Peripheral Nerve and Spinal Cord Problems nclex

29 terms by amyjomiller1968 

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When assessing a patient with newly diagnosed trigeminal neuralgia, the nurse will ask the patient about ______________

triggers that lead to facial pain.

rationale:
The major clinical manifestation of trigeminal neuralgia is severe facial pain that is triggered by cutaneous stimulation of the nerve. Ptosis, loss of taste, and facial weakness are not characteristics of trigeminal neuralgia.

Which action should the nurse take when assessing a patient with trigeminal neuralgia?

Examine the mouth and teeth thoroughly.

rationale:
Oral hygiene is frequently neglected because of fear of triggering facial pain. Having the patient clench the facial muscles will not be useful because the sensory branches of the nerve are affected by trigeminal neuralgia. Light touch and palpation may be triggers for pain and should be avoided.

When evaluating a patient with trigeminal neuralgia who has had a glycerol rhizotomy, the nurse will ________________

question the patient about social activities with family and friends.

rationale:
Because withdrawal from social activities is a common manifestation of trigeminal neuralgia, asking about social activities will help in evaluating whether the patient's symptoms have improved. Glycerol rhizotomy does not damage the corneal reflex or motor functions of the trigeminal nerve, so there is no need to use an eye shield, do facial exercises, or take precautions with chewing.

Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care when caring for a patient who is experiencing trigeminal neuralgia?

Assess intake and output and dietary intake.

rationale:
The patient with an acute episode of trigeminal neuralgia may be unwilling to eat or drink, so assessment of nutritional and hydration status is important. Because stimulation by touch is the precipitating factor for pain, relaxation of the facial muscles will not improve symptoms. Application of ice is likely to precipitate pain. The patient will not want to engage in conversation, which may precipitate attacks.

When teaching patients who are at risk for Bell's palsy because of previous herpes simplex infection, which information should the nurse include?

"Call the doctor if pain or herpes lesions occur near the ear."

rationale:
Pain or herpes lesions near the ear may indicate the onset of Bell's palsy and rapid corticosteroid treatment may reduce the duration of Bell's palsy symptoms. Antiviral therapy for herpes simplex does not reduce the risk for Bell's palsy. Corticosteroid therapy will be most effective in reducing symptoms if started before paralysis is complete but will still be somewhat effective when started later. Facial exercises do not prevent Bell's palsy.

A patient with Bell's palsy refuses to eat while others are present because of embarrassment about drooling. The best response by the nurse to the patient's behavior is to ________________

respect the patient's desire and arrange for privacy at mealtimes.

rationale:
The patient's desire for privacy should be respected to encourage adequate nutrition and reduce patient embarrassment. Liquid supplements will reduce the patient's enjoyment of the taste of food. It would be inappropriate for the nurse to discuss the patient's embarrassment with visitors unless the patient wishes to share this information. Chewing on the unaffected side of the mouth will enhance nutrition and enjoyment of food but will not decrease the drooling.

Which nursing action will the home health nurse include in the plan of care for a patient with paraplegia in order to prevent autonomic dysreflexia?

Teach the purpose of a prescribed bowel program.

rationale:
Fecal impaction is a common stimulus for autonomic dysreflexia. The other actions may be included in the plan of care but will not reduce the risk for autonomic dysreflexia.

When caring for a patient who has Guillain-Barré syndrome, which assessment data obtained by the nurse will require the most immediate action?

The patient has continuous drooling of saliva.

rationale:
Drooling indicates decreased ability to swallow, which places the patient at risk for aspiration and requires rapid nursing and collaborative actions such as suctioning and possible endotracheal intubation. The foot pain should be treated with appropriate analgesics, and the BP requires ongoing monitoring, but these actions are not as urgently needed as maintenance of respiratory function. Absence of the reflexes should be documented, but this is a common finding in Guillain-Barré syndrome.

A patient who has numbness and weakness of both feet is hospitalized with Guillain-Barré syndrome. The nurse will anticipate the need to teach the patient about _______________

IV infusion of immunoglobulin (Sandoglobulin).

rationale:
Because the Guillain-Barré syndrome is in the earliest stages (as evidenced by the symptoms), use of high-dose immunoglobulin is appropriate to reduce the extent and length of symptoms. Mechanical ventilation and tube feedings may be used later in the progression of the syndrome but are not needed now. Corticosteroid use is not helpful in reducing the duration or symptoms of the syndrome.

A patient arrives at an urgent care center with a deep puncture wound after stepping on a nail that was lying on the ground. The patient reports having had a tetanus booster 7 years ago. The nurse will anticipate ________________

administration of the tetanus-diphtheria (Td) booster.

rationale:
If the patient has not been immunized within 5 years, administration of the Td booster is indicated because the wound is deep. Immune globulin administration is given by the IM route if the patient has no previous immunization. Administration of a series of immunization is not indicated. TIG is not indicated for this patient, and a test dose is not needed for immune globulin.

A patient with a neck fracture at the C5 level is admitted to the intensive care unit. During initial assessment of the patient, the nurse recognizes the presence of neurogenic shock on finding
_______________

hypotension, bradycardia, and warm extremities.

rationale:
Neurogenic shock is characterized by hypotension, bradycardia, and vasodilation leading to warm skin temperature. Spasticity and hyperactive reflexes do not occur at this stage of spinal cord injury. Lack of movement and sensation indicate spinal cord injury, but not neurogenic shock.

A patient has an incomplete right spinal cord lesion at the level of T7, resulting in Brown-Séquard syndrome. Which nursing action should be included in the plan of care?

Positioning the patient's right leg when turning the patient

rationale:
The patient with Brown-Séquard syndrome has loss of motor function on the ipsilateral side and will require the nurse to move the right leg. Pain sensation will be lost on the patient's left leg. Left arm weakness will not be a problem for a patient with a T7 injury. The patient will retain position sense for the left leg.

A patient with a T1 spinal cord injury is admitted to the intensive care unit. The nurse will teach the patient and family that
________________

full function of the patient's arms will be retained.

rationale:
The patient with a T1 injury can expect to retain full motor and sensory function of the arms. Use of only the shoulders is associated with cervical spine injury. Loss of respiratory function occurs with cervical spine injuries. Bradycardia is associated with injuries above the T6 level.

A patient with paraplegia resulting from a T10 spinal cord injury has a neurogenic reflex bladder. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care?

Teach the patient how to self-catheterize.

rationale:
Because the patient's bladder is spastic and will empty in response to overstretching of the bladder wall, the most appropriate method is to avoid incontinence by emptying the bladder at regular intervals through intermittent catheterization. Assisting the patient to the toilet will not be helpful because the bladder will not empty. The Credé method is more appropriate for a bladder that is flaccid, such as occurs with a reflexic neurogenic bladder. Catheterization after voiding will not resolve the patient's incontinence.

When the nurse is developing a rehabilitation plan for a patient with a C6 spinal cord injury, an appropriate patient goal is that the patient will be able to _______________

push a manual wheelchair on flat, smooth surfaces.

rationale:
The patient with a C6 injury will be able to use the hands to push a wheelchair on flat, smooth surfaces. Because flexion of the thumb and fingers is minimal, the patient will not be able to grasp a wheelchair during transfer, drive a car with powered hand controls, or turn independently in bed.

A patient who sustained a spinal cord injury a week ago becomes angry, telling the nurse "I want to be transferred to a hospital where the nurses know what they are doing!" Which reaction by the nurse is best?

Ask for the patient's input into the plan for care.

rationale:
The patient is demonstrating behaviors consistent with the anger phase of the mourning process, and the nurse should allow expression of anger and seek the patient's input into care. Expression of anger is appropriate at this stage and should be tolerated by the nurse. Reassurance about the competency of the staff will not be helpful in responding to the patient's anger. Ignoring the patient's comments will increase the patient's anger and sense of helplessness.

After a 25-year-old patient has returned home following rehabilitation for a spinal cord injury, the home care nurse notes that the spouse is performing many of the activities that the patient had been managing during rehabilitation. The most appropriate action by the nurse at this time is to _______________

develop a plan to increase the patient's independence in consultation with the patient and the spouse.

rationale:
The best action by the nurse will be to involve all the parties in developing an optimal plan of care. Because family members who will be assisting with the patient's ongoing care need to feel that their input is important, telling the spouse that the patient can perform activities independently is not the best choice. Reminding the patient about the importance of independence may not change the behaviors of the spouse. Supporting the activities of the spouse will lead to ongoing dependency by the patient.

The health care provider prescribes these interventions for a patient with possible botulism poisoning. Which one will the nurse question?

Give magnesium citrate 8 oz now.

rationale:
Magnesium is contraindicated because it may worsen the neuromuscular blockade. The other orders are appropriate for the patient.

When caring for a patient who was admitted 24 hours previously with a C5 spinal cord injury, which nursing action has the highest priority?

Assessment of respiratory rate and depth

rationale:
Edema around the area of injury may lead to damage above the C4 level, so the highest priority is assessment of the patient's respiratory function. The other actions also are appropriate but are not as important as assessment of respiratory effort.

A 24-year-old patient is hospitalized with the onset of Guillain-Barré syndrome. During this phase of the patient's illness, the most essential assessment for the nurse to carry out is ________________

observing respiratory rate and effort.

rationale:
The most serious complication of Guillain-Barré syndrome is respiratory failure, and the nurse should monitor respiratory function continuously. The other assessments also will be included in nursing care, but they are not as important as respiratory assessment.

A patient admitted to the emergency department is diagnosed with botulism, and an order for botulinum antitoxin is received. Before administering the antitoxin, it is most important for the nurse to ______________

administer an intradermal test dose.

rationale:
To prevent allergic reactions, an intradermal test dose of the antitoxin should be administered. Although temperature, allergy history, and symptom assessment and documentation are appropriate, these assessments will not affect the decision to administer the antitoxin.

When caring for a patient who had a C8 spinal cord injury 10 days ago and has a weak cough effort and loose-sounding secretions, the initial intervention by the nurse should be to _____________

place the hands on the epigastric area and push upward when the patient coughs.

rationale:
Since the cough effort is poor, the initial action should be to use assisted coughing techniques to improve the ability to mobilize secretions. Administration of oxygen will improve oxygenation, but the data do not indicate hypoxemia. The use of the spirometer may improve respiratory status, but the patient's ability to take deep breaths is limited by the loss of intercostal muscle function. Suctioning may be needed if the patient is unable to expel secretions by coughing but should not be the nurse's first action.

To evaluate the effectiveness of IV methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) given to a patient with a T4 spinal cord injury, which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

Leg strength and sensation

rationale:
The purpose of methylprednisolone administration is to help preserve motor function and sensation. Therefore the nurse will assess this patient for lower extremity function. The other data also will be collected by the nurse, but they do not reflect the effectiveness of the methylprednisolone.

A patient with a history of a T2 spinal cord injury tells the nurse, "I feel awful today. My head is throbbing, and I feel sick to my stomach." Which action should the nurse take first?

Check the blood pressure (BP).

rationale:
The BP should be assessed immediately in a patient with an injury at the T6 level or higher who complains of a headache to determine whether autonomic dysreflexia is occurring. Notification of the patient's health care provider is appropriate after the BP is obtained. Administration of an antiemetic is indicated after autonomic dysreflexia is ruled out as the cause of the nausea. The nurse may assess for a fecal impaction, but this should be done after checking the BP and lidocaine jelly should be used to prevent further increases in the BP.

The nurse is assessing a patient who is being evaluated for a possible spinal cord tumor. Which finding by the nurse requires the most immediate action?

The patient has new onset weakness of both legs.

rationale:
The new onset of symptoms indicates cord compression, an emergency that requires rapid treatment to avoid permanent loss of function. The other patient assessments also indicate a need for nursing action but do not require intervention as rapidly as the new onset weakness.

Which of these nursing actions for a patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome is most appropriate for the nurse to delegate to an experienced nursing assistant?

Passive range of motion to extremities q8hr

rationale:
Assisting a patient with movement is included in nursing assistant education and scope of practice. Administration of tube feedings, administration of ordered medications, and assessment are skills requiring more education and scope of practice, and the RN should perform these skills.

A 26-year-old patient with a T3 spinal cord injury asks the nurse about whether he will be able to be sexually active. Which initial response by the nurse is best?

Multiple options are available to maintain sexuality after spinal cord injury.

rationale:
Although sexuality will be changed by the patient's spinal cord injury, there are options for expression of sexuality and for fertility. The other information also is correct, but the choices will depend on the degrees of injury and the patient's individual feelings about sexuality.

hen caring for a patient who experienced a T1 spinal cord transsection 2 days ago, which collaborative and nursing actions will the nurse include in the plan of care?

a) Urinary catheter care
c) Continuous cardiac monitoring
d) Avoidance of cool room temperature
e) Administration of H2 receptor blockers

rationale:
The patient is at risk for bradycardia and poikilothermia caused by sympathetic nervous system dysfunction and should have continuous cardiac monitoring and maintenance of a relatively warm room temperature. Gastrointestinal (GI) motility is decreased initially and NG suctioning is indicated. To avoid bladder distention, a urinary retention catheter is used during this acute phase. Stress ulcers are a common complication but can be avoided through the use of the H2 receptor blockers such as famotidine.

In which order will the nurse perform the following actions when caring for a patient with possible C6 spinal cord trauma who is admitted to the emergency department? _

e) Immobilize the patient's head, neck, and spine.
c) Administer O2 using a non-rebreather mask.
b) Monitor cardiac rhythm and blood pressure.
a) Infuse normal saline at 150 mL/hr.
d) Transfer the patient to radiology for spinal computed tomography (CT).

rationale:
The first action should be to prevent further injury by stabilizing the patient's spinal cord. Maintenance of oxygenation by administration of 100% O2 is the second priority. Because neurogenic shock is a possible complication, monitoring of heart rhythm and BP are indicated, followed by infusing normal saline for volume replacement. A CT scan to determine the extent and level of injury is needed once initial assessment and stabilization are accomplished.

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