house dominant legislatures.

c. the United States

12. Through a vote for cloture, the Senate
a. confirms presidential appointees.
b. can end a filibuster.
c. overrides a presidential pocket veto.
d. accepts the House version of a bill.
e. closes its legislative session for the year.

b. can end a filibuster.

13. Congress's inability to consistently provide leadership on broad national issues is due to
a. the lack of talented leadership in Congress.
b. the fragmented nature of Congress.
c. constitutional restrictions on Congress's lawmaking powers.
d. the constant threat of a presidential veto.
e. opposition from the mass media.

b. the fragmented nature of Congress.

14. Congress typically takes presidential proposals
a. only as a starting point.
b. only if the dominant party is the same as the president's party.
c. and most often fast-tracks them into law.
d. and tables them until they expire.
e. None of these answers is correct.

a. only as a starting point.

15. In initiating broad legislative proposals, the president enjoys all the following advantages over Congress EXCEPT
a. the president being more likely to take a national perspective on policy issues.
b. the president being granted more authority by the Constitution in the area of lawmaking.
c. the president's actions receiving more attention from the national media.
d. the president having the authority to make policy decisions even when there are conflicting views within the executive branch, while congressional leaders cannot impose their views on other members who disagree with them.
e. a lack of fragmentation.

b. the president being granted more authority by the Constitution in the area of lawmaking.

16. Most members of Congress are
a. concerned with national issues, but even more concerned with local ones.
b. controlled by special interest groups.
c. interested only in the work of the subcommittee on which they serve.
d. opposed to the seniority system.
e. more interested in oversight than in making laws.

a. concerned with national issues, but even more concerned with local ones.

17. By and large, partisanship is
a. irrelevant to the work of Congress.
b. a huge source of both cohesion and division within Congress.
c. relevant only in the context of local representation.
d. important in lawmaking and representation but not in oversight.
e. more important in foreign policy than in domestic policy.

b. a huge source of both cohesion and division within Congress.

18. Which of the following is one of the three major functions of Congress's policymaking role?
a. lawmaking
b. check the president
c. appease special interests
d. inform the people
e. check the Supreme Court

a. lawmaking

19. Most of the work on legislation in Congress is done
a. by committees and their respective subcommittees.
b. on the floor of the House and Senate.
c. by conference committees.
d. by the president.
e. by bureaucratic agencies.

a. by committees and their respective subcommittees.

20. What is the strategy employed in the Senate to prevent a bill from coming to a vote?
a. mark up
b. filibuster
c. cloture
d. pocket veto
e. conference committee

b. filibuster

1. The president's constitutional roles, such as chief executive and commander in chief,
a. are based on very precise constitutional grants of power.
b. are rooted in tradition only; they have no basis in the language of the Constitution.
c. are not subject to check by Congress.
d. have expanded in practice to be more powerful than the writers of the Constitution intended.
e. are absolute powers under the Constitution.

d. have expanded in practice to be more powerful than the writers of the Constitution intended.

2. Congress has formally declared war ________ times in U.S. history.
a. 2
b. 5
c. 55
d. 200
e. 6,500

b. 5

3. The Executive Office of the President (EOP) was created in ________.
a. 1789
b. 1804
c. 1865
d. 1888
e. 1939

e. 1939

4. The presidential advisory unit that, as a whole, has declined significantly as an advisory resource for the president in the twentieth century is the
a. Council of Economic Advisers.
b. Office of Management and Budget.
c. White House Office.
d. National Security Council.
e. the Cabinet (as a whole).

e. the Cabinet (as a whole).

5. Which of the following did the framers want from a president?
a. national leadership
b. administration of the laws
c. statesmanship in foreign affairs
d. command of the military
e. All these answers are correct.

e. All these answers are correct.

6. The presidency was created by Article ________ of the U.S. Constitution.
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
e. VII

b. II

7. ________ ended the practice of party caucuses in Congress and in state legislatures nominating presidential candidates.
a. George Washington
b. Thomas Jefferson
c. James Madison
d. Andrew Jackson
e. Martin Van Buren

d. Andrew Jackson

8. Which of the following presidents failed to win a popular vote majority, but still won the presidency?
a. John Quincy Adams
b. Rutherford B. Hayes
c. Benjamin Harrison
d. George W. Bush
e. All these answers are correct.

e. All these answers are correct.

9. Which one of the following did NOT serve as a state governor prior to being president?
a. Ronald Reagan
b. Bill Clinton
c. John Kennedy
d. George W. Bush
e. Jimmy Carter

c. John Kennedy

10. Which of the following is part of the Executive Office of the President?
a. Office of Management and Budget
b. National Economic Council
c. National Security Council
d. Office of the Vice President
e. All these answers are correct.

e. All these answers are correct.

11. Which of the following is a formal constitutional requirement for becoming president?
a. One must be at least 40 years of age.
b. One must be a resident in the United States for at least 10 years.
c. One must be a natural-born citizen.
d. One must be a white male.
e. One must be a Protestant.

c. One must be a natural-born citizen

12. Which of the following was a provision of the War Powers Act?
a. It prohibits the president from sending troops into combat.
b. It requires hostilities to end within sixty days unless Congress extends the period.
c. It requires Congress to consult with the president whenever feasible before passing measures that will restrict president-ordered military action.
d. It requires the president to inform Congress within one month of the reason for the military action.
e. It removes from Congress the power to restrict the timing or size of president-initiated military actions.

b. It requires hostilities to end within sixty days unless Congress extends the period.

13. The honeymoon period occurs during
a. a president's second term only.
b. the first part of a president's term.
c. the period of a president's term immediately following a successful foreign policy initiative.
d. the period of a president's term immediately following a successful domestic policy initiative.
e. the State of the Union address.

13. The honeymoon period occurs during
a. a president's second term only.
b. the first part of a president's term.
c. the period of a president's term immediately following a successful foreign policy initiative.
d. the period of a president's term immediately following a successful domestic policy initiative.
e. the State of the Union address.

14. The War Powers Act was enacted in order to
a. guide the military in its use of force in field situations where it is impractical to seek direction from the president.
b. allow the president more leeway in committing U.S. troops to combat.
c. define the relationship between the United States and its allies.
d. limit the president's war-making power.
e. weaken Congress in foreign policy matters.

d. limit the president's war-making power.

15. The forced removal of a president from office through impeachment and conviction requires action by the
a. House of Representatives only.
b. Senate only.
c. House and Senate in a joint session.
d. House and Senate in separate proceedings.
e. Supreme Court in a judicial proceeding.

d. House and Senate in separate proceedings.

16. Which of the following describes what political scientist Hugh Heclo calls "the illusion of presidential government"?
a. the inability of the president to influence the legislative priorities of Congress, even though the party in power pays lip-service to the president's agenda
b. the presidential image-building through public relations that contributes to the idea that the president is in charge of the national government
c. the belief by the public that Congress should follow the presidential agenda, regardless of whether or not the majority part is the same party of the president
d. the image-building that the president's foreign policy strength lends to the rest of his agenda

b. the presidential image-building through public relations that contributes to the idea that the president is in charge of the national government

17. During 2006, the year before Democrats took back control of Congress, George W. Bush
a. broke most of his campaign promises.
b. enjoyed Republican majorities in both houses of Congress.
c. had an 81 percent success rate with Congress.
d. had a 37 percent success rate with Congress.
e. None of these answers is correct.

c. had an 81 percent success rate with Congress.

18. Congress authorized an official impeachment investigation of
a. Andrew Johnson.
b. John Quincy Adams.
c. Theodore Roosevelt.
d. Warren Harding.
e. Calvin Coolidge.

a. Andrew Johnson.

19. In the modern era, the equivalent practice of using the presidency as a bully pulpit (Theodore Roosevelt) could best be summed up in the phrase, "________."
a. going public
b. spin control
c. air wars
d. lobbying the bureaucracy
e. manipulating the media

a. going public

20. What did the Supreme Court rule about executive agreements in 1937?
a. They are legally binding in the same way that treaties are.
b. They can only be issued in matters of national security.
c. They will only be binding if reviewed and approved by both houses of Congress.
d. They can only be made with the approval of a president's entire cabinet.
e. They were ruled unconstitutional and are no longer used by the executive.

a. They are legally binding in the same way that treaties are.

1. Which of the following is a principle of bureaucratic organization?
a. hierarchical authority
b. job specialization
c. formalized rules
d. both hierarchical authority and formalized rules
e. All these answers are correct.

e. All these answers are correct.

2. Compared to the president and Congress, the bureaucracy
a. is held in higher esteem by the public.
b. is authorized by a constitutional amendment rather than by the original Constitution.
c. has a more direct impact on the daily lives of Americans.
d. has changed very little during the nation's history.
e. is more easily controlled by the voters.

c. has a more direct impact on the daily lives of Americans.

3. Whenever Congress has a perceived need for ongoing control of an economic activity, it has tended to create a
a. regulatory agency.
b. cabinet department.
c. presidential commission.
d. government corporation.
e. blue ribbon panel.

a. regulatory agency.

4. The Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA), and the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) are
a. all agencies within cabinet departments.
b. all independent agencies.
c. respectively, an independent agency, an agency within a cabinet department, and a regulatory agency.
d. two cabinet departments and a regulatory agency.
e. respectively, an agency within a cabinet department, an independent agency, and a regulatory agency

e. respectively, an agency within a cabinet department, an independent agency, and a regulatory agency.

5. Regulatory agencies have
a. executive, legislative, and judicial functions.
b. legislative and executive functions, but no judicial functions.
c. adjudicative and law enforcement functions.
d. multilateral, law enforcement, and executive functions.
e. All these answers are correct.

a. executive, legislative, and judicial functions.

6. Most federal employees are hired on the basis of
a. merit criteria.
b. patronage.
c. previous job experience in the private sector.
d. the personal preferences of immediate supervisors.
e. a lottery system.

a. merit criteria.

7. Policy implementation refers to the bureaucratic function of
a. carrying out decisions made by Congress, the president, and the courts.
b. regulating the distribution of funds to individuals and corporations.
c. delegating legislative authority to smaller operating units of the bureaucracy.
d. both regulating the distribution of funds to individuals and corporations, and delegating legislative authority to smaller operating units of the bureaucracy.
e. None of these answers is correct.

a. carrying out decisions made by Congress, the president, and the courts.

8. As distinct from the patronage system, the merit system for managing the bureaucracy
a. allows the president to appoint top officials of executive agencies, thus making the bureaucracy more responsive to election outcomes.
b. provides for presidential leadership of the bureaucracy, thus giving it greater coordination and direction.
c. provides for a neutral administration in the sense that civil servants are not partisan appointees, thus ensuring evenhanded work.
d. provides that all programs will be evaluated regularly to determine whether they merit continued funding.
e. All these answers are correct.

c. provides for a neutral administration in the sense that civil servants are not partisan appointees, thus ensuring evenhanded work.

9. The administrative concept of neutral competence holds that the bureaucracy should
a. be staffed by people chosen on the basis of ability and do its work fairly on behalf of all citizens.
b. stay out of conflicts between Congress and the president.
c. be structured on the basis of the principles of specialization, hierarchy, and formal rules.
d. not allow in-fighting between agencies.
e. be staffed by partisan presidents.

a. be staffed by people chosen on the basis of ability and do its work fairly on behalf of all citizens.

10. Bureaucrats tend to follow
a. the wishes of the president.
b. the wishes of Congress.
c. their own agency's point of view.
d. the expectations of the general public.
e. the wishes of federal judges.

c. their own agency's point of view.

11. Which of the following is true of federal employees and labor unions?
a. Federal employees are prohibited from forming labor unions.
b. Federal employees can form labor unions, but their unions by law have limited authority.
c. There are no restrictions on the creation and powers of labor unions by federal employees.
d. Among federal employees, only members of federal corporations can legally form labor unions.
e. Federal employees can form labor unions but are not allowed to participate in collective bargaining.

11. Which of the following is true of federal employees and labor unions?
a. Federal employees are prohibited from forming labor unions.
b. Federal employees can form labor unions, but their unions by law have limited authority.
c. There are no restrictions on the creation and powers of labor unions by federal employees.
d. Among federal employees, only members of federal corporations can legally form labor unions.
e. Federal employees can form labor unions but are not allowed to participate in collective bargaining.

12. Bureaucrats are ________ and elected officials are ________.
a. generalists; specialists
b. generalists; generalists
c. specialists; generalists
d. specialists; specialists
e. popular; unpopular

c. specialists; generalists

13. The Senior Executive Service (SES)
a. is composed of civil employees that can be fired more easily than normal career civil servants.
b. was designed to combat abuse of the patronage system.
c. is composed of civil employees that can be assigned by the president to any position within the bureaucracy.
d. has been more successful in practice than its proponents anticipated.
e. assigns most of its senior executives to work within a different agency than the one in which they originally worked.

c. is composed of civil employees that can be assigned by the president to any position within the bureaucracy.

14. Legally, the bureaucracy derives general authority for its programs from
a. acts of Congress.
b. federalism.
c. regulatory rulings.
d. court rulings.
e. the will of the people.

a. acts of Congress.

15. How has the Government Accountability Office's role changed?
a. It has acquired wide judicial and adjudication powers to deal with inter-agency disputes.
b. It has changed from a presidential-executive support agency to largely a congressional support agency.
c. It has been given broader powers over time to actually grant additional funds or take away funds directly from agencies.
d. It has had its broad powers limited from general oversight down to keeping track of agency spending.
e. It has moved from a limited role of keeping track of agency spending to also monitoring whether the agency is implementing policies in the way Congress intended.

e. It has moved from a limited role of keeping track of agency spending to also monitoring whether the agency is implementing policies in the way Congress intended.

16. The Department of ________ was created in 2002.
a. Transportation
b. Energy
c. Education
d. Veterans Affairs
e. Homeland Security

e. Homeland Security

17. The cabinet department with the largest number of full-time civilian employees is the Department of
a. State.
b. Defense.
c. Labor.
d. Health and Human Services.
e. Education.

b. Defense.

18. The courts have tended to support administrators as long as their agencies
a. choose rules that save money.
b. can apply a reasonable interpretation of a statute.
c. follow what the president demands of them.
d. have adequate funding.
e. don't come into conflict with state governments.

b. can apply a reasonable interpretation of a statute.

19. The Department of ________ was founded in 1889.
a. Health and Human Services
b. State
c. Labor
d. Homeland Security
e. Agriculture

e. Agriculture

20. In promoting their agency's goals, bureaucrats rely on
a. their specialized knowledge.
b. the backing of the president and Congress.
c. the support of clientele groups.
d. all of these: their expert knowledge; the backing of the president and Congress; and the support of clientele groups.
e. None of these answers is correct.

d. all of these: their expert knowledge; the backing of the president and Congress; and the support of clientele groups.

1. A judicial decision that establishes a rule for settling subsequent cases of a similar nature is a
a. writ of certiorari.
b. landmark decision.
c. writ of mandamus.
d. precedent.
e. writ of error.

d. precedent.

2. A concurring opinion
a. explains the chief justice's position on a case.
b. is a separate view written by a justice who votes with the majority but disagrees with its reasoning.
c. is delivered when the Court interprets a constitutional issue.
d. is delivered when at least two justices, but less than a majority, hold the same opinion in a case.
e. explains why the Court accepted the case in the first place.

b. is a separate view written by a justice who votes with the majority but disagrees with its reasoning.

3. The federal district courts
a. are the chief trial courts of the federal system.
b. are the only federal courts where the two sides present their case to a jury for a verdict.
c. are the courts that, in practice, make the final decision in most federal cases.
d. exist in each state.
e. All these answers are correct.

e. All these answers are correct.

4. The U.S. courts of appeals
a. hear new evidence in appealed cases.
b. review trial court decisions.
c. are the highest courts to use juries.
d. decide for the Supreme Court the cases it will review.
e. None of these answers is correct.

b. review trial court decisions.

5. The "federal court myth" overlooks the fact that
a. most cases arise under state law, not federal law.
b. nearly all cases that originate in state courts are never reviewed by federal courts.
c. federal courts must normally accept the facts of a case as determined by a state court when reviewing its decision.
d. most cases arise under state law, not federal law; nearly all cases that originate in state courts are never reviewed by federal courts; and federal courts must normally accept the facts of a case as determined by a state court when reviewing its decision.
e. None of these answers is correct.

d. most cases arise under state law, not federal law; nearly all cases that originate in state courts are never reviewed by federal courts; and federal courts must normally accept the facts of a case as determined by a state court when reviewing its decision.

6. According to the doctrine of judicial restraint, the judiciary should
a. defer to precedent and to decisions made by legislature.
b. deny most appeals for retrials.
c. deny individual rights when they conflict with the majority's desires.
d. decline to make any decision that requires judges to give added meaning to the words of the Constitution.
e. conform to the will of the people as measured by public opinion polls.

a. defer to precedent and to decisions made by legislature.

7. In Bush v. Gore (2000), the Supreme Court
a. blocked a manual recount of the Florida presidential vote.
b. declined to get involved in the electoral process.
c. cast a unanimous vote.
d. deferred to the Florida Supreme Court in the election dispute between the two major party candidates.
e. decided that there was no federal question in the dispute.

a. blocked a manual recount of the Florida presidential vote.

8. Compared to Supreme Court nominations, those for the lower federal courts
a. are, although much greater in number, irrelevant to a president's policy agenda.
b. are not subject to partisan consideration.
c. have a much greater probability of being rejected by the Senate.
d. are not subject to senatorial courtesy.
e. None of these answers is correct.

e. None of these answers is correct.

9. The constitutional provision that federal judges and justices hold office "during good behavior" has
a. meant, in effect, that they will serve until they die or choose to retire.
b. provided them the opportunity to carry out their duties without immediate fear of reprisal by the president or Congress.
c. enabled presidents to influence judicial policy through their appointments long after leaving the White House.
d. had all these effects: Federal judges and justices serve, effectively, until they die or choose to retire; they are provided the opportunity to carry out their duties without immediate fear of reprisal by the president or Congress; and presidents are able to influence judicial policy through their appointments long after leaving the White House.
e. None of these answers is correct.

d. had all these effects: Federal judges and justices serve, effectively, until they die or choose to retire; they are provided the opportunity to carry out their duties without immediate fear of reprisal by the president or Congress; and presidents are able to influence judicial policy through their appointments long after leaving the White House.

10. The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in legal disputes involving
a. foreign diplomats.
b. the president.
c. the Congress.
d. private parties.
e. free speech and equal protection issues.

a. foreign diplomats.

11. The lowest level of the federal court system is the
a. circuit court of appeal.
b. highest level of the state courts.
c. district court.
d. justice of the peace.
e. supreme judicial tribunal.

c. district court.

12. The number and types of lower federal courts is established by
a. Congress.
b. the president.
c. the Constitution.
d. the Supreme Court.
e. the Justice Department.

a. Congress.

Most cases heard by the Supreme Court reach it under
a. its original jurisdiction.
b. a writ of certiorari.
c. a per curiam decision.
d. a writ of error.
e. a writ of mandamus.

b. a writ of certiorari.

Which of the following Supreme Court justices was appointed by President Dwight Eisenhower?
a. Sandra Day O'Connor
b. John Stevens
c. Earl Warren
d. Louis Brandeis
e. David Souter

c. Earl Warren

15. Which of the following Supreme Court justices was appointed during the Clinton administration?
a. Sandra Day O'Connor
b. Clarence Thomas
c. Ruth Bader Ginsburg
d. Robert Bork
e. John Paul Stevens

c. Ruth Bader Ginsburg

16. What is the most common method in the states for the selection of judges?
a. appointment by the state supreme courts
b. promotion from within the legal establishment
c. appointment by the governor
d. election to office
e. appointment by state legislatures

d. election to office

Precedent, while not an absolute constraint on the courts, is needed to
a. preserve the courts as a counter majoritarian institution.
b. maintain legal consistency over time, so confusion and uncertainty about the law can be avoided.
c. check the president in the area of public law.
d. balance the policy making authority of Congress.
e. check the president in the area of foreign policy.

b. maintain legal consistency over time, so confusion and uncertainty about the law can be avoided.

With regard to public opinion, the Supreme Court
a. ignores it in order to make decisions that are based on enduring values rather than the public's passing whims.
b. remains uninformed about it because justices stay on the bench for life and never face the public scrutiny of an election.
c. attempts to stay close enough to public opinion so as to avoid outright defiance of its decisions.
d. attempts to follow it very closely in order to create public enthusiasm for its rulings.
e. None of these answers is correct

c. attempts to stay close enough to public opinion so as to avoid outright defiance of its decisions.

19. An amicus curiae ("friend of the court") brief provides a court with the view held by
a. an interest that is not a direct party to the case.
b. the Justice Department.
c. the House and Senate judiciary committees.
d. the American Bar Association.
e. the solicitor general.

a. an interest that is not a direct party to the case.

20. The judiciary's status as an independent branch of national government depends on judicial review, which grants the judiciary the authority to
a. make political decisions; judges can overturn any congressional or presidential decision they personally dislike.
b. decide which laws apply to a particular case.
c. ignore public opinion when making decisions.
d. invalidate the actions of other institutions when judges believe they have acted unconstitutionally.
e. strike down certain sections of the Constitution.

d. invalidate the actions of other institutions when judges believe they have acted unconstitutionally.

1. Which of the following statements best describes the relationship today between government and the economy in the United States?
a. The economy is largely self-regulating.
b. The government subsidizes economic interests but otherwise leaves them to operate as they please.
c. The government is the driving force in the U.S. economy; business has a secondary role.
d. The government has an important role in regulating and maintaining the U.S. economy.
e. The government owns most of the means of production in the United States.

d. The government has an important role in regulating and maintaining the U.S. economy.

2. When the Fed was created in 1913,
a. it had no role in the management of the nation's economy.
b. it was restricted to providing emergency loans to financial institutions.
c. it adhered to a strictly supply-side policy focus.
d. its primary economic management tool was to reduce inflation by restricting the money supply.
e. it was far more likely to increase the money supply by lowering interest rates than to restrict it by raising them.

a. it had no role in the management of the nation's economy.

3. Government benefits for business include all of the following EXCEPT
a. low-interest loans and government-guaranteed loans.
b. corporate tax breaks.
c. a national transportation system.
d. minimum-wage laws.
e. a national education system.

d. minimum-wage laws.

4. Fiscal policy is a mechanism the government employs to influence the economy. Fiscal policy is based on
a. the idea that a balanced budget is the key to a healthy economy.
b. the money supply.
c. the government's taxing and spending decisions.
d. the importance of maintaining a 12-month (fiscal year) economic cycle.
e. the projections of the Federal Reserve Board.

c. the government's taxing and spending decisions.

5. In John Maynard Keynes's demand-side economic theory, an economic recession can be shortened through
a. government spending programs.
b. the natural workings of the free-market system.
c. a lowering of tariffs in the global economy.
d. a determination on the part of government not to spend any more than it receives in taxes.
e. tax cuts for the wealthy.

a. government spending programs.

6. Supply-side economics, as implemented by President George W. Bush's administration, involved
a. the supply component of the supply-demand equation.
b. stressing the importance of tax cuts for businesses.
c. stressing the importance of tax cuts for the wealthy.
d. an increase in the size of the national debt.
e. All these answers are correct.

c. stressing the importance of tax cuts for the wealthy.

7. Members of the Federal Reserve Board
a. serve for variable terms and are exposed to high levels of political pressure.
b. have no power to refuse congressional requests for information.
c. are appointed by the president and can be removed by the Senate.
d. are appointed by Congress and can be removed by Congress.
e. are appointed by the president and are not subject to removal.

e. are appointed by the president and are not subject to removal.

8. The Progressive Era of government regulation focused on
a. strengthening consumer protection by preventing credit agencies from gouging individuals with high levels of debt.
b. bolstering worker safety by increasing the power of unions and forcing better safety practices on businesses.
c. increasing environmental protection and strengthening the EPA.
d. regulating troubled economic sectors, such as banking.
e. stopping the unfair business practices of the new monopolies, such as the railroads.

e. stopping the unfair business practices of the new monopolies, such as the railroads.

9. The Federal Reserve controls the money supply through all of the following actions EXCEPT
a. raising the cash reserve that member banks are required to deposit with the Federal Reserve.
b. raising the interest rate that member banks are charged when they borrow from the Federal Reserve.
c. lowering the cash reserve that member banks are required to deposit with the Federal Reserve.
d. lowering the interest rate that member banks are charged when they borrow from the Federal Reserve.
e. lowering the tax rate on individuals.

e. lowering the tax rate on individuals.

10. A major point of debate surrounding the Federal Reserve's role in economic policy is
a. the Fed's political accountability.
b. whether the president should be able to veto the Fed's decisions.
c. the issue of competence.
d. whether Congress should be able to reject the Fed's decisions.
e. None of these answers is correct.

a. the Fed's political accountability.

11. Which of the following is true regarding the Kyoto agreement and greenhouse gas emissions?
a. The United States is the largest single producer of greenhouse emissions in the world, on a per-capita basis.
b. President George W. Bush rejected the agreement.
c. It was a multinational effort to reduce carbon emissions.
d. The burden of addressing the global warming problem will fall unevenly on nations.
e. All these answers are correct.

e. All these answers are correct.

12. Which president's use of government policy as economic stimulus ushered in the modern era of U.S. government fiscal policy?
a. Thomas Jefferson
b. Franklin Roosevelt
c. Lyndon Johnson
d. Woodrow Wilson
e. William Clinton

b. Franklin Roosevelt

13. If the economic problem is low productivity and high unemployment, the fiscal policy action on the demand side would be to
a. increase taxes.
b. cut business taxes.
c. increase spending.
d. decrease spending.
e. None of these answers is correct.

c. increase spending.

14. Over the past forty years, the burden of federal taxation has
a. shifted from big business to small business.
b. shifted from individuals to corporations.
c. shifted from corporations to individuals.
d. evened out between individuals and corporations.
e. None of these answers is correct.

c. shifted from corporations to individuals.

15. Which of the following is correct about environmental policy?
a. The national parks are subject to a dual use policy of preservation, recreation, and exploitation of the rich natural resources.
b. The Environmental Protection Agency was elevated to cabinet status in 1998 by President Clinton and the Republican Congress.
c. Environmental regulation has done little to improve air and water quality.
d. Policymakers always give more consideration to environmental protection than to economic development when the two conflict.
e. None of these answers is correct.

a. The national parks are subject to a dual use policy of preservation, recreation, and exploitation of the rich natural resources.

16. The ________ established minimum wages and constraints on the use of child labor.
a. Securities and Exchange Act of 1934
b. Banking Act of 1934
c. Airlines Deregulation Act of 1977
d. Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938
e. Homestead Act of 1862

d. Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938

17. The highest rate of inflation (13 percent) since World War II occurred in ________.
a. 1955
b. 1963
c. 1979
d. 1991
e. 2002

c. 1979

18. What was a major change brought about by the National Labor Relations Act of 1935?
a. It established the national minimum wage.
b. It broke up business monopolies in order to give workers more choice in employer.
c. Workers were given the right to bargain collectively.
d. It eliminated the ability of companies to bargain directly with unions.
e. It reduced the ability of workers to go on strike indefinitely.

c. Workers were given the right to bargain collectively.

19. Which of the following government agencies regulates business competition?
a. Federal Trade Commission
b. Interstate Commerce Commission
c. Antitrust Division of the Justice Department
d. all of these: the Federal Trade Commission; the Interstate Commerce Commission; and the Antitrust Division of the Justice Department
e. None of these answers is correct.

d. all of these: the Federal Trade Commission; the Interstate Commerce Commission; and the Antitrust Division of the Justice Department

20. About what percentage of the annual federal budget is accounted for by the interest paid on the national debt?
a. 50%
b. 5%
c. 25%
d. 15%
e. 2%

d. 15%

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