microecon

Created by ayyala 

Upgrade to
remove ads

1. For economists, the word "utility" means:
A. versatility and flexibility.
B. rationality.
C. pleasure or satisfaction.
D. purposefulness.

C. pleasure or satisfaction.

2. In economics, the pleasure, happiness, or satisfaction received from a product is called:
A. marginal cost.
B. rational outcome.
C. status fulfillment.
D. utility.

D. utility.

3. When economists say that people act rationally in their self interest, they mean that individuals:
A. look for and pursue opportunities to increase their utility.
B. generally disregard the interests of others.
C. are mainly creatures of habit.
D. are usually impulsive and unpredictable.

A. look for and pursue opportunities to increase their utility.

4. According to Emerson: "Want is a growing giant whom the coat of Have was never large enough to cover." According to economists, "Want" exceeds "Have" because:
A. people are greedy.
B. productive resources are limited.
C. human beings are inherently insecure.
D. people are irrational.

B. productive resources are limited.

5. According to economists, economic self-interest:
A. is a reality that underlies economic behavior.
B. has the same meaning as selfishness.
C. is more characteristic of men than of women.
D. is usually self-defeating.

A. is a reality that underlies economic behavior.

6. Joe sold gold coins for $1000 that he bought a year ago for $1000. He says, "At least I didn't lose any money on my financial investment." His economist friend points out that in effect he did lose money, because he could have received a 3 percent return on the $1000 if he had bought a bank certificate of deposit instead of the coins. The economist's analysis in this case incorporates the idea of:
A. opportunity costs.
B. marginal benefits that exceed marginal costs.
C. imperfect information.
D. normative economics.

A. opportunity costs

7. A person should consume more of something when its marginal:
A. benefit exceeds its marginal cost.
B. cost exceeds its marginal benefit.
C. cost equals its marginal benefit.
D. benefit is still positive.

A. benefit exceeds its marginal cost.

8. Economics may best be defined as the:
A. interaction between macro and micro considerations.
B. social science concerned with how individuals, institutions, and society make optimal choices under conditions of scarcity.
C. empirical testing of value judgments through the use of logic.
D. use of policy to refute facts and hypotheses.

B. social science concerned with how individuals, institutions, and society make optimal choices under conditions of scarcity.

9. The study of economics is primarily concerned with:
A. keeping private businesses from losing money.
B. demonstrating that capitalistic economies are superior to socialistic economies.
C. choices that are made in seeking the best use of resources.
D. determining the most equitable distribution of society's output.

C. choices that are made in seeking the best use of resources.

10. The economic perspective entails:
A. irrational behavior by individuals and institutions.
B. a comparison of marginal benefits and marginal costs in decision making.
C. short-term but not long-term thinking.
D. rejection of the scientific method.

B. a comparison of marginal benefits and marginal costs in decision making.

11. Purposeful behavior suggests that:
A. everyone will make identical choices.
B. resource availability exceeds economic wants.
C. individuals may make different choices because of different desired outcomes.
D. an individual's economic goals cannot involve tradeoffs.

C. individuals may make different choices because of different desired outcomes.

12. Purposeful behavior means that:
A. people are selfish in their decision-making.
B. people weigh costs and benefits to make decisions.
C. people are immune from emotions affecting their decisions.
D. decision-makers do not make mistakes when weighing costs and benefits.

B. people weigh costs and benefits to make decisions.

13. Economics involves marginal analysis because:
A. most decisions involve changes from the present situation.
B. marginal benefits always exceed marginal costs.
C. marginal costs always exceed marginal benefits.
D. much economic behavior is irrational.

A. most decisions involve changes from the present situation.

14. You should decide to go to a movie:
A. if the marginal cost of the movie exceeds its marginal benefit.
B. if the marginal benefit of the movie exceeds its marginal cost.
C. if your income will allow you to buy a ticket.
D. because movies are enjoyable.

B. if the marginal benefit of the movie exceeds its marginal cost.

15. Marginal costs exist because:
A. the decision to engage in one activity means forgoing some other activity.
B. wants are scarce relative to resources.
C. households and businesses make rational decisions.
D. most decisions do not involve sacrifices or tradeoffs.

A. the decision to engage in one activity means forgoing some other activity.

16. The assertion that "There is no free lunch" means that:
A. there are always tradeoffs between economic goals.
B. all production involves the use of scarce resources and thus the sacrifice of alternative goods.
C. marginal analysis is not used in economic reasoning.
D. choices need not be made if behavior is rational.

B. all production involves the use of scarce resources and thus the sacrifice of alternative goods.

17. Consumers spend their incomes to get the maximum benefit or satisfaction from the goods and services they purchase. This is a reflection of:
A. resource scarcity and the necessity of choice.
B. purposeful behavior.
C. marginal costs that exceed marginal benefits.
D. the tradeoff problem that exists between competing goals.

B. purposeful behavior.

18. If someone produced too much of a good, this would suggest that:
A. rational choice cannot be applied to many economic decisions.
B. the good was produced to the point where its marginal cost exceeded its marginal benefit.
C. certain goods and services such as education and health care are inherently desirable and should be produced regardless of costs and benefits.
D. the good was produced to the point where its marginal benefit exceeded its marginal cost.

B. the good was produced to the point where its marginal cost exceeded its marginal benefit.

19. Even though local newspapers are very inexpensive, people rarely buy more than one of them each day. This fact:
A. is an example of irrational behavior.
B. implies that reading should be taught through phonics rather than the whole language method.
C. contradicts the economic perspective.
D. implies that, for most people, the marginal benefit of reading a second newspaper is less than the marginal cost.

D. implies that, for most people, the marginal benefit of reading a second newspaper is less than the marginal cost.

20. In deciding whether to study for an economics quiz or go to a movie, one is confronted by the idea(s) of:
A. scarcity and opportunity costs.
B. money and real capital.
C. complementary economic goals.
D. full production.

A. scarcity and opportunity costs.

1. Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of a command system?
A. private ownership of all capital.
B. central planning.
C. heavy reliance on markets.
D. wide-spread dispersion of economic power.

B. central planning.

2. Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of a market system?
A. public ownership of all capital.
B. central planning.
C. wide-spread private ownership of capital.
D. a circular flow of goods, resources, and money.

C. wide-spread private ownership of capital.

3. Examples of command economies are:
A. The United States and Japan.
B. Sweden and Norway.
C. Mexico and Brazil.
D. Cuba and North Korea.

D. Cuba and North Korea.

4. Of the following countries, which one best exhibits the characteristics of a market economy?
A. Canada.
B. Cuba.
C. North Korea.
D. China.

A. Canada.

5. The French term "laissez-faire" means:
A. "there is no free lunch."
B. "let it be."
C. "circular flow."
D. "public ownership."

B. "let it be."

6. An economic system:
A. requires a grouping of private markets linked to one another.
B. is a particular set of institutional arrangements and a coordinating mechanism used to respond to the economizing problem.
C. requires some sort of centralized authority (such as government) to coordinate economic activity.
D. is a plan or scheme that allows a firm to make money at some other firm's expense.

B. is a particular set of institutional arrangements and a coordinating mechanism used to respond to the economizing problem

7. The term laissez-faire suggests that:
A. land and other natural resources should be privately owned, but capital should be publicly owned.
B. land and other natural resources should be publicly owned, but capital should be privately owned.
C. government should not interfere with the operation of the economy.
D. government action is necessary if the economy is to achieve full employment and full production.

C. government should not interfere with the operation of the economy.

8. Economic systems differ according to which two main characteristics?
A. Who owns the factors of production, and the methods used to coordinate economic activity.
B. The technology used in production, and the quantity and quality of natural resources.
C. How goods are produced, and who gets them.
D. The political system in place, and the degree of scarcity facing the economy.

A. Who owns the factors of production, and the methods used to coordinate economic activity.

9. Command systems are also known as:
A. market systems.
B. pure capitalism.
C. laissez-faire capitalism.
D. communism.

D. communism.

10. A fundamental difference between the command system and the market system is that, in command systems:
A. the division of output is decided by central planning rather than by individuals operating freely through markets.
B. all economic decisions are made by the government, whereas there is no government in a market system.
C. scarcity does not exist, whereas it does in a market system.
D. money is not used, whereas it is in a market system.

A. the division of output is decided by central planning rather than by individuals operating freely through markets

11. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the market system?
A. private property.
B. freedom of enterprise.
C. government ownership of major industries.
D. competition in product and resource markets.

C. government ownership of major industries.

12. Which of the following is a fundamental characteristic of the market system?
A. property rights.
B. central planning by government.
C. unselfish behavior.
D. government-set wages and prices.

A. property rights.

13. Property rights are important because they:
A. ensure an equal distribution of income.
B. encourage cooperation by improving the chances of mutually agreeable transactions.
C. guarantee that any exchange will make all parties better off than prior to the exchange.
D. allow the government to control how resources are allocated.

B. encourage cooperation by improving the chances of mutually agreeable transactions.

14. Private property:
A. discourages cooperation because people don't want to part with what they own.
B. discourages innovation, as people are often afraid to risk losing their own property.
C. encourages owners to maintain or improve their property, so as to preserve or enhance value.
D. does everything indicated by the other answers.

C. encourages owners to maintain or improve their property, so as to preserve or enhance value.

15. Copyrights and trademarks are examples of:
A. capital goods.
B. human capital.
C. property rights.
D. public goods.

C. property rights.

16. The regulatory mechanism of the market system is:
A. self-interest.
B. private property.
C. competition.
D. specialization.

C. competition.

17. Broadly defined, competition involves:
A. private property and freedom of expression.
B. independently acting buyers and sellers and freedom to enter or leave markets.
C. increasing opportunity costs and diminishing marginal utility.
D. capital goods and division of labor.

B. independently acting buyers and sellers and freedom to enter or leave markets.

18. Competition means that:
A. sellers can manipulate market price by causing product scarcities.
B. there are independently-acting buyers and sellers in each market.
C. a product can be purchased at a number of different prices.
D. there is more than one seller in a market.

B. there are independently-acting buyers and sellers in each market.

19. The division of labor means that:
A. labor markets are geographically segmented.
B. unskilled workers outnumber skilled workers.
C. workers specialize in various production tasks.
D. each worker performs a large number of tasks.

C. workers specialize in various production tasks.

20. Specialization in production is important primarily because it:
A. results in greater total output.
B. allows society to avoid the coincidence-of-wants problem.
C. allows society to trade by barter.
D. allows society to have fewer capital goods.

A. results in greater total output.

1. A market:
A. reflects upsloping demand and downsloping supply curves.
B. entails the exchange of goods, but not services.
C. is an institution that brings together buyers and sellers.
D. always requires face-to-face contact between buyer and seller.

C. is an institution that brings together buyers and sellers.

2. Markets, viewed from the perspective of the supply and demand model:
A. assume many buyers and many sellers of a standardized product.
B. assume market power so that buyers and sellers bargain with one another.
C. do not exist in the real-world economy.
D. are approximated by markets in which a single seller determines price.

A. assume many buyers and many sellers of a standardized product.

. The law of demand states that, other things equal:
A. price and quantity demanded are inversely related.
B. the larger the number of buyers in a market, the lower will be product price.
C. price and quantity demanded are directly related.
D. consumers will buy more of a product at high prices than at low prices.

A. price and quantity demanded are inversely related.

4. Graphically, the market demand curve is:
A. steeper than any individual demand curve that is part of it.
B. greater than the sum of the individual demand curves.
C. the horizontal sum of individual demand curves.
D. the vertical sum of individual demand curves.

C. the horizontal sum of individual demand curves.

5. The demand curve shows the relationship between:
A. money income and quantity demanded.
B. price and production costs.
C. price and quantity demanded.
D. consumer tastes and quantity demanded.

C. price and quantity demanded.

6. Economists use the term "demand" to refer to:
A. a particular price-quantity combination on a stable demand curve.
B. the total amount spent on a particular commodity over a fixed time period.
C. an upsloping line on a graph that relates consumer purchases and product price.
D. a schedule of various combinations of market prices and amounts demanded.

D. a schedule of various combinations of market prices and amounts demanded.

7. The relationship between quantity supplied and price is _____ and the relationship between quantity demanded and price is ____.
A. direct, inverse
B. inverse, direct
C. inverse, inverse
D. direct, direct

A. direct, inverse

8. When the price of a product increases, a consumer is able to buy less of it with a given money income. This describes the:
A. cost effect.
B. inflationary effect.
C. income effect.
D. substitution effect.

C. income effect.

14. When the price of a product falls, the purchasing power of our money income rises and thus permits consumers to purchase more of the product. This statement describes:
A. an inferior good.
B. the rationing function of prices.
C. the substitution effect.
D. the income effect.

D. the income effect.

16. The construction of demand and supply curves assumes that the primary variable influencing decisions to produce and purchase goods is:
A. price.
B. expectations.
C. preferences.
D. incomes.

A. price.

17. One reason that the quantity demanded of a good increases when its price falls is that the:
A. price decline shifts the supply curve to the left.
B. lower price shifts the demand curve to the left.
C. lower price shifts the demand curve to the right.
D. lower price increases the real incomes of buyers, enabling them to buy more.

D. lower price increases the real incomes of buyers, enabling them to buy more.

18. When the price of Nike soccer balls fell, Ronaldo purchased more Nike soccer balls and fewer Adidas soccer balls. Which of the following best explains Ronaldo's decision to buy more Nike soccer balls?
A. the substitution effect
B. the income effect
C. an increase in the demand for Nike soccer balls
D. the price effect

A. the substitution effect

19. Steve went to his favorite hamburger restaurant with $3, expecting to buy a $2 hamburger and a $1 soda. When he arrived he discovered that hamburgers were on sale for $1, so Steve bought two hamburgers and a soda. Steve's response to the decrease in the price of hamburgers is best explained by:
A. the substitution effect.
B. the income effect.
C. the price effect.
D. a rightward shift in the demand curve for hamburgers.

B. the income effect.

20. A recent study found that an increase in the Federal tax on beer (and thus an increase in the price of beer) would reduce the demand for marijuana. We can conclude that:
A. beer and marijuana are substitute goods.
B. beer and marijuana are complementary goods.
C. beer is an inferior good.
D. marijuana is an inferior good.

B. beer and marijuana are complementary goods.

1. The price elasticity of demand coefficient measures:
A. buyer responsiveness to price changes.
B. the extent to which a demand curve shifts as incomes change.
C. the slope of the demand curve.
D. how far business executives can stretch their fixed costs.

A. buyer responsiveness to price changes

2. The basic formula for the price elasticity of demand coefficient is:
A. absolute decline in quantity demanded/absolute increase in price.
B. percentage change in quantity demanded/percentage change in price.
C. absolute decline in price/absolute increase in quantity demanded.
D. percentage change in price/percentage change in quantity demanded.

B. percentage change in quantity demanded/percentage change in price.

3. The demand for a product is inelastic with respect to price if:
A. consumers are largely unresponsive to a per unit price change.
B. the elasticity coefficient is greater than 1.
C. a drop in price is accompanied by a decrease in the quantity demanded.
D. a drop in price is accompanied by an increase in the quantity demanded.

A. consumers are largely unresponsive to a per unit price change.

4. If the price elasticity of demand for a product is 2.5, then a price cut from $2.00 to $1.80 will:
A. increase the quantity demanded by about 2.5 percent.
B. decrease the quantity demanded by about 2.5 percent.
C. increase the quantity demanded by about 25 percent.
D. increase the quantity demanded by about 250 percent.

C. increase the quantity demanded by about 25 percent.

5. Suppose that as the price of Y falls from $2.00 to $1.90 the quantity of Y demanded increases from 110 to 118. Then the price elasticity of demand is:
A. 4.00.
B. 2.09.
C. 1.37.
D. 3.94.

C. 1.37.

6. Which of the following is not characteristic of the demand for a commodity that is elastic?
A. The relative change in quantity demanded is greater than the relative change in price.
B. Buyers are relatively sensitive to price changes.
C. Total revenue declines if price is increased.
D. The elasticity coefficient is less than one.

D. The elasticity coefficient is less than one.

7. If the demand for product X is inelastic, a 4 percent increase in the price of X will:
A. decrease the quantity of X demanded by more than 4 percent.
B. decrease the quantity of X demanded by less than 4 percent.
C. increase the quantity of X demanded by more than 4 percent.
D. increase the quantity of X demanded by less than 4 percent.

B. decrease the quantity of X demanded by less than 4 percent.

8. If a firm can sell 3,000 units of product A at $10 per unit and 5,000 at $8, then:
A. the price elasticity of demand is 0.44.
B. A is a complementary good.
C. the price elasticity of demand is 2.25.
D. A is an inferior good.

C. the price elasticity of demand is 2.25.

9. A perfectly inelastic demand schedule:
A. rises upward and to the right, but has a constant slope.
B. can be represented by a line parallel to the vertical axis.
C. cannot be shown on a two-dimensional graph.
D. can be represented by a line parallel to the horizontal axis.

B. can be represented by a line parallel to the vertical axis.

10. The larger the coefficient of price elasticity of demand for a product, the:
A. larger the resulting price change for an increase in supply.
B. more rapid the rate at which the marginal utility of that product diminishes.
C. less competitive will be the industry supplying that product.
D. smaller the resulting price change for an increase in supply.

D. smaller the resulting price change for an increase in supply.

11. Most demand curves are relatively elastic in the upper-left portion because the original price:
A. and quantity from which the percentage changes in price and quantity are calculated are both large.
B. and quantity from which the percentage changes in price and quantity are calculated are both small.
C. from which the percentage price change is calculated is small and the original quantity from which the percentage change in quantity is calculated is large.
D. from which the percentage price change is calculated is large and the original quantity from which the percentage change in quantity is calculated is small.

D. from which the percentage price change is calculated is large and the original quantity from which the percentage change in quantity is calculated is small.

12. The price elasticity of demand for widgets is 0.80. Assuming no change in the demand curve for widgets, a 16 percent increase in sales implies a:
A. 1 percent reduction in price.
B. 12 percent reduction in price.
C. 40 percent reduction in price.
D. 20 percent reduction in price.

D. 20 percent reduction in price.

13. Suppose Aiyanna's Pizzeria currently faces a linear demand curve and is charging a very high price per pizza and doing very little business. Aiyanna now decides to lower pizza prices by 5 percent per week for an indefinite period of time. We can expect that each successive week:
A. demand will become more price elastic.
B. price elasticity of demand will not change as price is lowered.
C. demand will become less price elastic.
D. the elasticity of supply will increase.

C. demand will become less price elastic.

14. The price elasticity of demand of a straight-line demand curve is:
A. elastic in high-price ranges and inelastic in low-price ranges.
B. elastic, but does not change at various points on the curve.
C. inelastic, but does not change at various points on the curve.
D. 1 at all points on the curve.

A. elastic in high-price ranges and inelastic in low-price ranges.

15. A leftward shift in the supply curve of product X will increase equilibrium price to a greater extent the:
A. more elastic the supply curve.
B. larger the elasticity of demand coefficient.
C. more elastic the demand for the product.
D. more inelastic the demand for the product.

D. more inelastic the demand for the product.

16. If the demand for bacon is relatively elastic, a 10 percent decline in the price of bacon will:
A. decrease the amount demanded by more than 10 percent.
B. increase the amount demanded by more than 10 percent.
C. decrease the amount demanded by less than 10 percent.
D. increase the amount demanded by less than 10 percent.

B. increase the amount demanded by more than 10 percent.

17. The price elasticity of demand is generally:
A. negative, but the minus sign is ignored.
B. positive, but the plus sign is ignored.
C. positive for normal goods and negative for inferior goods.
D. positive because price and quantity demanded are inversely related.

A. negative, but the minus sign is ignored.

18. For a linear demand curve:
A. elasticity is constant along the curve.
B. elasticity is unity at every point on the curve.
C. demand is elastic at low prices.
D. demand is elastic at high prices.

D. demand is elastic at high prices.

19. The price of product X is reduced from $100 to $90 and, as a result, the quantity demanded increases from 50 to 60 units. Therefore demand for X in this price range:
A. has declined.
B. is of unit elasticity.
C. is inelastic.
D. is elastic.

D. is elastic.

1. Market failure is said to occur whenever:
A. private markets do not allocate resources in the most economically desirable way.
B. prices rise.
C. some consumers who want a good do not obtain it because the price is higher than they are willing to pay.
D. government intervenes in the functioning of private markets.

A. private markets do not allocate resources in the most economically desirable way.

2. Which of the following is an example of market failure?
A. negative externalities
B. positive externalities
C. public goods
D. all of these

D. all of these

3. Demand-side market failures occur when:
A. the demand and supply curves don't reflect consumers' full willingness to pay for a good or service.
B. the demand and supply curves don't reflect the full cost of producing a good or service.
C. government imposes a tax on a good or service.
D. a good or service is not produced because no one demands it.

A. the demand and supply curves don't reflect consumers' full willingness to pay for a good or service.

4. People enjoy outdoor holiday lighting displays, and would be willing to pay to see these displays, but can't be made to pay. Because those who put up lights are unable to charge others to view them, they don't put up as many lights as people would like. This is an example of a:
A. negative externality
B. supply-side market failure
C. demand-side market failure
D. government failure

C. demand-side market failure

5. Supply-side market failures occur when:
A. the demand and supply curves don't reflect consumers' full willingness to pay for a good or service.
B. the demand and supply curves don't reflect the full cost of producing a good or service.
C. government regulates production of a good or service.
D. a good or service is not supplied because no one wants it.

B. the demand and supply curves don't reflect the full cost of producing a good or service

6. From society's perspective, in the presence of a supply-side market failure, the last unit of a good produced typically:
A. generates more of a benefit than it costs to produce.
B. produces a benefit exactly equal to the cost of producing the last unit.
C. maximizes the net benefit to society.
D. costs more to produce than it provides in benefits.

D. costs more to produce than it provides in benefits.

7. The trains of the Transcontinental Railway Company, when shipping goods, sometimes emit sparks that start fires along the tracks and damage the property of others. If Transcontinental does not pay for the damage it causes, what has occurred?
A. Positive externality
B. Demand-side market failure
C. Supply-side market failure
D. All of these.

C. Supply-side market failure

8. What two conditions must hold for a competitive market to produce efficient outcomes?
A. Demand curves must reflect all costs of production, and supply curves must reflect consumers' full willingness to pay.
B. Supply curves must reflect all costs of production, and demand curves must reflect consumers' full willingness to pay.
C. Firms must minimize production costs, and consumers must minimize total expenditures.
D. Firms must maximize profits, and consumers must all pay prices equal to their maximum willingness to pay.

B. Supply curves must reflect all costs of production, and demand curves must reflect consumers' full willingness to pay.

9. If the demand curve reflects consumers' full willingness to pay, and the supply curve reflects all costs of production, then which of the following is true?
A. The benefit surpluses shared between consumers and producers will be maximized.
B. The benefit surpluses received by consumers and producers will be equal.
C. There will be no consumer or producer surplus.
D. Consumer surplus will be maximized, and producer surplus will be minimized.

A. The benefit surpluses shared between consumers and producers will be maximized.

10. Consumer surplus:
A. is the difference between the maximum prices consumers are willing to pay for a product and the lower equilibrium price.
B. is the difference between the maximum prices consumers are willing to pay for a product and the minimum prices producers are willing to accept.
C. is the difference between the minimum prices producers are willing to accept for a product and the higher equilibrium price.
D. rises as equilibrium price rises.

A. is the difference between the maximum prices consumers are willing to pay for a product and the lower equilibrium price.

11. Producer surplus:
A. is the difference between the maximum prices consumers are willing to pay for a product and the lower equilibrium price.
B. rises as equilibrium price falls.
C. is the difference between the minimum prices producers are willing to accept for a product and the higher equilibrium price.
D. is the difference between the maximum prices consumers are willing to pay for a product and the minimum prices producers are willing to accept.

C. is the difference between the minimum prices producers are willing to accept for a product and the higher equilibrium price.

12. Jennifer buys a piece of costume jewelry for $33 for which she was willing to pay $42. The minimum acceptable price to the seller, Nathan, was $30. Jennifer experiences:
A. a consumer surplus of $12 and Nathan experiences a producer surplus of $3.
B. a producer surplus of $9 and Nathan experiences a consumer surplus of $3.
C. a consumer surplus of $9 and Nathan experiences a producer surplus of $3.
D. a producer surplus of $9 and Nathan experiences a producer surplus of $12.

C. a consumer surplus of $9 and Nathan experiences a producer surplus of $3.

13. Amanda buys a ruby for $330 for which she was willing to pay $340. The minimum acceptable price to the seller, Tony, was $140. Amanda experiences:
A. a consumer surplus of $10 and Tony experiences a producer surplus of $190.
B. a producer surplus of $200 and Tony experiences a consumer surplus of $10.
C. a consumer surplus of $670 and Tony experiences a producer surplus of $200.
D. a producer surplus of $10 and Tony experiences a consumer surplus of $190.

A. a consumer surplus of $10 and Tony experiences a producer surplus of $190.

14. Graphically, if the supply and demand curves are linear, consumer surplus is measured as the triangle:
A. under the demand curve and below the actual price.
B. under the demand curve and above the actual price.
C. above the supply curve and above the actual price.
D. above the supply curve and below the actual price.

B. under the demand curve and above the actual price.

15. Graphically, producer surplus is measured as the area:
A. under the demand curve and below the actual price.
B. under the demand curve and above the actual price.
C. above the supply curve and above the actual price.
D. above the supply curve and below the actual price.

D. above the supply curve and below the actual price.

16. A producer's minimum acceptable price for a particular unit of a good:
A. is the same for all units of the good.
B. will, for most units produced, equal the maximum that consumers are willing to pay for the good.
C. equals the marginal cost of producing that particular unit.
D. must cover the wages, rent, and interest payments necessary to produce the good, but need not include profit.

C. equals the marginal cost of producing that particular unit.

1. The utility of a good or service:
A. is synonymous with usefulness.
B. is the satisfaction or pleasure one gets from consuming it.
C. is easy to quantify.
D. rarely varies from person to person.

B. is the satisfaction or pleasure one gets from consuming it.

2. Marginal utility can be:
A. positive, but not negative.
B. positive or negative, but not zero.
C. positive, negative, or zero.
D. decreasing, but not negative.

B. positive or negative, but not zero.

3. Mary says, "You would have to pay me $50 to attend that pro wrestling event." For Mary, the marginal utility of the event is:
A. zero.
B. positive, but declines rapidly.
C. negative.
D. positive, but less than the ticket price.

C. negative.

4. The ability of a good or service to satisfy wants is called:
A. utility maximization.
B. opportunity cost.
C. revenue potential.
D. utility.

D. utility.

11. A product has utility if it:
A. takes more and more resources to produce successive units of it.
B. violates the law of demand.
C. satisfies consumer wants.
D. is useful.

C. satisfies consumer wants.

12. The law of diminishing marginal utility states that:
A. total utility is maximized when consumers obtain the same amount of utility per unit of each product consumed.
B. beyond some point additional units of a product will yield less and less extra satisfaction to a consumer.
C. price must be lowered to induce firms to supply more of a product.
D. it will take larger and larger amounts of resources beyond some point to produce successive units of a product.

B. beyond some point additional units of a product will yield less and less extra satisfaction to a consumer.

13. The first Pepsi yields Craig 18 units of utility and the second yields him an additional 12 units of utility. His total utility from three Pepsis is 38 units of utility. The marginal utility of the third Pepsi is:
A. 26 units of utility.
B. 6 units of utility.
C. 8 units of utility.
D. 38 units of utility.

C. 8 units of utility.

14. If the price of product X rises, then the resulting decline in the amount purchased will:
A. necessarily increase the consumer's total utility from his total purchases.
B. increase the marginal utility of the last unit consumed of this good.
C. increase the total utility from purchases of this good.
D. reduce the marginal utility of the last unit consumed of this good.

B. increase the marginal utility of the last unit consumed of this good.

15. Marginal utility is the:
A. sensitivity of consumer purchases of a good to changes in the price of that good.
B. change in total utility obtained by consuming one more unit of a good.
C. change in total utility obtained by consuming another unit of a good divided by the change in the price of that good.
D. total utility associated with the consumption of a certain number of units of a good divided by the number of units consumed.

B. change in total utility obtained by consuming one more unit of a good.

16. Utility refers to the:
A. satisfaction that a consumer derives from a good or service.
B. rate of decline in a product demand curve.
C. relative scarcity of a product.
D. usefulness of a product.

A. satisfaction that a consumer derives from a good or service.

17. Total utility may be determined by:
A. multiplying the marginal utility of the last unit consumed by the number of units consumed.
B. summing the marginal utilities of each unit consumed.
C. multiplying the marginal utility of the last unit consumed by product price.
D. multiplying the marginal utility of the first unit consumed by the number of units consumed.

B. summing the marginal utilities of each unit consumed.

1. Economic cost can best be defined as:
A. any contractual obligation that results in a flow of money expenditures from an enterprise to resource suppliers.
B. any contractual obligation to labor or material suppliers.
C. payments that must be received by resource owners to insure the resources' continued supply.
D. all costs exclusive of payments to fixed factors of production.

C. payments that must be received by resource owners to insure the resources' continued supply.

2. Which of the following constitutes an implicit cost to the Johnston Manufacturing Company?
A. payments of wages to its office workers
B. rent paid for the use of equipment owned by the Schultz Machinery Company
C. use of savings to pay operating expenses instead of generating interest income
D. economic profits resulting from current production

C. use of savings to pay operating expenses instead of generating interest income

3. Which of the following is most likely to be an implicit cost for Company X?
A. forgone rent from the building owned and used by Company X
B. rental payments on IBM equipment
C. payments for raw materials purchased from Company Y
D. transportation costs paid to a nearby trucking firm

A. forgone rent from the building owned and used by Company X

4. Production costs to an economist:
A. consist only of explicit costs.
B. reflect opportunity costs.
C. never reflect monetary outlays.
D. always reflect monetary outlays.

B. reflect opportunity costs..

5. What do wages paid to factory workers, interest paid on a bank loan, forgone interest, and the purchase of component parts have in common?
A. None are either implicit or explicit costs.
B. All are opportunity costs.
C. All are implicit costs.
D. All are explicit costs.

B. All are opportunity costs.

6. To the economist, total cost includes:
A. explicit and implicit costs, including a normal profit.
B. neither implicit nor explicit costs.
C. implicit, but not explicit, costs.
D. explicit, but not implicit, costs.

A. explicit and implicit costs, including a normal profit.

7. Implicit and explicit costs are different in that:
A. explicit costs are opportunity costs; implicit costs are not.
B. implicit costs are opportunity costs; explicit costs are not.
C. the latter refer to non-expenditure costs and the former to monetary payments.
D. the former refer to non-expenditure costs and the latter to monetary payments

D. the former refer to non-expenditure costs and the latter to monetary payments

8. Accounting profits equal total revenue minus:
A. total explicit costs.
B. total implicit costs.
C. total economic costs.
D. economic profits.

A. total explicit costs.

9. An explicit cost is:
A. omitted when accounting profits are calculated.
B. a money payment made for resources not owned by the firm itself.
C. an implicit cost to the resource owner who receives that payment.
D. always in excess of a resource's opportunity cost.

B. a money payment made for resources not owned by the firm itself.

10. Accounting profits are typically:
A. greater than economic profits because the former do not take explicit costs into account.
B. equal to economic profits because accounting costs include all opportunity costs.
C. smaller than economic profits because the former do not take implicit costs into account.
D. greater than economic profits because the former do not take implicit costs into account.

D. greater than economic profits because the former do not take implicit costs into account.

11. Economic profits are calculated by subtracting:
A. explicit costs from total revenue.
B. implicit costs from total revenue.
C. implicit costs from normal profits.
D. explicit and implicit costs from total revenue.

D. explicit and implicit costs from total revenue.

12. Normal profit is:
A. determined by subtracting implicit costs from total revenue.
B. determined by subtracting explicit costs from total revenue.
C. the return to the entrepreneur when economic profits are zero.
D. the average profitability of an industry over the preceding 10 years.

C. the return to the entrepreneur when economic profits are zero.

13. Which of the following definitions is correct?
A. Accounting profit + economic profit = normal profit.
B. Economic profit - accounting profit = explicit costs.
C. Economic profit = accounting profit - implicit costs.
D. Economic profit - implicit costs = accounting profits.

C. Economic profit = accounting profit - implicit costs.

14. Suppose that a business incurred implicit costs of $200,000 and explicit costs of $1 million in a specific year. If the firm sold 4,000 units of its output at $300 per unit, its accounting profits were:
A. $100,000 and its economic profits were zero.
B. $200,000 and its economic profits were zero.
C. $100,000 and its economic profits were $100,000.
D. zero and its economic loss was $200,000.

B. $200,000 and its economic profits were zero.

15. Suppose that a business incurred implicit costs of $500,000 and explicit costs of $5 million in a specific year. If the firm sold 100,000 units of its output at $50 per unit, its accounting:
A. profits were $100,000 and its economic profits were zero.
B. losses were $500,000 and its economic losses were zero.
C. profits were $500,000 and its economic profits were $1 million.
D. profits were zero and its economic losses were $500,000.

D. profits were zero and its economic losses were $500,000.

The following is cost information for the Creamy Crisp Donut Company:
Entrepreneur's potential earnings as a salaried worker = $50,000
Annual lease on building = $22,000
Annual revenue from operations = $380,000
Payments to workers = $120,000
Utilities (electricity, water, disposal) costs = $8,000
Value of entrepreneur's talent in the next best entrepreneurial activity = $80,000
Entrepreneur's forgone interest on personal funds used to finance the business = $6,000

16. Refer to the above data. Creamy Crisp's explicit costs are:
A. $286,000.
B. $150,000.
C. $94,000.
D. $156,000.

B. $150,000.

The following is cost information for the Creamy Crisp Donut Company:
Entrepreneur's potential earnings as a salaried worker = $50,000
Annual lease on building = $22,000
Annual revenue from operations = $380,000
Payments to workers = $120,000
Utilities (electricity, water, disposal) costs = $8,000
Value of entrepreneur's talent in the next best entrepreneurial activity = $80,000
Entrepreneur's forgone interest on personal funds used to finance the business = $6,000

17. Refer to the above data. Creamy Crisp's implicit costs, including a normal profit, are:
A. $136,000.
B. $150,000.
C. $94,000.
D. $156,000.

A. $136,000.

The following is cost information for the Creamy Crisp Donut Company:
Entrepreneur's potential earnings as a salaried worker = $50,000
Annual lease on building = $22,000
Annual revenue from operations = $380,000
Payments to workers = $120,000
Utilities (electricity, water, disposal) costs = $8,000
Value of entrepreneur's talent in the next best entrepreneurial activity = $80,000
Entrepreneur's forgone interest on personal funds used to finance the business = $6,000
18. Refer to the above data. Creamy Crisp's total economic costs are:
A. $286,000.
B. $150,000.
C. $94,000.
D. $156,000.

A. $286,000.

The following is cost information for the Creamy Crisp Donut Company:
Entrepreneur's potential earnings as a salaried worker = $50,000
Annual lease on building = $22,000
Annual revenue from operations = $380,000
Payments to workers = $120,000
Utilities (electricity, water, disposal) costs = $8,000
Value of entrepreneur's talent in the next best entrepreneurial activity = $80,000
Entrepreneur's forgone interest on personal funds used to finance the business = $6,000
19. Refer to the above data. Creamy Crisp's accounting profit is:
A. $150,000.
B. $380,000.
C. $230,000.
D. $294,000.

C. $230,000.

The following is cost information for the Creamy Crisp Donut Company:
Entrepreneur's potential earnings as a salaried worker = $50,000
Annual lease on building = $22,000
Annual revenue from operations = $380,000
Payments to workers = $120,000
Utilities (electricity, water, disposal) costs = $8,000
Value of entrepreneur's talent in the next best entrepreneurial activity = $80,000
Entrepreneur's forgone interest on personal funds used to finance the business = $6,000

20. Refer to the above data. Creamy Crisp's economic profit is:
A. $150,000.
B. $80,000.
C. $230,000.
D. $94,000.

D. $94,000.

1. Economists would describe the U.S. automobile industry as:
A. purely competitive.
B. an oligopoly.
C. monopolistically competitive.
D. a pure monopoly.

B. an oligopoly.

2. In which of the following market structures is there clear-cut mutual interdependence with respect to price-output policies?
A. pure monopoly
B. oligopoly
C. monopolistic competition
D. pure competition

B. oligopoly

3. Which of the following industries most closely approximates pure competition?
A. agriculture
B. farm implements
C. clothing
D. steel

A. agriculture

4. Economists use the term imperfect competition to describe:
A. all industries which produce standardized products.
B. any industry in which there is no nonprice competition.
C. a pure monopoly only.
D. those markets which are not purely competitive.

D. those markets which are not purely competitive.

5. In which of the following industry structures is the entry of new firms the most difficult?
A. pure monopoly
B. oligopoly
C. monopolistic competition
D. pure competition

A. pure monopoly

6. An industry comprised of 40 firms, none of which has more than 3 percent of the total market for a differentiated product is an example of:
A. monopolistic competition.
B. oligopoly.
C. pure monopoly.
D. pure competition.

A. monopolistic competition.

7. An industry comprised of four firms, each with about 25 percent of the total market for a product is an example of:
A. monopolistic competition.
B. oligopoly.
C. pure monopoly.
D. pure competition.

B. oligopoly.

8. An industry comprised of a very large number of sellers producing a standardized product is known as:
A. monopolistic competition.
B. oligopoly.
C. pure monopoly.
D. pure competition.

D. pure competition.

9. An industry comprised of a small number of firms, each of which considers the potential reactions of its rivals in making price-output decisions is called:
A. monopolistic competition.
B. oligopoly.
C. pure monopoly.
D. pure competition.

B. oligopoly.

10. Which of the following statements applies to a purely competitive producer?
A. It will not advertise its product.
B. In long-run equilibrium it will earn an economic profit.
C. Its product will have a brand name.
D. Its product is slightly different from those of its competitors.

A. It will not advertise its product.

11. A purely competitive seller is:
A. both a "price maker" and a "price taker."
B. neither a "price maker" nor a "price taker."
C. a "price taker."
D. a "price maker."

C. a "price taker."

12. Which of the following is not a characteristic of pure competition?
A. price strategies by firms
B. a standardized product
C. no barriers to entry
D. a larger number of sellers

A. price strategies by firms

13. Which of the following is not a basic characteristic of pure competition?
A. considerable nonprice competition
B. no barriers to the entry or exit of firms
C. a standardized or homogeneous product
D. a large number of buyers and sellers

A. considerable nonprice competition

14. The demand schedule or curve confronted by the individual purely competitive firm is:
A. relatively elastic, that is, the elasticity coefficient is greater than unity.
B. perfectly elastic.
C. relatively inelastic, that is, the elasticity coefficient is less than unity.
D. perfectly inelastic.

B. perfectly elastic.

15. Which of the following is characteristic of a purely competitive seller's demand curve?
A. Price and marginal revenue are equal at all levels of output.
B. Average revenue is less than price.
C. Its elasticity coefficient is 1 at all levels of output.
D. It is the same as the market demand curve.

A. Price and marginal revenue are equal at all levels of output.

In answering the question, assume a graph in which dollars are measured on the vertical axis and output on the horizontal axis.
16. Refer to the above information. For a purely competitive firm, total revenue graphs as a:
A. straight, upsloping line.
B. straight line, parallel to the vertical axis.
C. straight line, parallel to the horizontal axis.
D. straight, downsloping line.

A. straight, upsloping line.

In answering the question, assume a graph in which dollars are measured on the vertical axis and output on the horizontal axis.
17. Refer to the above information. For a purely competitive firm, marginal revenue graphs as a:
A. straight, upsloping line.
B. straight line, parallel to the vertical axis.
C. straight line, parallel to the horizontal axis.
D. straight, downsloping line.

C. straight line, parallel to the horizontal axis.

In answering the question, assume a graph in which dollars are measured on the vertical axis and output on the horizontal axis.
18. Refer to the above information. For a purely competitive firm:
A. marginal revenue will graph as an upsloping line.
B. the demand curve will lie above the marginal revenue curve.
C. the marginal revenue curve will lie above the demand curve.
D. the demand and marginal revenue curves will coincide.

D. the demand and marginal revenue curves will coincide.

19. If a firm in a purely competitive industry is confronted with an equilibrium price of $5, its marginal revenue:
A. may be either greater or less than $5.
B. will also be $5.
C. will be less than $5.
D. will be greater than $5.

B. will also be $5.

20. Price is constant or given to the individual firm selling in a purely competitive market because:
A. the firm's demand curve is downsloping.
B. of product differentiation reinforced by extensive advertising.
C. each seller supplies a negligible fraction of total supply.
D. there are no good substitutes for its product.

C. each seller supplies a negligible fraction of total supply.

1. Which of the following distinguishes the short run from the long run in pure competition?
A. Firms can enter and exit the market in the long run, but not in the short run.
B. Firms attempt to maximize profits in the long run, but not in the short run.
C. Firms use the MR=MC rule to maximize profits in the short run, but not in the long run.
D. The quantity of labor hired can vary in the long run, but not in the short run.

A. Firms can enter and exit the market in the long run, but not in the short run.

2. The primary force encouraging the entry of new firms into a purely competitive industry is:
A. normal profits earned by firms already in the industry.
B. economic profits earned by firms already in the industry.
C. government subsidies for start-up firms.
D. a desire to provide goods for the betterment of society.

B. economic profits earned by firms already in the industry.

3. In a purely competitive industry:
A. there will be no economic profits in either the short run or the long run.
B. economic profits may persist in the long run if consumer demand is strong and stable.
C. there may be economic profits in the short run, but not in the long run.
D. there may be economic profits in the long run, but not in the short run.

C. there may be economic profits in the short run, but not in the long run.

4. Suppose a firm in a purely competitive market discovers that the price of its product is above its minimum AVC point but everywhere below ATC. Given this, the firm:
A. minimizes losses by producing at the minimum point of its AVC curve.
B. maximizes profits by producing where MR = ATC.
C. should close down immediately.
D. should continue producing in the short run, but leave the industry in the long run if the situation persists.

D. should continue producing in the short run, but leave the industry in the long run if the situation persists.

5. Which of the following is true concerning purely competitive industries?
A. There will be economic losses in the long run because of cut-throat competition.
B. Economic profits will persist in the long run if consumer demand is strong and stable.
C. In the short run, firms may incur economic losses or earn economic profits, but in the long run they earn normal profits.
D. There are economic profits in the long run, but not in the short run.

C. In the short run, firms may incur economic losses or earn economic profits, but in the long run they earn normal profits.

6. If a purely competitive firm is producing at the MR = MC output level and earning an economic profit, then:
A. the selling price for this firm is above the market equilibrium price.
B. new firms will enter this market.
C. some existing firms in this market will leave.
D. there must be price fixing by the industry's firms.

B. new firms will enter this market.

7. Long-run competitive equilibrium:
A. is realized only in constant-cost industries.
B. will never change once it is realized.
C. is not economically efficient.
D. results in zero economic profits.

D. results in zero economic profits.

8. We would expect an industry to expand if firms in that industry are:
A. earning normal profits.
B. earning economic profits.
C. breaking even.
D. earning accounting profits.

B. earning economic profits.

9. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Economic profits induce firms to enter an industry; losses encourage firms to leave.
B. Economic profits induce firms to leave an industry; profits encourage firms to leave.
C. Economic profits and losses have no significant impact on the growth or decline of an industry.
D. Normal profits will cause an industry to expand.

A. Economic profits induce firms to enter an industry; losses encourage firms to leave.

See More

Please allow access to your computer’s microphone to use Voice Recording.

Having trouble? Click here for help.

We can’t access your microphone!

Click the icon above to update your browser permissions above and try again

Example:

Reload the page to try again!

Reload

Press Cmd-0 to reset your zoom

Press Ctrl-0 to reset your zoom

It looks like your browser might be zoomed in or out. Your browser needs to be zoomed to a normal size to record audio.

Please upgrade Flash or install Chrome
to use Voice Recording.

For more help, see our troubleshooting page.

Your microphone is muted

For help fixing this issue, see this FAQ.

Star this term

You can study starred terms together

NEW! Voice Recording

Create Set