Exam 2

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Dr. Krieger class

Infection occurs when
a. a person inhales microbes in the air.
b. a person swallows microbes in/on food.
c. contaminants are present on the skin.
d. pathogens enter and multiply in body tissues.
e. all of the choices are correct

d. pathogens enter and multiply in body tissues.

The term infection refers to
a. contact with microorganisms.
b. contact with pathogens.
c. microorganisms colonizing the body.
d. pathogens penetrating host defenses.
e. none of the choices are correct

d. pathogens penetrating host defenses.

The human body typically begins to be colonized by its normal flora
a. before birth, in utero.
b. during and immediately after birth.
c. during puberty.
d. when a child first goes to school.
e. when an infant gets its first infectious disease.

b. during and immediately after birth.

Normal flora are found in/on the
a. large intestine.
b. mouth.
c. nasal passages.
d. skin.
e. all of the choices are correct

e. all of the choices are correct

Normal flora includes each of the following except
a. bacteria.
b. fungi.
c. protozoans.
d. viruses.
e. all of the choices are correct

e. all of the choices are correct

Each of the following are inoculation of normal flora to a newborn except
a. bottle feeding.
b. breast feeding.
c. contact with hospital staff.
d. the birth process through the birth canal.
e. all of the choices are correct

e. all of the choices are correct

Opportunistic pathogens
a. are always pathogens.
b. cause disease in compromised individuals.
c. cause disease in every individual.
d. have well developed virulence factors.
e. none of the choices are correct

b. cause disease in compromised individuals.

Pathogenic microbes that cause disease in healthy people are called
a. indigenous biota.
b. micropathogens.
c. normal flora.
d. opportunistic pathogens.
e. true pathogens.

e. true pathogens.

Which of the following is not a factor that weakens host defenses against infections?
a. chemotherapy
b. genetic defects in immunity
c. old age
d. physical and mental stress
e. strong, healthy body

e. strong, healthy body

The greatest number of pathogens enter the body through the
a. gastrointestinal system.
b. genital system.
c. respiratory system.
d. skin.
e. urinary system.

c. respiratory system.

An infectious agent that originates from outside the body is called
a. an enterotoxin.
b. an exotoxin.
c. axenic.
d. endogenous.
e. exogenous.

e. exogenous.

An infectious agent already existing on or in the body is called
a. an enterotoxin.
b. an exotoxin.
c. axenic.
d. endogenous.
e. exogenous.

d. endogenous.

The minimum amount of microbes in the inoculating dose is the
a. endotoxin.
b. indigenous biota.
c. infectious dose.
d. minimal dose.
e. virulence factor.

c. infectious dose.

Once a microbe has entered a host, what process performed by certain white blood
cells will attempt to destroy the microbes?
a. adhesion.
b. encapsulation.
c. exocytosis.
d. margination.
e. phagocytosis.

e. phagocytosis.

Which of the following is not an anti-phagocytic factor?
a. ability to survive intracellularly
b. adhering to the host
c. production of leukocidins
d. secretion of a capsule
e. secretion of slime

b. adhering to the host

Virulence factors include all of the following except
a. capsules.
b. endotoxin.
c. exoenzymes.
d. exotoxin.
e. ribosomes.

e. ribosomes.

Which is mismatched?
a. capsules - anti-phagocytic factor
b. coagulase - dissolve fibrin clots
c. fimbriae - adherence to substrate
d. hemolysins - damage red blood cells
e. leukocidins - damage white blood cells

b. coagulase - dissolve fibrin clots

____ are toxins that are the lipopolysaccharide of the outer membrane of Gramnegative
cell walls.
a. Endotoxins
b. Enterotoxins
c. Exotoxins
d. Hemolysins
e. Leukocidins

a. Endotoxins

The suffix -itis means
a. a disease or morbid process.
b. an inflammation.
c. blood.
d. pertaining to.
e. tumor.

b. an inflammation.

The suffix -osis means
a. a disease or morbid process.
b. an inflammation.
c. blood.
d. pertaining to.
e. tumor.

a. a disease or morbid process.

The suffix -emia means
a. a disease or morbid process.
b. an inflammation.
c. blood.
d. pertaining to.
e. tumor.

c. blood.

The time from when the pathogen first enters the body and begins to multiply, until symptoms first appear is the
a. convalescent stage.
b. incubation period.
c. period of invasion.
d. prodromal stage.
e. none of the choices are correct

b. incubation period.

The subjective evidence of disease sensed by the patient is termed a/an
a. inflammation.
b. pathology.
c. sign.
d. symptom.
e. syndrome.

d. symptom.

The objective, measurable evidence of disease evaluated by an observer is termed
a/an
a. inflammation.
b. pathology.
c. sign.
d. symptom.
e. syndrome.

c. sign.

A ____ is the presence of small numbers of bacteria in the blood.
a. bacteremia
b. septicemia
c. viremia
d. none of the choices are correct

a. bacteremia

Infections that go unnoticed because there are no symptoms are called
a. asymptomatic.
b. inflammation.
c. malaise.
d. secondary infection.
e. syndromes.

a. asymptomatic.

Which of the following is an example of sequelae?
a. arthritis from Lyme disease
b. diarrhea from Salmonella enteritidis infection
c. difficulty swallowing from streptococcal infection
d. headache from meningitis
e. all of the choices are correct

a. arthritis from Lyme disease

Diseases that cause long-term or permanent damage leave
a. chronically.
b. directly.
c. indirectly.
d. latent.
e. sequelae.

e. sequelae.

The primary, natural habitat of a pathogen where it continues to exist is called the
a. carrier.
b. fomes.
c. reservoir.
d. source.
e. vector.

c. reservoir.

Someone who inconspicuously harbors a pathogen and spreads it to others is a
a. carrier.
b. fomes.
c. reservoir.
d. source.
e. vector.

a. carrier.

An animal, such as an arthropod, that transmits a pathogen from one host to another is a
a. carrier.
b. fomes.
c. reservoir.
d. source.
e. vector.

e. vector.

The intermediary object or individual from which the infectious agent is actually acquired is termed the
a. carrier.
b. fomes.
c. reservoir.
d. source.
e. vector.

d. source.

Reservoirs include
a. animals.
b. humans.
c. soil.
d. water.
e. all of the choices are correct.

e. all of the choices are correct.

Animals that participate in the life cycles of pathogens and transmit pathogens from host to host are
a. aerosols.
b. biological vectors.
c. droplet nuclei.
d. fomites.
e. mechanical vectors.

b. biological vectors.

Leukopenia is a/an ____ in the level of white blood cells in a patient.
a. decrease
b. elevation
c. stabilization

a. decrease

A ____ is an infection indigenous to animals that can, on occasion, be transmitted to humans.
a. nosocomial infection
b. secondary infection
c. sequelae
d. zoonosis
e. none of the choices are correct

d. zoonosis

____ carriers are shedding and transmitting pathogen while they are recovering from an infectious disease.
a. Asymptomatic
b. Chronic
c. Convalescent
d. Incubation
e. Passive

c. Convalescent

____ carriers are shedding and transmitting pathogen a long time after they have recovered from an infectious disease.
a. Asymptomatic
b. Chronic
c. Convalescent
d. Incubation
e. Passive

b. Chronic

All infectious diseases
a. are caused by microorganisms or their products.
b. are caused by vectors.
c. are contagious.
d. involve viruses as the pathogen.
e. only occur in humans.

a. are caused by microorganisms or their products.

An inanimate object that harbors and transmits a pathogen is a
a. carrier.
b. fomes.
c. reservoir.
d. source.
e. vector.

b. fomes.

A laboratory technologist splashed a blood specimen onto his face, eyes, nose and mouth. This specimen was from an HIV positive patient. If this blood exposure leads to HIV infection in the technologist, the transmission route is
a. aerosol.
b. direct.
c. droplet nuclei.
d. fomes.
e. vehicle.

e. vehicle.

Nosocomial infections involve all the following except
a. are only transmitted by medical personnel.
b. Escherichia coli and staphylococci are common infectious agents.
c. medical and surgical asepsis help lower their occurrence.
d. often involve the patient's urinary tract and surgical incisions.
e. the patient's resident biota can be the infectious agent.

c. medical and surgical asepsis help lower their occurrence.

Which of the following is not a universal precaution used for handling patients and body substances?
a. hand washing
b. healthcare worker with active lesions handling patients
c. mask and gloves
d. proper disposal of needles
e. sterilizing or disinfecting dental hand pieces

b. healthcare worker with active lesions handling patients

When would Koch's postulates be utilized?
a. determination of the cause of a new disease in a microbiology research lab
b. determination of the cause of a patient's illness in a hospital microbiology lab
c. development of a new antibiotic in a pharmaceutical lab
d. formulation of a vaccine against a new pathogen in a genetic engineering lab
e. whenever the scientific method cannot be used to investigate a microbiological problem

a. determination of the cause of a new disease in a microbiology research lab

The study of the frequency and distribution of a disease in a defined population is
a. clinical microbiology.
b. epidemiology.
c. immunology.
d. medicine.
e. pathology.

b. epidemiology.

The principal government agency responsible for tracking infectious diseases in the United States is the
a. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.
b. Infection Control Committee.
c. National Institutes of Health.
d. United States Department of Agriculture.
e. World Health Organization.

a. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.

The number of new cases of a disease in a population over a specific period of time compared with the healthy population is the ____ rate.
a. epidemic
b. incidence
c. morbidity
d. mortality
e. prevalence

b. incidence

A disease that has a steady frequency over time in a particular geographic location is
a. chronic.
b. endemic.
c. epidemic.
d. pandemic.
e. sporadic.

b. endemic.

The total number of deaths in a population due to a disease is the ____ rate.
a. endemic
b. incidence
c. morbidity
d. mortality
e. pandemic

d. mortality

The number of persons afflicted with an infectious disease is the ____ rate.
a. endemic
b. incidence
c. morbidity
d. mortality
e. pandemic

c. morbidity

What is one goal of the Human Microbiota Project?
a. provide comprehensive characterization of microbiota relating to human health and disease
b. to sequence the DNA of all microorganisms
c. to study microorganisms in their natural habitat
d. to study the prevalence of disease

a. provide comprehensive characterization of microbiota relating to human health and disease

Bacterial toxins are chemical products made by bacteria. A person ingests some honey containing Clostridium botunlinum. The C. botulinum is actively growing and releases toxin in the honey. The person becomes ill from ingesting the toxin. This is an example of a/an
a. hemolysin.
b. intoxication.
c. pandemic.
d. toxemia.

b. intoxication.

Components of the first line of defense include all the following except
a. flushing action of tears and blinking.
b. flushing action of urine.
c. nasal hairs.
d. phagocytic white blood cells.
e. the tough cell sheet of the upper epidermis of the skin.

d. phagocytic white blood cells.

Nonspecific chemical defenses include
a. lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat.
b. lysozyme.
c. skin's acidic pH and fatty acids.
d. stomach hydrochloric acid.
e. all of the choices are correct

e. all of the choices are correct

The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in certain bacterial cell walls is
a. bile.
b. histamine.
c. hydrochloric acid.
d. lactic acid.
e. lysozyme.

e. lysozyme.

The body region where a ciliary escalator helps to sweep microbes trapped in mucus away from that body site is the
a. digestive tract.
b. eye.
c. respiratory tract.
d. skin.
e. urinary tract.

c. respiratory tract.

This body region is protected by fatty acids, acidic pH, lactic acid and a tough cell barrier with its own normal biota.
a. digestive tract
b. eyes
c. respiratory tract
d. skin
e. urinary tract

d. skin

Keratin is an important aspect of non-specific defense because
a. it creates a physical barrier against pathogens.
b. it destroys pathogens.
c. it is toxic to pathogens.
d. it physically restricts pathogens to a specific region.
e. none of the choices are correct

a. it creates a physical barrier against pathogens.

Each of the following are physical barriers to pathogens except
a. hairs.
b. mucus.
c. T-cells.
d. tears.
e. unbroken skin.

c. T-cells.

Zoonotic pathogens
a. have a broad host range.
b. have a narrow host range.
c. infect only humans.
d. infect only mammals.
e. none of the choices are correct

a. have a broad host range.

A properly functioning immune system is responsible for
a. destruction of foreign material.
b. recognition of foreign material.
c. surveillance of the body.
d. only b and c are correct
e. all of the choices are correct

e. all of the choices are correct

Immune system cells differentiate between self and foreign cells by their
a. biota.
b. cell processes.
c. cell walls.
d. markers.
e. skin.

d. markers.

The term ____ is given to any foreign substance that stimulates a specific immune system response.
a. allergen
b. antibody
c. antigen
d. foreign body
e. none of the choices are correct

c. antigen

Plasma
a. contains albumin and globulins.
b. contains fibrinogen.
c. is mostly water.
d. is the liquid portion of blood in which blood cells are suspended.
e. all of the choices are correct

e. all of the choices are correct

Which of the following is incorrect about blood cells?
a. develop from undifferentiated stem cells
b. include erythrocytes that, when mature, lose their nuclei
c. include leukocytes that are either granulocytes or agranulocytes
d. include mast cells
e. produced in red bone marrow sites after birth

d. include mast cells

The blood cells that function in allergic reactions and inflammation, contain peroxidase and lysozyme and particularly target parasitic worms and fungi are
a. basophils.
b. eosinophils.
c. lymphocytes.
d. monocytes.
e. neutrophils.

b. eosinophils.

The least numerous of all white blood cells that release histamine during inflammation and allergic reactions are
a. basophils.
b. eosinophils.
c. lymphocytes.
d. monocytes.
e. neutrophils.

a. basophils.

Which white blood cells comprise 20-30% of the circulating WBCs and are the cells that function in the body's immune system?
a. basophils.
b. eosinophils.
c. lymphocytes.
d. monocytes.
e. neutrophils.

c. lymphocytes.

The most numerous WBCs that have multi-lobed nuclei and are very phagocytic are
a. basophils.
b. eosinophils.
c. lymphocytes.
d. monocytes.
e. neutrophils.

e. neutrophils.

Which white blood cells comprise 3-7% of circulating WBCs are phagocytic and can migrate out into body tissues to differentiate into macrophages?
a. basophils.
b. eosinophils.
c. lymphocytes.
d. monocytes.
e. neutrophils.

d. monocytes.

All of the following pertain to platelets except they
a. are not whole cells but are pieces of cells.
b. contain hemoglobin to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide.
c. function in blood clotting and inflammation.
d. function primarily in hemostasis.
e. originate from giant multinucleate cells called megakaryocytes.

b. contain hemoglobin to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide.

Hematopoiesis is the
a. loss of blood due to hemorrhaging.
b. migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues.
c. plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding.
d. production of only red blood cells.
e. production of white blood cells, red blood cells and platelets.

e. production of white blood cells, red blood cells and platelets.

Plasma cells
a. are derived from T-lymphocytes.
b. function in blood clotting.
c. function in cell-mediated immunity.
d. produce and secrete antibodies.

d. produce and secrete antibodies.

Which type of white blood cells are particularly attracted to sites of parasitic worm infections?
a. basophils.
b. eosinophils.
c. lymphocytes.
d. monocytes.
e. neutrophils.

b. eosinophils.

Each of the following are granulocytes except
a. basophils.
b. eosinophils.
c. lymphocytes.
d. neutrophils.
e. all of the choices are granulocytes

c. lymphocytes.

The granules of neutrophils contain
a. antibodies.
b. antigens.
c. digestive enzymes.
d. histamine.
e. peroxidase.

c. digestive enzymes.

The granules of eosinophils contain
a. antibodies.
b. antigens.
c. histamine.
d. peroxidase.
e. serotonin.

d. peroxidase.

The granules of basophils contain
a. antibodies.
b. antigens.
c. digestive enzymes.
d. histamine.
e. lysozyme.

d. histamine.

Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils are called ____ because they have prominent cytoplasmic inclusions that, in a stained blood smear, appear with identifying, characteristic colors.
a. agranulocytes
b. granulocytes
c. leukocytes
d. monocytes
e. none of the choices are correct

b. granulocytes

____ function in humoral immunity, while ____ function in cell-mediated immunity.
a. Basophils, T-cells
b. B-cells, neutrophils
c. B-cells, T-cells
d. Monocytes, basophils
e. T-cells, B-cells

c. B-cells, T-cells

When monocytes migrate from the blood out to the tissues they are transformed by inflammatory mediators to develop into
a. cytotoxic T-cells.
b. killer T-cells.
c. macrophages.
d. neutrophils.
e. primary phagocytes.

c. macrophages.

Which of the following lymphoid organs or tissues has the immunological function of filtering pathogens from the blood?
a. GALT
b. lymph nodes
c. spleen
d. thymus
e. tonsils

c. spleen

What structures are found along lymphatic vessels and are heavily clustered in the armpit, groin and neck?
a. GALT
b. lymph nodes
c. spleen
d. thymus
e. tonsils

b. lymph nodes

Which gland shrinks in size during adulthood and has hormones that function in maturation of T-lymphocytes?
a. GALT
b. lymph nodes
c. spleen
d. thymus
e. tonsils

d. thymus

Diapedesis is the
a. loss of blood due to hemorrhaging.
b. migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues.
c. plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding.
d. production of only red blood cells.
e. production of white blood cells, red blood cells and platelets.

b. migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues.

All of the following are events of early inflammation except
a. brief vasoconstriction is followed by vasodilation.
b. capillaries become more permeable resulting in edema.
c. chemical mediators and cytokines are released.
d. exudate and pus can accumulate.
e. macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis.

e. macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis.

The leakage of vascular fluid into tissues is called
a. chemotaxis.
b. diapedesis.
c. edema.
d. pus.
e. vasoactivity.

c. edema.

The circulating substances that affect the hypothalamus and initiate fever are
a. complement.
b. interferons.
c. leukotrines.
d. lysozymes.
e. pyrogens.

e. pyrogens.

Each of the following are benefits of fever except it
a. increases metabolism.
b. increases phagocytosis.
c. increases the availability of iron.
d. reduces the ability of temperature sensitive organisms to multiply.
e. stimulates hematopoiesis.

c. increases the availability of iron.

Which of the following is not a type of phagocyte?
a. Kupffer cells
b. lymphocytes
c. macrophages
d. monocytes
e. neutrophils

b. lymphocytes

All of the following pertain to interferon except
a. includes alpha, beta and gamma types.
b. increases capillary permeability and vasodilation.
c. inhibits viruses, tumors and cancer gene expression.
d. it is a protein.
e. produced by certain white blood cells and tissue cells.

b. increases capillary permeability and vasodilation.

The four classic signs and symptoms of inflammation include all of the following except
a. chills.
b. pain.
c. redness.
d. swelling.
e. warmth.

a. chills.

Which of the following is incorrect about complement?
a. act in a cascade reaction
b. composed of at least 20 blood proteins
c. involves a classical pathway
d. involves an alternate pathway
e. only appear in the blood during a response to a pathogen

e. only appear in the blood during a response to a pathogen

The membrane attack stage of the complement cascade involves
a. a ring-shaped protein that digests holes in bacterial cell membranes and virus envelopes.
b. cleaving of C3 to yield C3a and C3b.
c. C1q binds to surface receptors on a membrane.
d. initiation of the cascade.
e. production of inflammatory cytokines.

a. a ring-shaped protein that digests holes in bacterial cell membranes and virus envelopes.

The ____ system of blood proteins acts to lyse foreign cells and viruses.
a. cell mediated
b. complement
c. humoral immunity
d. lymphoid
e. none of the choices are correct

b. complement

Which protein can be produced by a virus-infected cell, in order to communicate with other cells the need to produce antiviral proteins?
a. albumin
b. complement
c. histamine
d. interferon

d. interferon

If a CBC shows a moderate leukocytosis (14,000/ul) and lymphocytosis (48%), what type of condition is most likely to be affecting the patient?
a. allergic reaction
b. bacterial infection
c. leukemia
d. parasitic infection
e. viral infection

a. viral infection

If a CBC shows a marked leukocytosis (156,000/ul) with neutrophilia and shift to the left, what type of condition is most likely to be affecting the patient?
a. allergic reaction
b. bacterial infection
c. leukemia
d. parasitic infection
e. viral infection

c. leukemia

The lymphatic system
a. acts as a "receiving" system for the allergic response.
b. provides an auxiliary route for the return of extracellular fluid to the circulatory system proper.
c. renders destruction of foreign bodies through chemical lysing.
d. does all of the above.

b. provides an auxiliary route for the return of extracellular fluid to the circulatory system proper.

Which is the first antibody made during the primary response to an antigen?
a. IgA
b. IgD
c. IgE
d. IgG
e. IgM

e. IgM

The immunoglobulin involved with the allergic reactions is
a. IgA
b. IgD
c. IgE
d. IgG
e. IgM

c. IgE

A foreign molecule that causes a specific immune response is a/an
a. antibody.
b. antigen.
c. hapten.
d. marker.
e. PAMP.

b. antigen.

Acquired specific immunity involves the response of
a. B and T lymphocytes.
b. interferon.
c. lysozyme.
d. mucous membranes.
e. skin barriers.

a. B and T lymphocytes.

The embryonic yolk sac, the liver and the bone marrow are sites where
a. antigen is filtered from the blood.
b. antigen is filtered from tissue fluid.
c. immune responses to antigen occur.
d. stem cells give rise to immature lymphocytes.
e. T-lymphocytes complete maturation.

d. stem cells give rise to immature lymphocytes.

The progeny cells of a B-cell clone are called
a. activated macrophages.
b. antibodies.
c. bursa cells.
d. plasma cells.
e. sensitized T-cells.

d. plasma cells.

Helper T-cells
a. activate B-cells and other T-cells.
b. directly destroy target cells.
c. function in allergic reations.
d. secrete antibodies.
e. suppress immune reactions.

a. activate B-cells and other T-cells.

Plasma cells
a. activate B-cells and other T-cells.
b. directly destroy target cells.
c. function in allergic reations.
d. secrete antibodies.
e. suppress immune reactions.

d. secrete antibodies.

Lymphocyte maturation involves
a. B-cells maturing in bone marrow sites.
b. hormonal signals that initiate development.
c. release of mature lymphocytes to begin migration to various lymphoid organs.
d. T-cells maturing in the thymus.
e. all of the choices are correct.

e. all of the choices are correct.

What type of cells secrete antibodies?
a. antigen-presenting cells (APCs)
b. B-cells
c. cytotoxic T-cells
d. helper T-cellls
e. plasma cells

e. plasma cells

Cell surface markers involved in immune reactions
a. aid in cellular development.
b. are the result of genetic expression.
c. function in recognition of self molecules.
d. receive and transmit chemical messages among other cells of the system.
e. all of the choices are correct

e. all of the choices are correct

Lymphocytes
a. develop into clones of B and T-cells with extreme variations of specificity.
b. gain tolerance to self by destruction of lymphocytes that could react against self.
c. have membrane receptors that recognize foreign antigens.
d. possess MHC antigens for recognizing self.
e. all of the choices are correct

e. all of the choices are correct

The molecular fragment on antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is called a/an
a. antigen binding site.
b. epitope.
c. hapten.
d. variable region.
e. none of the choices are correct.

b. epitope.

Superantigens are
a. bacterial toxins that activate T-cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens.
b. body tissues that the immune system mistakes as foreign.
c. cell markers found in some member of a species but not in other members.
d. those that evoke allergic reactions.
e. none of the choices are correct

a. bacterial toxins that activate T-cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens.

Antigens that elicit allergic reactions are called
a. allergens.
b. autoantigens.
c. heterophilic antigens.
d. superantigens.
e. none of the choices are correct

a. allergens.

Which of the following is not a property of B-cells?
a. low numbers circulating in the blood
b. mature in the bone marrow
c. produce plasma cells and memory cells
d. receptors called immunoglobulins
e. require antigen presented with MHC proteins

e. require antigen presented with MHC proteins

Antigen presenting cells (APCs)
a. engulf and modify antigen to be more immunogenic.
b. hold and present processed antigen on their cell membrane surface.
c. include dendritic cells.
d. include macrophages.
e. all of the choices are correct

e. all of the choices are correct

Which process involves antibodies cross-linking cells or particles into large aggregates?
a. agglutination
b. anamnestic response
c. complement fixation
d. neutralization
e. opsonization

a. agglutination

Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to
facilitate phagocytosis?
a. agglutination
b. anamnestic response
c. complement fixation
d. neutralization
e. opsonization

e. opsonization

Which process involves a more rapid synthesis and greatly increased titer of antibody when the immune system is subsequently exposed to the same antigen?
a. agglutination
b. anamnestic response
c. complement fixation
d. neutralization
e. opsonization

b. anamnestic response

The immunoglobulin class that has a dimer form found in mucus, saliva, colostrum and other body secretions is
a. IgA.
b. IgD.
c. IgE.
d. IgG.
e. IgM.

a. IgA.

The immunoglobulin class that is the only one capable of crossing the placenta is
a. IgA.
b. IgD.
c. IgE.
d. IgG.
e. IgM.

d. IgG.

The immunoglobulin class that has an Fc region that binds to receptors on
basophils and mast cells is
a. IgA.
b. IgD.
c. IgE.
d. IgG.
e. IgM.

c. IgE

All of the following are characteristics of IgM except
a. can serve as a B-cell receptor.
b. contains a central J chain.
c. has 10 antigen binding sites.
d. is a dimer.
e. is the first class synthesized by a plasma cell.

d. is a dimer.

The immunoglobulin(s) found on the surface of B-cells is/are
a. IgD and IgE.
b. IgD only.
c. IgG only.
d. IgM and IgD.
e. IgM only.

b. IgD only.

Monoclonal antibodies
a. are secreted by hybridomas.
b. are used in immunology lab tests and cancer therapy.
c. have a single specificity for antigen.
d. originate from a single B-cell clone.
e. all of the choices are correct.

e. all of the choices are correct.

____ is the most abundant class of antibodies in serum.
a. IgA.
b. IgD.
c. IgE.
d. IgG.
e. IgM.

d. IgG.

An activated TH cell produces ____ which is a growth factor for T-helper cells and cytotoxic T-cells.
a. antiserum
b. complement
c. interleukin-1
d. interleukin-2
e. interleukin-12

d. interleukin-2

What process provides many B-cells and T-cells that are activated against specific antigens?
a. antibody production
b. antigen expression
c. antigen presentation
d. clonal expansion
e. opsonization

d. clonal expansion

The most significant cells in graft rejection are
a. cytotoxic T-cells.
b. delayed hypersensitivity T-cells.
c. helper T-cells.
d. natural killer (NK) cells.
e. suppressor T-cells.

a. cytotoxic T-cells.

Which lymphocytes lack specificity for antigen and are cells that attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells?
a. cytotoxic T-cells.
b. delayed hypersensitivity T-cells.
c. helper T-cells.
d. natural killer (NK) cells.
e. suppressor T-cells.

d. natural killer (NK) cells.

Which of the following is not a target for Tc cells?
a. bacteria
b. cancer cells
c. human transplanted liver
d. pig transplanted heart
e. virus-infected cells

a. bacteria

The beauty of specific immunity is the production of ____ that provides longlasting protection.
a. antibodies
b. memory cells
c. phagocytic cells
d. plasma cells
e. T-helper cells

b. memory cells

An example of artificial passive immunity would be
a. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
b. chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity.
c. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
d. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
e. none of the choices are correct

d. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.

An example of natural passive immunity would be
a. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
b. chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity.
c. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
d. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
e. none of the choices are correct

a. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.

An example of artificial active immunity would be
a. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
b. chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity.
c. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
d. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
e. none of the choices are correct

c. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.

An example of natural active immunity would be
a. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
b. chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity.
c. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
d. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
e. none of the choices are correct

b. chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity.

During which response to the antigen do we display a latent period of no secretory antibody synthesis?
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
d. quaternary

a. primary

Which of the following statements is not true about innate immunity?
a. These responses are innate or inborn.
b. These responses are not affected by prior exposure to the agent.
c. These responses are not directed specifically to the infectious agent.
d. These responses are operating constantly to prevent the establishment of
any infection.
e. All of the above are true with regard to innate immunity.

e. All of the above are true with regard to innate immunity.

Which of the following is not an example of a nonspecific defense mechanism?
a. antibodies or immunoglobulins
b. flushing action of tears, saliva and urine.
c. inflammation
d. mucous membranes
e. skin

a. antibodies or immunoglobulins

The granulocytes that are actively phagocytic and the most numerous of the leukocytes circulating in the blood are the
a. basophils.
b. eosinophils.
c. lymphocytes.
d. monocytes.
e. neutrophils.

e. neutrophils.

The type of leukocyte that is found in the tissues throughout the body, is actively phagocytic, and constitutes the mononuclear phagocyte system is the
a. basophil.
b. eosinophil.
c. lymphocyte.
d. monocyte.
e. neutrophil.

d. monocyte.

All of the following are true regarding macrophages except
a. macrophages are derived from neutrophils.
b. macrophages play an important role in both innate and adaptive immunity.
c. they are found in most tissues of the body.
d. they can be activated to produce specific enzymes that will degrade the specific molecules or particles that they ingest.
e. to ingest large particles or to fight chronic infections, they can fuse together and form giant cells.

a. macrophages are derived from neutrophils.

Which of the following is true with regards to Toll-like receptors?
a. They are found on the surface of macrophages.
b. They are important for innate immunity.
c. They promote chemokine production.
d. They recognize conserved molecules on bacteria.
e. All of the above are true.

e. All of the above are true.

All of the following are true regarding apoptosis except it
a. damages DNA.
b. induces inflammation.
c. induces membrane budding.
d. induces phagocytosis of cells by macrophages.
e. results in programmed cell death.

b. induces inflammation.

Place the following events in the order in which they would occur during the process of phagocytosis.
1. attachment 2. chemotaxis 3. digestion 4. ingestion
a. 1, 2, 4, 3
b. 1, 4, 3, 2
c. 2, 1, 4, 3
d. 2, 4, 1, 3
e. 2, 4, 3, 1

c. 2, 1, 4, 3
2. chemotaxis
1. attachment
4. ingestion
3. digestion

An enzyme found in our tears, saliva, serum, and mucus that degrades the peptidoglycan of the cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria is called
a. amylase.
b. keratinase.
c. lysozyme.
d. peptidase.
e. streptokinase.

c. lysozyme.

A protein found in neutrophils, mucous secretions, saliva, and other body secretions that binds to iron, thus making it unavailable for microbial growth is
called
a. catalase.
b. complement.
c. lactoferrin.
d. lysozyme.
e. peroxidase.

c. lactoferrin.

Which of the following are mechanisms that protect the respiratory system from infection?
1. acidic environment
2. lysozyme
3. mucociliary escalator
4. mucus
5. normal flora
a. 2, 3
b. 2, 3, 4, 5
c. 4, 3, 1
d. 4, 3, 5
e. 4, 5

b. 2, 3, 4, 5
2. lysozyme
3. mucociliary escalator
4. mucus
5. normal flora

Which of the following substances is produced by the cells in our body and interferes with the multiplication of viruses by stimulating the production of antiviral proteins?
a. antivirase
b. complement
c. inhibitase
d. interferon
e. multiplicase

d. interferon

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