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Dr. Krieger

The study of diseases associated with excesses and deficiencies of the immune system is
a. epidemiology.
b. hemopathology.
c. histopathology.
d. humoralpathology.
e. immunopathology.

e. immunopathology.

Any heightened or inappropriate immune response resulting in tissue damage is called a/an
a. autoimmune disease.
b. desensitization.
c. hypersensitivity.
d. immunodeficiency.
e. transfusion reaction.

a. autoimmune disease.

The serum of a person with blood type A, Rh negative will have which of the following?
a. anti-A
b. anti-A, anti-B, anti-Rh
c. anti-A, anti-Rh
d. anti-B
e. anti-B, anti-Rh

d. anti-B

A person with O type blood
a. could not have the Rh factor.
b. is called a universal recipient.
c. lacks A and B antigens.
d. lacks all the alleles for ABO blood type.
e. all of the choices are correct

c. lacks A and B antigens.

A person who has anti-A and anti-B serum antibodies will have blood type
a. A
b. AB
c. B
d. O
e. Rh

d. O

Transfusion of the wrong blood type can cause
a. fever and anemia.
b. massive hemolysis of the donor RBCs.
c. recipient antibody activating the complement cascade to attack the
RBCs.
d. systemic shock and kidney failure.
e. all of the choices are correct

e. all of the choices are correct

A female who is Rh negative
a. can never have an Rh positive baby.
b. inherited two dominant genes.
c. is at risk for a pregnancy resulting in hemolytic disease of the newborn.
d. is in the majority of the population with regard to Rh status.
e. all of the choices are correct

c. is at risk for a pregnancy resulting in hemolytic disease of the newborn.

The potential for hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) occurs when
a. fetal Rh negative cells enter an Rh positive mother.
b. fetal Rh positive cells enter an Rh negative mother.
c. fetal Rh positive cells enter an Rh positive mother.
d. maternal Rh negative cells enter an Rh positive fetus.
e. maternal Rh positive cells enter an Rh negative fetus.

d. maternal Rh negative cells enter an Rh positive fetus.

Once a mother has been sensitized to the Rh factor
a. all other Rh positive fetuses are at risk.
b. only future Rh negative fetuses are at risk.
c. she can be given RhoGAM in future pregnancies to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn.
d. she can never again have a low risk pregnancy.
e. none of the choices are correct

a. all other Rh postive fetuses are at risk.
c. she can be given RhoGAM in future pregnancies to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn.

Autoimmunity is typically due to
a. a deficiency in T cell development.
b. autoantibodies and T cells.
c. graft rejection.
d. IgE and mast cells.
e. transfusion reaction.

b. autoantibodies and T cells.

Each of the following is an autoimmune disease except
a. Graves disease.
b. metastatic cancer.
c. rheumatic fever.
d. systemic lupus erythematosus
e. type I diabetes.

b. metastatic cancer.

A secondary acquired immunodeficiency is
a. adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency.
b. agammaglobulinemia.
c. AIDS.
d. Digeorge syndrome.
e. SCID

c. AIDS.

Which of the following is not a phenotypic method of identification?
a. acid-fast reaction
b. antibody response
c. endospore stain
d. Gram stain reaction
e. morphology

b. antibody response

Biochemical tests include all of the following except
a. acid-fast reaction.
b. cell wall composition.
c. gas production.
d. Gram stain reaction.
e. sugar fermentation.

b. cell wall composition

Urine and fecal specimens require
a. incubation in differential media.
b. incubation in selective media.
c. incubation in both differential and selective media.
d. sterile collection conditions.
e. sterile collection conditions and incubation in differential media.

b. incubation in selective media.

Which test is especially good for bacteria that are not readily cultivated in the lab?
a. dichotomous key
b. direct antigen testing
c. direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) testing
d. Gram stain
e. phage test

c. direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) testing

Which of the following is involved in the in vitro diagnostic testing of serum?
a. hematology
b. histology
c. mycology
d. serology
e. virology

d. serology

The property of a test to detect even small amounts of antibodies or antigens that are the test targets is
a. agglutination.
b. cross-reaction.
c. precipitation.
d. sensitivity.
e. specificity.

d. sensitivity.

The property of a test to detect only a certain antibody or antigen and not to react with any others is
a. agglutination.
b. cross-reaction.
c. precipitation.
d. sensitivity.
e. specificity.

e. specificity.

A serum titer involves
a. determining the highest dilution of serum that produces a visible reaction.
b. determining the lowest dilution of serum that produces a visible reaction.
c. serially diluting a serum sample.
d. the Western blot method.
e. none of the choices are correct

a. determining the highest dilution of serum that produces a visible reaction.
OR
c. serially diluting a serum sample.

A positive serological tests for tuberculosis indicates that the patient
a. has active tuberculosis.
b. has been exposed to tuberculosis.
c. is an asymptomatic carrier of tuberculosis.
d. all of the choices are correct

d. all of the choices are correct

Serological testing can be used to test each of the following except
a. blood serum.
b. cerebrospinal fluid.
c. saliva.
d. skin.
e. urine.

d. skin.

Titer is the amount of ____ in serum.
a. antibody
b. antigen
c. complement
d. memory cells
e. WBCs

a. antibody

Antibody testing requires
a. a known antibody.
b. a known antigen.
c. both a known antigen and a known antibody.
d. either a known antigen or a known antibody.

b. a known antigen.

What type of test will detect whole antigens?
a. agglutination.
b. cross-reaction.
c. precipitation.
d. sensitivity.
e. specificity.

a. agglutination.

Soluble antigens are detected in this type of test.
a. agglutination.
b. cross-reaction.
c. precipitation.
d. sensitivity.
e. specificity.

c. precipitation.

What type of test affixes an antigen to an inert particle such as a latex bead?
a. agglutination.
b. cross-reaction.
c. precipitation.
d. sensitivity.
e. specificity.

a. agglutination.

Precipitation tests involve all of the following except they
a. a cloudy or opaque zone develops where antigen and antibody react.
b. they are often performed in agar gels.
c. they can be done in a test tube by carefully adding antiserum over antigen solution.
d. they include the VDRL test for syphilis.
e. they rely on formation of visible clumps for detection.

b. they are often performed in agar gels.

When serum proteins are separated by electrophoresis and then antibodies specific for the serum proteins are placed in a parallel trough in order to form reaction arcs for each protein, the test is called
a. immunoelectrophoresis.
b. Ouchterlony double diffusion.
c. radioimmunoassay (RIA).
d. Quellung test.
e. Western blot test.

a. immunoelectrophoresis.

In precipitation tests, the antigen
a. antibody complex settles to the bottom of the tube.
b. is an insoluble molecule.
c. is a soluble molecule.
d. is a whole cell.
e. none of the choices are correct

c. is a soluble molecule.

Syphilis can be diagnosed by the
a. antistreptolysin O test.
b. latex agglutination test.
c. rapid plasma reagin test.
d. Weil-Felix reaction.
e. Widal test.

c. rapid plasma reagin test.

Which test is the confirming test for people who initially tested antibodypositive in the screening test ELISA test for HIV?
a. immunoelectrophoresis.
b. Ouchterlony double diffusion.
c. radioimmunoassay (RIA).
d. Quellung test.
e. Western blot test.

e. Western blot test.

The Western blot test is confirmatory for HIV because
a. It has fewer false positives than the ELISA.
b. It is easier to interpret than ELISA.
c. It is more sensitive than the ELISA.
d. It tests for more HIV antibodies than ELISA.
e. all of the choices are correct

a. It has fewer false positives than the ELISA.

Which test uses radioactive isotopes to label antibodies or antigens in order to detect minute amounts of corresponding antigen or antibody?
a. immunoelectrophoresis.
b. Ouchterlony double diffusion.
c. radioimmunoassay (RIA).
d. Quellung test.
e. Western blot test.

c. radioimmunoassay (RIA).

Horseradish peroxidase and alkaline phosphatase are enzymes used in ____ tests.
a. direct fluorescent antibody
b. ELISA
c. indirect fluorescent antibody
d. Western blot
e. none of the choices are correct

b. ELISA

A positive ELISA result requires
a. one known antibody, one unknown antibody and a known antigen.
b. one known antibody, one unknown antibody and an unknown antigen.
c. two known antibodies, one known antigen.
d. two known antibodies, one unknown antigen.
e. any of the choices would be correct

a. one known antibody, one unknown antibody and a known antigen.

When minute samples of DNA need to be genetically analyzed foridentification purposes, which test can be effectively used?
a. direct fluorescent antibody
b. PCR
c. Weil-Felix reaction
d. Widal

b. PCR

The change from negative serum without specific antibodies to serum positive for specific antibodies is called
a. immunoassay
b. immunochange
c. immunoconversion
d. seroconversion
e. serology

d. seroconversion

Which of the following statements is false?
a. Blood can be tested for either antibodies or antigens.
b. It takes at least 7-10 days to produce detectable antibodies against an antigen.
c. Serial dilutions are used to determine the amount of antibodies in a serum sample.
d. Thin sections of tissue are most commonly used to test for the presence of antigens.
e. There are no false statements; all statements are true.

d. Thin sections of tissue are most commonly used to test for the presence of antigens.

Precipitation reactions require
a. an optimal proportion of antibodies and antigen.
b. complement.
c. double diffusion gel.
d. excess antibody.
e. excess antigen.

a. an optimal proportion of antibodies and antigen.

Which of the following statements about agglutination is false?
a. Agglutination reactions are easier to see than precipitation reactions.
b. Agglutination reactions involve large particles.
c. Hemagglutination inhibition assays can be used to detect antibodies against viruses that cause hemagglutination.
d. In indirect agglutination tests, antibodies are first attached to latex bead or other particles.
e. There are no false statements; all statements are true.

e. There are no false statements; all statements are true.

Which of the following is not true with regards to indirect ELISA and indirect fluorescent antibody tests?
a. They are used to detect antibodies against specific antigens.
b. They may require a fluorescent tag to be attached to antibodies.
c. They may require that an enzyme be attached to the antibody.
d. They require an agarose support.
e. They require a second antibody that binds to human antibody.

e. They require a second antibody that binds to human antibody.

The principle clinical use for which of the following assays is the identification of antibodies against HIV?
a. complement fixation test
b. direct agglutination test
c. indirect fluorescent antibody test
d. radioallergosorbent test
e. western blot

e. western blot

What type of immunity is induced by the hepatitis B vaccine?
a. artificially acquired active immunity
b. artificially acquired passive immunity
c. naturally acquired active immunity
d. naturally acquired passive immunity
e. none of the above

a. artificially acquired active immunity

Which of the following contribute to protecting an infant from infection during its first few months of life?
1. IgA
2. IgG
3. IgE
4. monoclonal antibodies
5. passive immunity
a. 1 and 2
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 1, 2, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 5
e. 2 and 4

d. 1, 2, 5
1. IgA
2. IgG
5. passive immunity

A study shows that experienced teachers are less likely than new teachers to get sick from ill children. What is the most probable explanation for this
observation?
a. Experienced teachers develop better innate immunity.
b. Experienced teachers become ill less often because they are less stressed.
c. Experienced teachers have gained a strong immune system through regular natural immunization.
d. New teachers are less likely to be vaccinated against diseases.
e. New teachers are younger and get more childhood illnesses.

c. Experienced teachers have gained a strong immune system through regular natural immunization.

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