VTNE---multi

673 terms by Squarbles 

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VTNE practice

Ancylostoma causes which zoonotic disease in humans?

A) Ocular larva migrans
B) Crohn's disease
C) Visceral larva migrans
D) Cutaneous larva migrans

D) Cutaneous larva migrans

Explanation - Ancylostoma is a hookworm and is the most common cause of Cutaneous larva migrans. This is an intestinal parasite of dogs and cats. In this zoonotic disease, the parasite burrows under the skin in humans.
Ocular and Visceral larva migrans are caused by Toxocara canis (roundworm).
Crohn's disease is a type of severe inflammatory bowel disease in people with no correlation to our pet patients

Why should atropine, a competitive antagonist of acetylcholine receptors, be used cautiously in horses (i.e. what is a major side effect of the drug)?

A) Excessive use can result in intestinal stasis (colic)
B) Excessive use can result in bradycardia
C) Excessive use can result in diarrhea
D) Excessive use can result in intense constriction of the pupil

A) Excessive use can result in intestinal stasis (colic)

Explanation - Atropine is commonly used topically to dilate the pupil in horses with uveitis; with excessive administration, atropine can cause intestinal motility to decrease, possibly resulting in abdominal pain (colic) in the horse. Atropine is also used to increase the heart rate during general anesthesia

How many milliliters of dextrose should be added to a 60 ml syringe of 0.9% NaCl to make a 2.5% dextrose solution? The patient weighs 20 kg, and the dextrose in the hospital comes in a 50% concentration.

A) 0.6 ml
B) 1.5 ml
C) 3 ml
D) 36 ml
E) 120 ml

C) 3 ml

Explanation - To answer this question, use the following equation:
C(1)V(1) = C(2)V(2)
C is the concentration
V is the volume
C(1) =0.025
V(1) = 60 ml
C(2) = 0.50
V(2) = x
0.025(60)= 0.50x
x = 3 ml
Note that the body weight is completely unnecessary to calculate the answer to this problem.
200 ml of 25% dextrose should be added to one liter in order to make a 5% solution.

In dogs, which of the following are all permanent teeth with 2 roots?

A) Maxillary premolars 2, 3, and 4, and molar 1
B) Mandibular premolars 2, 3, and 4, and molar 1
C) Maxillary molars 1 and 2
D) Mandibular premolar 1 and molars

B) Mandibular premolars 2, 3, and 4, and molar 1

2 and 3
Explanation - While exceptions do occur, the following are generally accepted and true. In dogs, all of the permanent incisors and canine teeth have 1 root. In the mandible, premolar (PM) 1 has one root. PM 2, 3, and 4 all have two roots. M 1 and 2 have two roots. M3 can have one or two roots. In the maxilla, PM 1 has one root. PM 2 and 3 have two roots, although PM 3 can sometimes have 3 roots. PM 4 and M1 and 2 all have 3 roots.

Which disease occurs when the body is unable to make or utilize insulin?

A) Cushing's disease
B) Diabetes
C) Addison's disease
D) Pancreatitis
E) Hyperandrogenism

B) Diabetes

Explanation - Diabetes mellitus occurs when the pancreas does not make insulin or when there is insulin resistance such that the body is unable to utilize insulin.

Which cranial nerve is known for three major branches?

A) CN I
B) CN V
C) CN XI
D) CN XII

B) CN V

Explanation - Cranial nerve V (five) is the Trigeminal nerve and has three major branches:
First branch: Ophthalmic nerve- sensory to the eye socket and its contents, the anterior nasal cavity, and the skin of the nose and forehead.
Second branch: Maxillary nerve- sensory to maxilla, nasal cavity/sinuses, palate, and part of the face.
Third branch: Mandibular nerve (the largest branch)- sensory fibers to the lower jaw, the floor of the mouth, the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, the lower teeth, and supplies motor fibers to the muscles of mastication (note: that this is the only branch that supplies motor function).

A patient who has stopped breathing after administration of a short-acting anesthetic can be described as being which of the following?

A) Eupneic
B) Atelectic
C) Dyspneic
D) Apneic

D) Apneic

Explanation - This patient would be apneic, which means the patient is not breathing. Dyspnea implies difficulty breathing. Eupnea is normal respiration. Atelectasis is the description given to collapsed lungs

Which condition occurs least commonly in the horse?

A) Laminitis
B) Intestinal incarceration
C) Enterolithiasis
D) Urolithiasis

D) Urolithiasis

Explanation - As compared to small animals, urolithiasis is uncommon in horses. If they do develop stones in their bladder, it is usually secondary to formation of calcium oxalate crystals. Enterolithiasis and intestinal incarcerations are common reasons for colic in horses and usually require surgical intervention. Laminitis is a very serious and often life-threatening condition in horses. The pathophysiology of laminitis is poorly understood but involves inflammation of the lamina of the feet. It can involve all feet or even just one foot. There are multiple conditions that can lead to laminitis, such as endotoxemia, grain overload, and pneumonia.

What is another method, besides drawing from the tail vein, to blood draw in a laboratory rat?

A) Cephalic vein
B) Periorbital plexus
C) Jugular vein
D) Anterior vena cava

B) Periorbital plexus

Explanation - The periorbital plexus can be used in sedated rats to collect small blood samples using a hematocrit tube. The other methods are not used in laboratory rats

A 12-pound cat has presented with diabetic ketoacidosis and is currently in shock. The doctor orders that a 40 ml/kg bolus of 0.9% saline be administered. How many milliliters will this patient receive?

A) 220 ml
B) 9 ml
C) 480 ml
D) 36 ml

A) 220 ml

Explanation - The body weight needs to be converted to kilograms.
12 lb / (2.2 lb/kg) = 5.5 kg
5.5 kg x (40 ml/kg) = 220 ml

Which of the following is a term for a method of urine collection from a patient in a sterile manner?

A) Cystotomy
B) Cystocentesis
C) Cystogram
D) Free catch

B) Cystocentesis

Explanation - Cystocentesis involves the sterile introduction of a needle into the bladder for collection of urine. A free catch is the opportunistic collection of urine from a voiding patient. This urine is not sterile because it becomes contaminated as it exits the urethra. A cystotomy is an incision into the bladder. A cystogram is a radiographic contrast study of the bladder

Which species is particularly aggressive when with her young, and extreme caution must be used?

A) Cows
B) Sows
C) Ewes
D) Mares

B) Sows

Explanation - In general, pigs are a more aggressive species. The lactating sow is particularly dangerous; and when handling piglets, it is best to remove the sow to a separate area where she cannot hear her piglets

Rabbits are prone to hairballs. What is the medical term for a hairball?

A) Phytobezoar
B) Dermatophyte
C) Trichobezoar
D) Piloerection

C) Trichobezoar

Explanation - Tricho refers to hair, bezoar is the compaction, "ball" that can result from different substances.
Phytobezoar is a "plant - ball".
Piloerection is used to describe when hair stands up. Like when a cat or dog is fearfull.
Dermatophyte is the general term for skin fungus

What is the average toxic dose of theobromine in dogs?
A) 60-100 mg/kg
B) 150-200 mg/kg
C) 10-15 mg/kg
D) 0.5-2 mg/kg

A) 60-100 mg/kg

Explanation - The LD50 toxic dose of theobromine in dogs which many texts list is 100-150 mg/kg, and may be the correct answer if listed as a choice. HOWEVER, this means that about 50% of pets die at this level; therefore, obviously the true toxic dose would be lower than this. In some sensitive pets, toxic doses could as low as 20 mg/kg. On average, the toxic dose is likely somewhere between 60-100 mg/kg

What adverse side effect can occur in cats given metoclopramide?

A) Cyanosis
B) Dilated and fixed pupils
C) Aggressive behavior
D) Estrus behavior

C) Aggressive behavior

Explanation - Rare side effects that can occur are nervous, jittery, or aggressive behaviors. The antidote for these types of behaviors is diphenhydramine (Benadryl). Head bobbing can also rarely occur as a side effect of Reglan (metoclopramide).

Which of the following is NOT considered good surgical instrument care?

A) Using cleaning agents at a pH of approximately 10
B) Using an ultrasonic cleaner
C) Using tap water
D) Using a brush to scrub the instruments

C) Using tap water

Explanation - The use of tap water for cleaning surgical instruments is not recommended since it carries a high likelihood of leaving mineral deposits on the instruments; distilled water is preferred. Cleaning agents that have a higher pH (between approximately 9 and 11) are used because these do not promote corrosion. An ultrasonic cleaner is highly recommended as it is much more effective than manual cleaning alone. The use of a brush to scrub the instruments is common practice and facilitates the removal of dry blood or residue.

Which blood cells play an important role in clotting?

A) Platelets
B) Erythrocytes
C) Leukocytes
D) Metamyelocytes

A) Platelets

Explanation - When a wound occurs, platelets act with fibrin to form a clot and stop bleeding.
A metamyelocyte is a very immature white blood cell (that will eventually become a band) and is typically only seen in the bone marrow.

A 10-year old male intact Rottweiler is currently undergoing surgery for removal of a prostatic mass. Which term best describes the procedure?

A) Orchidectomy
B) Cholecystectomy
C) Prostatitis
D) Onychectomy
E) Prostatectomy

E) Prostatectomy

Explanation - There are a few basic rules that will allow you to comprehend a majority of the medical terms. Any term that ends with "-ectomy" infers to removal of that organ. Onychectomy is another word declawing or removal of the distal phalanx. Orchidectomy is the removal of a testicle. A cholecystectomy is removal of the gall bladder. The ending "-itis" means inflammation. In this case, prostatitis would be inflammation of the prostate

Which of the following solutions used for fecal flotation floats protozoal organisms with the least distortion?

A) Sodium nitrate
B) Formalin
C) Saturated sodium chloride
D) Zinc sulfate

D) Zinc sulfate

Explanation - Zinc sulfate solutions are generally used in diagnostic laboratories because they cause the least distortion of organisms. Other solutions, particularly sodium nitrate, are commonly used in veterinary practices because of cost and/or convenience. It is particularly important with sodium nitrate solutions to avoid letting them sit too long, as they cause distortion and form crystals, particularly after sitting longer than 20 minutes. Saturated sodium chloride is rarely used because it distorts organisms, creates crystals, and corrodes laboratory equipment. Formalin solutions alone are not used for flotation.

What does Eimeria stiedai cause?

A) Intestinal coccidiosis in dogs and cats
B) It is a non-pathogenic coccidia in horses
C) Cloacal coccidiosis in chickens
D) Hepatic coccidiosis in rabbits

D) Hepatic coccidiosis in rabbits

Explanation - Eimeria stiedai is the species of Eimeria that causes hepatic coccidiosis in rabbits.
The rabbits ingest sporulated oocysts, which contain four sporozoites that hatch and travel via the hepatic portal vein to the liver and penetrate the bile duct epithelium. The schizonts in the bile duct cause bile duct hyperplasia; they block the bile duct, causing hepatomegaly, icterus, and liver failure.

A tiny Chihuahua puppy presents for seizures, and the veterinarian suspects the puppy has "water on the brain" due to his enlarged head size. What is the term for this?

A) Brachycephalous
B) Craniostosis
C) Hydrocephalus
D) Paracervical edema

C) Hydrocephalus

Explanation - Hydrocephalus is a build-up of cerebrospinal fluid inside the skull, leading to brain swelling. Hydrocephalus means "water on the brain"

How often should an IV peripheral vein catheter be replaced as a standard?

A) Every 5-7 days
B) Don't replace as long as it is
working fine
C) Every 24 hours
D) Every 3 days

D) Every 3 days

Explanation - It is recommended to replace a peripheral catheter every 72 hours (3 days). The risk of catheter-induced sepsis goes up after this time period. Sometimes they have been left in for up to 4-5 days. Obviously, the site should be watched closely for any discharge, pain, and swelling and if these occur the catheter should be removed and another placed at a different site.

A drug that is an anti-cholinergic agent will have which of the following effects?

A) Decrease salivation
B) Suppress the cough reflex
C) Constrict the pupil of the eye
D) Decrease heart rate

A) Decrease salivation

Explanation - Anti-cholinergic agents are drugs that antagonize the effects of acetylcholine in the autonomic nervous system. Commonly used examples of anticholinergic agents include atropine and pilocarpine. They are commonly used prior to anesthesia because they increase the heart rate (most anesthetic drugs decrease heart rate) and decrease oral secretions, which can aid intubation

A patient with DIC (Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation) may show abnormal red blood cells called schistocytes. What are schistocytes?

A) Large blue tinged red blood cells
B) Red blood cells with nuclear fragments
C) Red blood cell fragments
D) Nucleated red blood cells

C) Red blood cell fragments

Explanation - Patients with DIC frequently have schistocytes and decreased platelets on their blood smears. Schistocytes are red blood cell fragments

Drugs that have no accepted medical use, are not considered safe, and have high potential for abuse are the most controlled by the DEA (Drug Enforcement Administration). Drugs under this category such as heroin are listed as what type of category?

A) Schedule V controlled substance
B) Schedule I controlled substance
C) Schedule III controlled substance
D) Schedule II controlled substance
E) Schedule IV controlled substance

B) Schedule I controlled substance

Explanation - Schedule I substances are the most controlled and are unlikely to be available at a veterinary clinic. Schedule II substances such as morphine and fentanyl are frequently the most tightly controlled substances in a veterinary hospital

Which of these are used in the minor cross-match for blood products when looking for a compatible blood donor for a dog?

A) Donor red blood cells, recipient
plasma
B) Recipient red blood cells, recipient plasma
C) Recipient red blood cells, donor plasma
D) Donor red blood cells, donor plasma

C) Recipient red blood cells, donor plasma

Explanation - The correct answer is recipient red blood cells, donor plasma. In a minor crossmatch, you are looking to see if the factors in the plasma of the donor are going to react to the recipient's red blood cells

How can a technician determine if a pack was sterilized appropriately?

A) The tape on the outside of the pack is not broken
B) The pack is steaming when removed from the autoclave
C) The pack is double wrapped prior to autoclaving, ensuring sterility
D) An indicator strip inside the pack changes color

D) An indicator strip inside the pack changes color

Explanation - The only way to know for sure if a pack has received appropriate sterilization is if the indicator strip changes color inside the pack

What is a ranula?

A) Anal gland infection
B) Cyst on the eyelid
C) Sublingual mucocele
D) Sludge accumulation in the gallbladder

C) Sublingual mucocele

Explanation - A ranula is a fluctuant swelling of connective tissue consisting of collected mucin from a ruptured salivary gland duct. They are found under the tongue

Which of the following could be used for hemostasis at the site of a liver punch biopsy?

A Bone wax
B Gelfoam
C Silver nitrate
D Styptic powder

B Gelfoam

Explanation - Gelfoam is a sterile compressed sponge that is intended to aid in hemostasis; it allows for absorption of blood and formation of a clot at the bleeding site. It has a very useful application in liver biopsies.
Bone wax controls bleeding from bone and functions as a mechanical plug that is pressed into the bleeding bone surface.
Silver nitrate applicators are used to stop small superficial bleeders such as a snipped skin tag or a bleeding toenail. These are not sterile.
Styptic powder is used to stop bleeding toenails and would never be used on tissues

Which of the following species has a double row of incisors?

A Hamster
B Rabbit
C Rat
D Chinchilla
E Guinea Pig
F Ferret

B Rabbit

Explanation - Rabbits have a second row of incisors distal to the proximal incisors. When malocclusion occurs, it is important to trim both sets of teeth to maintain proper dentition

You want to give a 22 pound cat a 5 mg/kg dose of a drug. The drug comes as a 2.5% solution. How many milliliters should you give the cat?

A 0.2
B 20
C 0.4
D 4.4
E 2
F 8.8

E 2

Explanation - First, you must recognize that the cat's weight is given in pounds and should immediately be converted to kilograms. There are 2.2 lbs/kg so this is a 10 kg cat.
Second, you must be able to convert a percent solution to mg/ml. A 2.5% solution is 25 mg/ml. This is hard for some students to remember. A memory tip is that a 100% solution would be 1 gram/ml. Therefore a 50% solution would be 500mg/ml, and a 5% solution would be 50 mg/ml.
The math to solve this question is:
22 lbs x (1 kg/2.2 lbs) x 5mg/kg x (1ml/25mg) = 2 ml

Viruses with this characteristic are significantly more resistant to environmental degradation; in other words, they survive longer in the environment.

A Enveloped viruses
B RNA viruses
C DNA viruses
D Non-enveloped viruses

D Non-enveloped viruses

Explanation - The correct answer is non-enveloped viruses. Non-enveloped viruses are typically very resistant to environmental degradation and therefore survive longer and are harder to disinfect than enveloped viruses. For example, parvoviruses, which are non-enveloped viruses, are difficult to disinfect and survive longer compared to influenza viruses which are enveloped. Whether a virus is a DNA or RNA virus has no effect on its environmental durability

Regarding sterilization in reptiles, which is true?

A Reptiles should not be sterilized due to sensitivity to anesthetics
B Ovaries should always be removed during sterilization
C Sterilization of female pet reptiles is recommended so that they do not develop estrogen toxicity
D Only the oviducts should be removed and ovaries should be left intact

B Ovaries should always be removed during sterilization

Explanation - When sterilizing a reptile, the ovaries should always be removed. Removal of only the oviducts puts the patient at risk for egg binding. With just the oviducts removed, the ovaries are still active and yolks can be released into the coelomic cavity.
In ferrets, spaying is recommended due to the risk of bone marrow toxicity from the high levels of circulating estrogen during prolonged heat cycles

Which vaccination is most commonly given the intranasal route?

A Periodontal
B Distemper
C Rabies
D Parvo
E Bordetella

E Bordetella

Explanation - Bordetella bronchiseptica is a common cause of kennel cough. An intranasal vaccine against Bordetella is widely used. There is also an injectable vaccine available for Bordetella

The term pseudocyesis means which of the following?

A Infertility
B Resembling a cystic structure
C Ovarian cysts
D False pregnancy

D False pregnancy

Explanation - Pseudocyesis is a false pregnancy. Dogs can become pseudopregnant after estrus when the female dog is not bred, or if it is bred by an infertile male. Pseudopregnant dogs can develop mammary glands, lactate, and have nesting behaviors. Spaying is the best way to prevent future episodes

An owner called and said that her dog ate a pack of sugarless gum containing xylitol. You tell her to bring her dog in right away. Which of the following could this cause?

A Hyperglycemia
B Hypoglycemia
C Hypophosphatemia
D Hypercalcemia

B Hypoglycemia

Explanation - Xylitol is a sugar alcohol found in many sugarless candies, sweets, and gum. Xylitol toxicity can be life-threatening. Dogs that ingest doses of >0.1 g/kg of xylitol are at risk for developing hypoglycemia, while dogs that ingest >0.5 g/kg may develop acute liver failure. Supportive care and dextrose for treatment of hypoglycemia are indicated

Anesthetic monitoring of pet patients is one of the most important veterinary technician duties. How often should vitals be checked and recorded?

A 5 minutes
B 10 minutes
C 20 minutes
D 1 minute

A 5 minutes

Explanation - Most places require that readings be taken at 5 minute intervals. The requirements may vary by state or facility

Which of the following drugs increases gastrointestinal motility?

A Famotidine
B Diphenhydramine
C Metoclopramide
D Barium

C Metoclopramide

Explanation - Prokinetic drugs, such as metoclopramide, increase gastrointestinal motility. Metoclopramide (Reglan) also acts centrally as an antiemetic by blocking dopamine and serotonin receptors in the chemo-receptor-trigger-zone (CRTZ). Famotidine is an H2 blocker. Diphenhydramine helps prevent mast cell degranulation. Barium is used to perform contrast studies of the gastrointestinal tract.

What causes cutaneous larval migration in humans?

A Echinococcus
B Toxocara
C Dipylidium
D Ancylostoma

D Ancylostoma

Explanation - The correct answer is Ancylostoma. These are hookworms; when they come in contact with unprotected skin, the infective larvae penetrate the epidermis but generally cannot penetrate the basement membrane. They therefore migrate aimlessly, and the disease is usually self-limiting in humans

A patient who has been diagnosed with pancreatitis should avoid foods that are high in which of the following?

A Carbohydrates
B Water
C Vitamins
D Fat
E Protein

D Fat

Explanation - Pancreatitis means inflammation of the pancreas, the glandular organ that secretes enzymes needed to digest food. When something causes these enzymes to be activated prematurely, they can actually begin to digest the pancreas itself, resulting in pain and inflammation. There is evidence that feeding a low protein, high fat diet can induce pancreatitis

Which of the following is an ectoparasite of animals?

A Ancylostoma caninum
B Ctenocephalides felis
C Filaroides osleri
D Feline infectious peritonitis
E Paragonimus kellicotti

B Ctenocephalides felis

Explanation - By definition, an ectoparasite is a eukaryotic organism that lives on the outside of the host. Examples include lice, flies, fleas, and mites. Ctenocephalides is a flea. Ancylostoma, Filaroides, and Paragonimus are all endoparasites. Feline infectious peritonitis is not a parasite, it has a viral cause

Fructosamine levels are used to evaluate the control of which of the following diseases?

A Hypothyroidism
B Diabetes mellitus
C Cushing's disease
D Addison's disease
E Hyperthyroidism

B Diabetes mellitus

Explanation - The fructosamine level is a measure of the amount of glucose bound to plasma proteins. It goes up when glucose levels are persistently elevated in the blood. It is less subject to the fluctuations seen in blood glucose because plasma proteins have much longer half-lives. Fructosamine levels correspond to the average serum glucose over the previous 1-2 week period. A related test is glycosylated hemoglobin level, which corresponds to average serum glucose over several months

Urine from which of the following species is normally cloudy or milky in appearance?

A Horses and rabbits
B Cats and cattle
C Sheep and goats
D Dogs and ferrets

A Horses and rabbits

Explanation - Urine from horses and rabbits contain high concentrations of calcium carbonate crystals that can make the urine appear milky. Additionally, horses normally have mucous from glands in the renal pelvis that contribute to the urine, which can make it appear cloudy

Goats exhibiting aggressive behavior may do so most commonly in which manner?

A Kicking with the hind legs
B Head butting
C Urinating and defecating
D Biting

B Head butting

Explanation - Head butting in goats can be play behavior, but is primarily a form of aggression with other goats and possibly humans. Always watch behind you when you are in with a herd of goats, as they will often come up behind you!

To assess liver function in a patient with a possible portosystemic liver shunt, which of the following tests is most likely to be helpful?

A Insulin:glucose ratio
B Dexamethasone suppression test
C Water deprivation test
D Bile acids test

D Bile acids test

Explanation - A bile acids test is the only choice here that is a test of liver function. Bile acids are one of the most helpful tests in evaluating liver function, particularly in cases of portosystemic shunts. In this test, a fasted blood sample is drawn and a post-feeding blood sample is drawn to compare bile acid levels. Normally, bile acids increase after a meal due to release from the gall bladder, but they do not increase too much because they are reabsorbed by the liver through the portal circulation. In animals with liver dysfunction, including portosystemic shunts, bile acids are not reabsorbed and accumulate in the systemic circulation after a meal.
Insulin-to-glucose ratio is a test that may be used to diagnose functional insulin-secreting tumors. Dexamethasone suppression tests are typically used to diagnose Cushing's disease. A water deprivation test may be used to diagnose diabetes insipidus

All of the following can be expected to be found on a complete blood count EXCEPT for which of the following?

A Hemoglobin
B Hematocrit
C Neutrophils
D Glucose

D Glucose

Explanation - A glucose level is not part of a complete blood count. Glucose would be reported on a chemistry panel.

An 8-year old female spayed Dalmatian presents to your clinic for dribbling urine when sleeping. Bloodwork and urinalysis are performed, and phenylpropanolamine is prescribed. How will this drug help treat the dog's problem?

A It increases the tone of the urethral sphincter
B It increases re-absorption of water by the kidneys, resulting in decreased urine volume
C It kills Gram-negative bacteria
D It alkalinizes the urine, decreasing urinary crystal formation
E It provides hormonal replacement to reverse the condition
F It acidifies the urine, decreasing urinary crystal formation

A It increases the tone of the urethral sphincter

Explanation - Phenylpropanolamine is an alpha-adrenergic agonist and causes tightening of the urethral sphincter. It is used to treat "sphincter mechanism incontinence". This is a non-hormonal treatment frequently used to treat incontinence. Older dogs, particularly female spayed dogs, commonly develop urinary incontinence due to weakness of the urethral sphincter. In some cases, this may be "hormone-responsive" meaning that hormone replacement (estrogen-based in females) may reverse the condition.
Urine acidifying or alkalinizing agents could be useful in treating animals prone to formation of urinary calculi. Diethylstilbestrol (DES) is the most common estrogen replacement drug used in dogs to treat incontinence

In neonatal calves and foals, what is the most common reason that these animals succumb to disease and death?

A Gastrointestinal parasitism
B Failure of passive transfer
C Iron deficiency
D Infection acquired by the mother from the placenta

B Failure of passive transfer

Explanation - Newborns require essential maternal antibody absorption from the colostrum to help protect against infectious diseases. If they do not get these precious immunoglobulins, they can suffer from increased morbidity and mortality from infections. There are now field test kits that can detect blood levels of IgG in calves and foals to help determine if failure of passive transfer has occurred

When performing abdominal surgery, which of the following instruments is frequently used retract the abdominal wall?

A Balfour retractor
B Finochietto retractor
C Myerding retractor
D Malleable retractor

A Balfour retractor

Explanation - Balfour retractors are self-retaining retractors specifically designed to hold the abdomen open. Finochietto retractors are designed for thoracotomies to spread the ribs apart. A malleable retractor is a versatile retractor that can be bent in multiple directions to achieve the desired retraction. A Myerding retractor is typically used in orthopedics to hold muscle bellies out of the surgical field

When taking a radiograph of an equine limb, you take a radiograph where the portable X-ray unit source is 90 cm away from the cassette. You then move closer so that the X-ray source is now 30 cm away from the cassette. If no changes were made to the settings of the machine, what will the beam intensity be at the second radiograph relative to the first one?

A 3 times greater at 30 cm compared to 90 cm
B 6 times greater at 30 cm compared to 90 cm
C 9 times greater intensity at 30 cm compared to 90 cm
D 1/6 intensity at 30 cm compared to 90 cm
E 1/3 intensity at 30 cm compared to 90 cm

C 9 times greater intensity at 30 cm compared to 90 cm

Explanation - The inverse square law states the intensity of the x-ray beam is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the X-ray source. Therefore, the intensity is greater as the cassette is moved closer to the source.
To calculate the answer, the intensity of beam 1 is (x/90)^2 and the intensity of beam 2 is (x/30)^2 where x is the number of photons produced by the x-ray machine.
The math here works out as follows:
(x/30)^2 / (x/90)^2 = [(x/30)/(x/90)]^2 = (90/30)^2 = (3)^2 = 9

What is the most common blood type in cats in the United States?

A Type A
B Type O
C Type AB
D Type B

A Type A

Explanation - Cats most commonly have type A blood. Some cats have type B blood, many of which are exotic-type species. Type B cats have strong anti-A alloantibodies, so type A blood given to a type B cat results in life-threatening acute hemolytic transfusion reactions. A cat should always have a blood type test before a transfusion

What is collected when performing an arthrocentesis?

A Synovial fluid
B Urine
C Bone marrow
D Blood

A Synovial fluid

Explanation - Arthrocentesis is inserting a needle into the joint space to collect synovial fluid (joint fluid). This procedure is performed by a veterinarian

Patients that have received prednisone chronically need to be tapered off slowly to avoid which of the following?

A Signs of diabetes insipidus
B Signs of hypoadrenocorticism
C Signs of exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
D Signs of hyperinsulinism
E Signs of hyperadrenocorticism

B Signs of hypoadrenocorticism

Explanation - Chronic prednisone administration can lead to atrophy of the adrenal gland due to the absence of signaling to produce cortisol. If prednisone is suddenly stopped, the adrenal gland will not be capable of producing enough cortisol, and the animal may show signs of hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's disease).

You are helping the neurologist with a Tensilon test in a dog. Tensilon is the trade name for edrophonium chloride. By administering this drug, you are testing for which disease?

A Hydrocephalus
B Old dog vestibular disease
C Diskospondylitis
D Meningitis
E Myasthenia gravis

E Myasthenia gravis

Explanation - Myasthenia gravis can sometimes be diagnosed with a Tensilon test.
With this disease, there are not many acetylcholine receptor sites on the muscles, and acetylcholine is broken down before it can fully cause muscle stimulus. This results in muscle weakness. By blocking the action of acetylcholinesterase, Tensilon prolongs stimulation to the muscles, thus temporarily improving strength. Results are usually seen within a minute of administering the drug IV.
A blood test that can also help to aid in diagnosis of Myasthenia gravis is the acetylcholine receptor antibody test

Electrical activity that serves as the pacemaker in the heart originates from what specific area?

A Atrioventricular node in the left atrium
B Sinoatrial node in the left atrium
C Atrioventricular node in the right atrium
D Sinoatrial node in the right atrium
E Bundle of His in the left ventricle
F Bundle of His in the right ventricle

D Sinoatrial node in the right atrium

Explanation - In health, the pacemaker of the heart is the sinoatrial node within the right atrium. This impulse is transmitted to the atrioventricular node located at the top of the interventricular septum, followed by the bundle of His (within the walls of the interventricular septum) and through the Purkinje system

You are monitoring an adult cat under anesthesia. Since induction, the heart has been slowing down. What is the approximate lowest acceptable heart rate for this cat?

A 180
B 160
C 120
D 140

C 120

Explanation - If the heart rate drops below 100-120 beats per minute in an anesthetized cat, the heart rate needs to be increased and the anesthetic depth should be evaluated. If appropriate, atropine may be administered in this situation, and anesthetic gas turned down if possible

At your small animal clinic, the anesthesia cost is included for elective surgeries. An example of this type of surgery is which of the following?

A Aural hematoma repair
B Splenectomy
C Cystotomy
D Neuter

D Neuter

Explanation - Spays, neuters, and routine dentals are examples of elective surgeries. They are surgeries that are scheduled in advance and are not a medical emergency. The other procedures listed are medically necessary and not considered elective

The autonomic nervous system refers to what?

A The cranial nerves
B The limbic nervous system
C The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems
D The central nervous system (CNS)
E The peripheral nervous system (PNS)

C The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems

Explanation - The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems direct many of the body's homeostatic functions and is made up of nerves that innervate internal organs and blood vessels. The central nervous system consists of the brain and spinal cord. The peripheral nervous system is composed of cranial and spinal nerves. There is actually some overlap between these two arbitrary divisions. The limbic nervous system is actually within the brain and is thought to be associated with emotional responses in humans and other animals

Uric acid is the major end product of nitrogen metabolism in which of the following animals?

A Horses
B Birds
C Cats
D Goats
E Ferrets

B Birds

Explanation - Birds metabolize most of their nitrogen to uric acid, whereas mammals metabolize most of their nitrogen to urea.

Which drug inhibits platelet aggregation?

A Enalapril
B Metronidazole
C Amoxicillin
D Aspirin

D Aspirin

Explanation - Aspirin has antithrombotic effects (it is a COX-1 inhibitor); it blocks the platelet enzyme cyclooxygenase (aspirin is a Cox-1 inhibitor) resulting in inhibition of platelet aggregation

What is a sarcolemma?

A Connective tissue putting muscle fibers into groups
B A contractile cell in the muscle
C A calcium storage unit in the muscle
D The cell membrane which encloses a muscle fiber

D The cell membrane which encloses a muscle fiber

Explanation - A sarcolemma is a thin membrane enclosing a striated muscle fiber, or simply the cell wall of a muscle cell.
A sarcomere is the contractile unit of a myofibril, or muscle cell. Sarcomeres are repeating units and are located between Z lines of the muscle cells.
Perimysium is connective tissue that groups individual muscle fibers into bunches or groups

You are performing an ear cytology and see some purple bowling pin-appearing organisms. What are these most likely?

A Gram-negative rods
B Pollen
C Malassezia
D Pseudomonas

C Malassezia

Explanation - The purple bowling pin structures seen on a stained ear cytology slide are classic yeast (Malassezia pachydermatis). Depending on their stage, they appear large and round or look like a bowling pin.
Pseudomonas is gram-negative rod and is a common culprit in resistant ear infections

Choose the proper corresponding acronym for the following in order: Right eye, left ear, both ears, both eyes, left eye.

A AD, OS, OU, AD, AS
B OS, AS, AU, OU, OD
C OD, AS, AU, OU, OS
D OU, AU, AS, OD, OS

C OD, AS, AU, OU, OS

Explanation - Think O for ocular and A for auricular.
OD-Right eye
OS-Left eye
OU-Both eyes
AD-Right ear
AS-Left ear
AU-Both ears

A blood smear is performed and a large variation is seen in erythrocyte shape. What is this called?

A Poikilocytosis
B Polychromasia
C Anisokaryosis
D Anisocytosis

A Poikilocytosis

Explanation - Anisocytosis is a variation in cell size (not shape).
Anisokaryosis is a variation in the amount of cytoplasm present in a cell and no necessarily shape or size.
Polychromasia describes a variation red blood cell color.
Poikilocytosis describes a variation in cell shape. Some shapes occur with enough frequency that they have their own name, such as acanthocytes and echinocytes

A patient presents with red eyes and the owner reports he has been rubbing his face on the carpet. He is currently taking the sulfa-based drug Primor for a skin infection. What side effect of this medication could cause these symptoms?

A Dry Eye
B Uveitis
C Dendritic ulcer formation
D Glaucoma
E Epiphora

A Dry Eye

Explanation - Tears are made up of 3 components, lipid, mucous, and liquid. The liquid and mucous portion of the tear film may decrease from sulfa drugs, thus resulting in dry eye (kerratoconjunctivitis sicca/KCS). Sometimes this problem can be irreversible. This patient should receive a Schirmer Tear Test to test for KCS. The eyes should also be stained, because corneal ulceration can occur secondary to the low tear production.
Glaucoma is increased intraocular pressure. Uveitis is inflammation in the uveal tract inside the eye. Epiphora is excessive tearing, which is the opposite of KCS. Dendritic ulcers are most typically seen in cats with herpesvirus infection

Where is the hypothalamus is located?

A Diencephalon
B Mid-brain
C Brain stem
D Mediastinum

A Diencephalon

Explanation - The diencephalon is composed of the thalamus, hypothalamus, and pituitary gland.
The brain stem is the posterior part of the brain adjoining the brain and spinal cord. Most of the cranial nerves originate in the brain stem. The brain stem includes the medulla oblongata, pons, and the midbrain.
The thymus is located in the mediastinum.
The mesencephalon is the mid-brain (part of the brain stem).

What is most often seen in a cat with heartworm disease?

A Unkempt haircoat
B Coughing
C Petechial hemorrhages
D Seizuring
E Syncope

B Coughing

Explanation - Most cats with heartworm are not clinical for the disease. If they do show symptoms, they are typically respiratory in nature (coughing, wheezing). Chronic vomiting can also be a sign.
All coughing cats should be tested for heartworm

Which organism causes equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM) in the horse?

A Haemonchus contortus
B Sarcocystis neurona
C Micronema deletrix
D Gasterophilus intestinalis

B Sarcocystis neurona

Explanation - EPM is caused by the aberrant migration of Sarcocystis neurona through the central nervous system of the horse. This causes variable clinical signs such as ataxia and muscle atrophy in the horse

Casts in the urine generally indicate damage in what part of the urinary system?

A Glomerulus
B Ureters
C Renal tubules
D Urethra
E Bladder

C Renal tubules

Explanation - Casts form in the distal and collecting tubules of the kidney because urine is the most concentrated and acidic in these areas.

The attending veterinarian would like you to administer a 22 mg/kg dosage of Cefazolin to a 67 pound dog that has been hospitalized. You find that the vial that has been reconstituted is empty and you need to make a new bottle. How much sterile water will you add to a 1 gram vial if you want the concentration to be 200 mg/ml?

A 1 gram of powder can not be reconstituted to 200 mg/ml
B 200 mls
C 5 ml
D 50 mls

C 5 ml


Explanation - First convert grams to milligrams 1 gram = 1000 mg. 1000 mg divided by 200 mg/ml = 5 mls

Which medication is typically given through a filter?

A Cefazolin
B Mannitol
C Dexamethasone
D Metoclopramide

B Mannitol

Explanation - Mannitol forms crystals in solution. An in-line 5 micron IV filter or filter needle is recommended.
None of the other choices require a filter for administration. Blood products are frequently filtered prior to IV administration

Diphenhydramine is typically used in treating which of the following conditions?

A Urinary tract infections
B Urinary incontinence
C Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
D Allergic reactions
E Auto-immune conditions

D Allergic reactions

Explanation - Diphenhydramine is also known as Benadryl. It is a an anti-histamine most commonly used for treating allergies or allergic reactions.
A urinary tract infection would require an antibiotic. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca is an immune mediated condition and is usually treated with cyclosporine. Auto-immune conditions also call for immunosuppressive agents. Urinary incontinence may be treated with phenylpropanolamine.

Amphotericin B is often used in cases of resistant fungal infections, such as occurs with diseases like Coccidioides immitis. This medication is known for the potential to cause severe damage to which organ?

A Liver
B Intestine
C Bladder
D Kidneys
E Skin

D Kidneys

Explanation - Renal parameters must be followed closely in animals that are receiving amphotericin B injections

Which of the following mites that can be found on dogs is not contagious?

A Sarcoptes
B Otodectes
C Cheyletiella
D Psoroptes
E Demodex

E Demodex

Explanation - The correct answer is Demodex. Demodex is a normal inhabitant of the skin and causes disease only when there is either a genetic predisposition or systemic disease that allows Demodex to develop into disease. Therefore it is not contagious in dogs. Demodex gatoi in cats is thought to be contagious amongst cats

Where do sperm mature?

A Oviduct
B Epididymis
C Vas deferens
D Prostate

B Epididymis

Explanation - The epididymis is the tube attached to the backside of the testes. It is found within the scrotum and is a coiled segment of the spermatic ducts in which spermatozoa mature. It connects the testicle with the vas deferens. Sperm matures within this tube.
Oviducts, also called fallopian tubes, are found in the female reproductive tract. The egg passes from the ovary into the uterus via the oviduct.
The prostate stores and secretes a portion of the seminal fluid

Which of the following description of the properties of an inhalant anesthetic is true?

A Drugs with high solubility (blood/gas solubility coefficients) are the most potent
B Drugs with high minimum alveolar concentrations (MAC) are the most potent
C Drugs with low minimum alveolar concentrations (MAC) are the most potent
D Drugs with low solubility (blood/gas solubility coefficients) are the most potent

C Drugs with low minimum alveolar concentrations (MAC) are the most potent

Explanation - MAC is a measure of anesthetic potency or, the concentration of drug required to prevent response to a stimulus in 50% of patients. Listed from lowest to highest MAC, inhalant anesthetics include methoxyflurane, halothane, isoflurane, enflurane, sevoflurane, and desflurane. This means that methoxyflurane is the most potent, or, it requires the lowest percentage of gas to cause its effects. Desflurane is the least potent (requires the highest percentage of gas to cause its effects). Potency is not necessarily related to the speed of induction and recovery with an inhalant anesthetic; this property is determined by solubility

What is a round or spherical shaped bacteria called?

A Bacillus
B Nematode
C Pleomorphic
D Coccus
E Spirochete

D Coccus

Explanation - Cocci are spherical bacteria. Bacilli are rods. Spirochetes are spiral shaped. A nematode is a parasite, not a bacterium. Pleomorphic describes variably shaped organisms

Frequently, the doctor will ask that a prescription for Cephalexin be filled. How many 500 mg capsules should be sent home for a dog receiving 22 mg/kg PO TID for 10 days? The dog weighs 50 lbs.

A 45
B 30
C 15
D 60

B 30

Explanation - To get the answer, the body weight must first be converted to kilograms.
50 lbs / 2.2 kg/lb = 22.7 kg (There are 2.2 lbs per kilogram)
Then,
22.7 kg x (22mg/kg) = 499.4 mg
This is rounded up to 500 mg. The patient takes 3 capsules per day for 10 days.
3 x 10 = 30
The patient should be sent home with 30 capsules

A vet at your clinic is preparing to perform a punch biopsy of a dermal mass in a cat under local anesthesia. He asks you to add epinephrine to his lidocaine before administering the local anesthetic. What is the rationale for adding epinephrine?

A Epinephrine neutralizes the acidic pH of lidocaine, decreasing the pain on injection
B Epinephrine acts as a pharmacologic antagonist to the systemic effects of lidocaine, to which cats can be particularly sensitive
C Epinephrine, when given by this route, has a sedative effect on cats
D Epinephrine allows the lidocaine to be more rapidly cleared
E Epinephrine prolongs the duration of lidocaine's effects

E Epinephrine prolongs the duration of lidocaine's effects

Explanation - Epinephrine is used with lidocaine to cause local vasoconstriction, preventing rapid systemic absorption. This is typically done to prolong the duration of local anesthetic effects of lidocaine by maintaining it at the site. It can decrease systemic uptake and toxicity, but it is not a lidocaine antagonist.
Epinephrine does not neutralize the pH of lidocaine; sodium bicarbonate is sometimes added for this purpose

What does the word anhidrosis mean?

A Lack of drinking
B Inability to sweat
C Without tears
D Hidden disease

B Inability to sweat

Explanation - The cause is unknown, but some horses lack the ability to sweat. This condition in known as anhidrosis. Keep horses with anhidrosis as cool as possible during hot or humid weather. Use of mist, sponging, fans, shade or stall rest can be helpful during exposure to heat

A dog having a rough recovery from anesthesia has been ordered to receive 0.02 mg/kg of acepromazine. The dog's body weight is 40 lbs, and the acepromazine is diluted to a 1 mg/ml solution. How much acepromazine should this patient be administered?

A 0.036 ml
B 0.36 ml
C 0.8 ml
D 1.2 ml

B 0.36 ml

Explanation - First, convert the body weight to kilograms.
40 lbs / (2.2 lbs/kg) = 18.2 kg
Now determine the amount of milligrams needed.
0.02 mg/kg x (18.2 kg) = 0.36 mg (note the kilograms cancel out)
Finally determine the amount of milliliters needed.
0.36 mg / (1 mg/ml) = 0.36 ml (note the milligrams cancel out)

The adrenal glands are closest to what other structure?

A Liver
B Brain
C Bladder
D Pancreas
E Kidneys

E Kidneys

Explanation - The adrenal glands are located right above the kidneys. The bladder sits in the caudal abdomen ventral to the colon. The liver is just caudal to the diaphragm and is the most cranial organ in the abdomen. The right limb of the pancreas runs parallel with the duodenum while the left limb runs along the body of the stomach

Which breed does not typically shed its haircoat?
A Golden retriever
B Poodle
C Pug
D Labrador

B Poodle

Explanation - Poodles do not typically shed hair. They may lose hair during chemotherapy treatments or with certain endocrine diseases

Which of the following is another term for the type of parasite known as a fluke?

A Cestode
B Nematode
C Ascarid
D Protozoan
E Trematode

E Trematode

Explanation - Trematodes, or flukes, are leaf-shaped flatworms with unsegmented bodies. Adults are hermaphrodites. They primarily are found in the intestinal tract, liver, and lungs. Examples include the liver fluke of cattle (Fasciola hepatica) and the lungworm of cats (Paragonimus kellicotti). Nematodes are roundworms, ascarids are a type of nematode (roundworm), cestodes are tapeworms, and protozoans are single-celled organisms that may be parasitic

Which of the following is true about the appearance of an image relative to the orientation of the slide when viewing through a compound microscope?

A The image is right-side up and oriented normally left to right
B The image is right-side up and reversed
C The image is upside-down and oriented normally left to right
D The image is upside-down and reversed

D The image is upside-down and reversed

Explanation - Images are seen upside-down and reversed when viewed on a compound microscope. The left side of the image is seen on the right side of the visual field. Accordingly, movement of the stage is reversed such that as the stage is moved to the left, the image appears to move to the right

Which of these drugs should not be used in Greyhounds?

A Ivermectin
B Thiopental
C Morphine
D Propofol

B Thiopental

Explanation - The correct answer is thiopental. Thiopental is an ultra-short acting barbiturate. Recovery depends on redistribution to tissues, including fat. Because sighthounds have very little fat, they have prolonged recoveries and greater complications with these drugs

Which of the following species have hypsodont teeth?

A Horses
B Monkeys
C Dogs
D Pigs

A Horses

Explanation - Hypsodont, or high-crowned teeth, continue to erupt throughout life. All of the permanent teeth of horses and cheek teeth of ruminants are this type, with the roots embedded in the alveolus of the jaw bone. Dogs, cats, monkeys, and pigs have brachydont, or low-crowned teeth in which the root is embedded in the jaw bone

Which of the following correctly lists the species in order from shortest to longest gestation length?

A Ferret, Dog, Sheep, Pig, Horse
B Pig, Sheep, Horse, Cow, Llama
C Cat, Ferret, Sheep, Cow, Horse
D Dog, Pig, Sheep, Horse, Llama

D Dog, Pig, Sheep, Horse, Llama

Explanation - This list of gestations should be committed to memory: Llama 1 year (350 days), Horse 11 months (330 days), Cow 9 months (280 days), Sheep/Goat 5 months (150 days), Pig 4 months (114 days), Dog/Cat 2 months (63 days), Ferret 1.5 months (42 days)

Yersinia pestis is the causative agent for which zoonotic disease?

A Cat scratch fever
B Parrot fever
C Plague
D Q fever

C Plague

Explanation - Yersinia pestis is the causative agent of plague. Plague is usually transmitted by the bites of infected fleas.
Yersinia pestis is a gram-negative bacterium and has a bipolar safety-pin appearance. Definitive diagnosis is based on culture. However, before collecting any samples, the state vet or CDC should be contacted.
Plague is highly zoonotic, and bubonic, septicemic, pneumonic, and meningeal forms can occur. Early treatment is critical for survival. Antibiotic treatment early in the course of disease can greatly improve prognosis.
Cat scratch fever is caused by the bacterium Bartonella henselae.
Parrot fever is caused by the bacterium Chlamydophila psittaci.
Q fever is caused by the bacterium Coxiella burnetii

A 620-kg horse weighs how many pounds?

A 1,364 pounds
B 1,625 pounds
C 281 pounds
D 1,240 pounds

A 1,364 pounds

Explanation - There are 2.2 pounds per kg.
So, to convert the kg into pounds, multiply the kg by 2.2.
620 kg X 2.2 pounds/kg = 1364 pounds

On a bone marrow smear, which of the following is the most immature red blood cell precursor?

A Metarubricyte
B Reticulocyte
C Metamyelocyte
D Rubriblast

D Rubriblast

Explanation - The erythorocyte lineage, from most immature to mature, proceeds as follows: Rubriblast, prorubricyte, basophilic rubricyte, polychromatophilic rubricyte, metarubricyte, reticulocyte. The metamyelocyte is part of the lineage of the segmented leukocytes

Which of the following fluid types is a colloid?

A Hypertonic saline
B Sodium chloride 0.9%
C Lactated Ringers
D 5% dextrose in saline
E Hetastarch

E Hetastarch

Explanation - A colloid contains larger molecules than a crystalloid. This size difference allows the fluid to stay in the intravascular space for longer and thus helps to increase oncotic pressure.
Examples of colloids are Hetastarch, blood products (whole blood, plasma, etc.), and Dextrans

What are the "Joints" in the skull are referred to as?

A Sutures
B Planes
C Hinge
D Ball and socket

A Sutures

Explanation - Sutures are fibrous bands of tissue that connect the bones of the skull. In neonates, the sutures are open and allow for growth of the brain and skull

A 60 lb Bulldog is to receive intravenous fluids at a maintenance rate. Assuming the maintenance rate can be calculated as 60 ml/kg/day, what would the fluid rate be per hour? Round answer to the closest milliliter/hour.

A 108
B 150
C 68
D 30
E 163

C 68

Explanation - The answer is 68. 60 lb/2.2 kg/lb = 27.27 kgs in weight. 27.27 x 60 ml/kg = 1636 ml/day.
1636 ml/day / 24hrs/day = 68 ml/hour

A 38-kg Great Dane is recovering from Gastric Dilatation Volvulus surgery. The doctor would like to send him home on Tramadol. The doctor requested that a prescription be filled out for 5 days at 3 mg/kg orally three times per day. How many pills should you send home?
Tramadol is available in 50 mg tablets. Round to the nearest whole number.

A 30 tablets
B 40 tablets
C 25 tablets
D 50 tablets

A 30 tablets

Explanation - The correct answer is 30 tablets:
38 kg x 3 mg/kg = 114 mg
114 mg / 50 mg = 2.28 (Rounding to the nearest whole number would be 2 tablets)
If getting 2 tablets per dose, then 6 tablets per day are needed. Five days' treatment would be 30 tablets

Which of the following is a chelonian?

A Goat
B Tortoise
C Bird
D Rabbit

B Tortoise

Explanation - Turtles and tortoises are from the order Chelonia, and are often referred to as chelonians.

Why are polyurethane catheters more appropriate for long-term (> 7 days) use in horses?

A They are the least thrombogenic
B They are the largest
C They are rigid
D They do not require maintenance

A They are the least thrombogenic

Explanation - Polyurethane catheters (such as those made by Mila) are the least reactive and thrombogenic and, if placed correctly, can be left in place for more than a week. Polyurethane is a flexible material. All IV catheters require maintenance and monitoring

Which of the following should be a sterile procedure?

A Arthrocentesis
B Tooth extraction
C Anal gland abscess culture
D Fine needle aspirate of a mass
E Lymph node aspirate

A Arthrocentesis

Explanation - Arthrocentesis, or joint tap, should be performed with sterile technique. A joint tap is the act of inserting a needle into the joint space to withdraw synovial fluid for culture or analysis.
The oral cavity is not sterile, and tooth extraction is not sterile.
Lymph node and mass aspirates should be clean procedures but are not sterile. The same applies for culturing an abscess or site of infection

Which of the following diseases should ferrets be vaccinated against?

A Feline panleukopenia virus
B Canine distemper virus
C Infectious canine hepatitis virus
D Canine parvovirus

B Canine distemper virus

Explanation - Ferrets should be vaccinated against canine distemper virus. Ferrets are not susceptible to the other diseases listed

A shock organ is the organ or tissue that exhibits the most marked response to an allergic reaction. What is the shock organ in the cat?

A Gastrointestinal tract
B Lungs
C Heart
D Liver

B Lungs

Explanation - In the cat, the shock organ is the lungs. In the dog, it is the liver. Both species often also have gastrointestinal involvement (vomiting, diarrhea).

A dog has ruptured a chordae tendinae. What condition can this lead to?

A Chronic osteoarthritis and lameness
B Congestive heart failure
C Incontinence
D Paralyzed diaphragm muscle

B Congestive heart failure

Explanation - The chordae tendinae are cord-like tendons that connect the papillary muscles to the tricuspid valve and the mitral valve in the heart. If this structure ruptures, the valves can no longer function properly, and this can lead to congestive heart failure

Your clinic has decided to start harvesting blood from volunteer donors to administer to patients. How long can whole blood units be stored in the refrigerator if properly collected?

A 45 days
B 21 days
C 1 year
D 3 months
E 35 days

E 35 days

Explanation - Whole blood units may be stored for 35 days if the unit is collected aseptically, stored appropriately and mixed daily

While caring for a week old orphan puppy, it is important to monitor body temperature. Rectal temperature should be between:

A 92-94F
B 101-103F
C 99-101F
D 94-99F

D 94-99F

Explanation - If the temperature falls below 94F, the heart rate will drop and intestinal motion ceases. Death will occur if not corrected

Which of these animals does not have a gall bladder?

A Cow
B Bird
C Cat
D Horse
E Rabbit

D Horse

Explanation - Horses do not have a gall bladder. The other species listed all do

Which of the following vaccines is not available for horses?

A Equine Influenza Virus Vaccine
B Eastern Equine Encephalitis Vaccine
C Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis Vaccine
D Streptococcus equi (strangles) Vaccine
E Equine Herpes Virus Type 1 Vaccine

C Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis Vaccine

Explanation - While equine protozoal myeloencephalitis is a common neurologic disease in horses caused by Sarcocystis neurona, there currently is no effective vaccine to prevent this disease. The other vaccines listed are all available

MRI-compatible equipment might be made of which of the following metals?

A Nickel
B Iron
C Cobalt
D Aluminum

D Aluminum

Explanation - For safety purposes, whenever there is any question, no metal should be brought in or near an MRI suite.
However, magnets in MRI machines attract ferrous metals which are iron, nickel, and cobalt.
There are many non-ferromagnetic metals including aluminum, titanium, brass, and others. Many MRI-compatible devices are made with these.
Alloys such as stainless steel may or may not contain ferromagnetic metals

Which of the following drugs is commonly delivered via a transdermal patch?

A Budesonide
B Butorphanol
C Diazepam
D Fentanyl

D Fentanyl

Explanation - Fentanyl is often administered via a transdermal patch. It provides analgesia for approximately 4 days, and absorption rates may vary. For post-operative uses, it is best to apply the patch at least 12 hours before the procedure if possible.

Where would you find a Cuterebra parasite?

A In the anterior chamber of the eye
B Under the skin
C Protruding from the anus
D In the intestines
E In the nasal cavity

B Under the skin

Explanation - Cuterebra are flies whose larvae infest the skin of rodents, squirrels, rabbits, dogs, and cats. Typically a lump is seen with a small hole under the skin from with the larva breathes

Which of the following is not an anticipated finding when evaluating a urine sample after performing a cytocentesis?

A Calcium oxalate crystals
B 5-10 white blood cells per high-powered field
C Erythrocytes
D Struvite crystals

B 5-10 white blood cells per high-powered field

Explanation - There should be less than 0-5 white blood cells per high-powered field in a urine sample.
Erythrocytes are not uncommon when performing a cystocentesis. This can occur secondary to trauma to the bladder wall when performing urine collection. Keep in mind that an excessive presence of blood can be abnormal.
Struvite and calcium oxalate crystaluria is not necessarily abnormal

What instrument is used to perform a castration in horses?

A Kelly carmalt
B Emasculator
C Rongeurs
D Freedom forceps

B Emasculator

Explanation - The correct answer is an emasculator. This device crushes the spermatic cord as well as cuts it. The crushed end stays with the patient to prevent hemorrhage. Care must be taken when applying the device to ensure that the crushed end stays with the patient, otherwise major bleeding can occur

A client calls to schedule an appointment with the doctor because her dog has been shaking his head and now his ear flap feels swollen, warm to the touch, and is squishy. What should you book the appointment as?

A Pinnal balloon
B Ear hemangiosarcoma
C Ear hematoma
D Ear canal ablation

C Ear hematoma

Explanation - An ear hematoma occurs when the vessels inside the pinna rupture (from shaking the head, trauma, or vasculitis). The pinna (ear flap) fills with blood like a balloon. The term for this condition is an ear hematoma. The most common treatment includes placing a drain in the pinna that stays in place for a couple of weeks. Underlying ear disease should be treated as well

A 3-year old female Doberman presents for a routine spay. The owner states that she has not recently been in heat and has been healthy her entire life. The veterinarian is concerned that Doberman Pinchers are predisposed to having von Willebrand's Disease (vWD). Which of the following diagnostic tests would give the best indication of whether the dog has an increased risk of bleeding due to this disorder?

A Buccal mucosal bleeding test
B Abdominal ultrasound
C Total protein level
D Chest radiographs

A Buccal mucosal bleeding test

Explanation - Doberman Pinschers are predisposed to having von Willebrand's Disease (vWD). Specifically, Dobermans have increased incidence of Type 1 vWD. In this type, there is a reduced presence of the functional von Willebrand factor. This factor is crucial in initial clot formation; it attracts platelets and allows them to bind to exposed subendothelium after injury. A buccal mucosal bleeding test should result in a clot in less than 4 minutes in normal dogs. An abnormal result warrants further investigation to confirm the presence of vWD in order to take the appropriate measures prior to surgery.

The "hock joint" of a horse is more appropriately identified as what structure?

A Tarsocrural joint
B Metatarsophalangeal joint
C Tarsometatarsal joint
D Distal interphalangeal joint

A Tarsocrural joint

Explanation - The hock joint, more specifically called the tarsocrurual joint in the horse, is a high-motion joint composed of numerous bones.

Rats are known to produce a substance called "red tears" or chromodacyorrhea. Where are red tears produced?

A Conjunctival gland
B Harderian gland
C Retro-orbital gland
D Nasal tissue gland

B Harderian gland

Explanation - The Harderian gland produces the substance known as red tears. The red color is from a porphyrin pigment in the tears. Rats under stress may show this red tear production. Due to the connection between the tear ducts and the nasal cavity, the red stain may show up as a nasal discharge. Many owners will think it is blood

Giardia is what type of parasite?

A Cestode
B Protozoan
C Trematode
D Ascarid
E Coccidial

B Protozoan

Explanation - Protozoa are unicellular organisms. Giardia exists in two forms: the motile trophozoite and the cyst form. Trematodes are flukes. Cestodes are tapeworms. Coccidia are a different type of protozoan parasite consisting of several species of Isospora, Cryptosporidium, Toxoplasma, and others

What is the most likely period of time for a scrotal hernia to occur in a stallion?

A Shortly after a race
B Shortly after breeding
C Shortly after a trailer ride
D Shortly after heavy jumping

B Shortly after breeding

Explanation - Newborn foals and breeding stallions are most commonly affected with scrotal hernias. In foals, the hernias may spontaneously resolve as long as they are addressed every time they occur. However, there is a risk that the herniated contents can become incarcerated, resulting in a surgical emergency. In breeding stallions, the contents usually become incarcerated and emergency surgery will be needed

Where would you find a Cuterebra parasite?

A In the anterior chamber of the eye
B Under the skin
C Protruding from the anus
D In the intestines
E In the nasal cavity

B Under the skin

Explanation - Cuterebra are flies whose larvae infest the skin of rodents, squirrels, rabbits, dogs, and cats. Typically a lump is seen with a small hole under the skin from with the larva breathes

You are performing an FeLV snap test on a kitten that was found by your neighbor. What type of test is this?

A Antibody test
B Immunodiffusion test
C Antigen test
D Immunohistochemistry test

C Antigen test

Explanation - The FeLV (feline leukemia virus) test is an antigen test, meaning it is testing for the agent itself.
The FIV test is an antibody test, meaning it is testing for antibodies made by the host against the agent (immune response).
Antigen tests are often referred to as an ELISA test (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay

Why should pigs be fed from a bin or trough and not on the ground?

A It causes them to swallow excessive amounts of air
B They cannot swallow well unless their food is elevated from the floor
C To prevent development of trichobezoars
D It causes gastroesophageal reflux

C To prevent development of trichobezoars

Explanation - A trichobezoar is a ball of swallowed hair that collects in the stomach and can fail to pass through the intestines.
Pigs are constantly shedding hair, so it accumulates on the ground; when eating food off that ground, pigs will ingest enough over time to put them at risk for formation of a trichobezoar

Which of these therapies would prevent weight-bearing of a limb?

A Ehmer sling
B Schroeder-Thomas splint
C Mason-Meta splint
D Fiberglass cast

A Ehmer sling

Explanation - Two common examples of slings which prevent weight-bearing are:
1) Ehmer sling- used for coxofemoral luxations (dislocated hips) to hold hip in place
2) Velpeau Sling- used for shoulder luxation or after shoulder surgery
Splints provide rigid support and do not prevent weight bearing on the limb. They do not go around the entire limb.
Casts provide support and go all the way around the limb

You make a 1:5 dilution of a serum sample and measure the urea nitrogen. The analyzer reads that the concentration of urea nitrogen is 30 mg/dl. What is the urea nitrogen level of the patient's serum?

A 6 mg/dl
B 35 mg/dl
C 150 mg/dl
D 120 mg/dl
E 180 mg/dl

C 150 mg/dl

Explanation - When a dilution is made prior to analyzing a sample, you must multiply that dilution factor with the reported value to obtain the true level in the sample. In this case, the sample was diluted by a factor of 5. Therefore, 30 x 5 = 150

What does MRSA stand for?

A Medical Rating of Staff Accreditation
B Modified Recumbent Standing Apposition
C Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus aureus
D Moderate Radiopaque Screen Application

C Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus aureus

Explanation - MRSA is a resistant bacterium that is becoming increasingly difficult to treat. Most infections are nosocomial and occur in open wounds, surgical or otherwise. This is why meticulous care and attention to cleanliness of the hospital, hand washing, and sterilization of medical equipment are so important

How tall would a horse that measures 66 inches be, in hands?

A 16 - 2 hands
B 14 - 3 hands
C 16 hands
D 15 hands

A 16 - 2 hands

Explanation - A hand is equivelent to 4 inches. Thus 66 divided by 4 = 16 hands + 2 inches or 16 - 2 hands

Valium is often given with ketamine to provide which effect?

A Increased muscle tone
B Muscle relaxation
C Increased cardiac contractility
D Increased heart rate

B Muscle relaxation

Explanation - Ketamine can cause muscle rigidity. Valium (diazepam) is often given with ketamine to provide muscle relaxation.

A dog is being referred to the neurologist for a cervical disk compression that is causing forelimb paresis. Where will the surgical incision likely be made?

A The dorsal neck region
B Inside the mouth
C Between the shoulder blades
D The ventral side of the neck

D The ventral side of the neck

Explanation - A cervical disk surgery typically requires an incision made on the underside of the neck. This surgery is referred to as a "ventral slot".

Which of the following delays wound healing?

A Bed of granulation tissue
B Increased blood supply
C Infection
D Jagged edges

C Infection

Explanation - Bacteria and inflammation from infection cause direct cellular damage. This can cause separation of tissues, which leads to infection and delays healing time.
Granulation tissue is a normal part of healing unless it becomes exuberant.
Other factors which delay healing include corticosteroid administration or immunosuppression, poor blood supply, and hypoproteinemia

In a cow that is having difficulty calving and seems to have her legs splaying out from underneath her, you are most concerned about damage to which nerve?

A Peroneal
B Obturator
C Femoral
D Tibial

B Obturator

Explanation - Obturator nerve paralysis (ONP) is most common. This nerve is responsible for adducting the hind limbs and runs from the spinal cord into the birth canal before it innervates the inner thighs. During birthing, this nerve can become crushed and lead to this problem

A rupture or tear in the thoracic duct would result in which of the following?

A Hemoabdomen
B Pericardial effusion
C Chylothorax
D Pyothorax

C Chylothorax

Explanation - Chyle (a fluid high in chylomicrons and lymph) effuses from the thoracic duct into the pleural space if the thoracic duct tears or ruptures (usually trauma-related). The effusion typically appears as a milky white fluid and is odorless. This is only one cause of chylothorax. Other causes include lymphangiectasia, lung lobe torsion, heartworm disease, cardiomyopathy, neoplasia, idiopathic, and others.
If the triglyceride level of the effusion is greater than that of peripheral blood, this can help to determine the effusion is chylous

Which breed most commonly has von Willebrand's disease?

A Doberman Pinscher
B Labrador Retriever
C Shar pei
D English Bulldog

A Doberman Pinscher

Explanation - Von Willebrand's disease is an inherited bleeding disorder most often seen in the Doberman. Other breeds can also have the disease, just not as commonly.

Pre-renal azotemia is most commonly caused by which of the following?

A Acute renal failure
B Dehydration
C Urethral obstruction
D Pyelonephritis
D Chronic renal failure

B Dehydration

Explanation - Dehydration is the most common cause of pre-renal azotemia. Azotemia is the term for elevated renal values (BUN and creatinine). When a patient is dehydrated, renal values may be elevated. When re-hydration occurs, renal values should return to normal.
Renal failure (acute or chronic) causes primary renal azotemia.
Post-renal azotemia is most often caused by obstruction either in the bladder or urethra, which prevents urine from being voided.

What should be done when administering nitroglycerin paste to a patient?

A Have the patient on oxygen
B Apply it directly to the mucous membranes
C Wear gloves
D Have the patient hooked up to IV fluids to prevent hypotension

C Wear gloves

Explanation - Nitroglycerine is a potent vasodilator used in cases of heart failure. It is critical to always wear gloves when handling this medication as it is absorbed through the skin. Mostly, it is applied to the skin inside the pinna of the ear. The ear should be marked with tape so that others know not to touch the area after the medication has been applied

Which of the following is the most mature neutrophil precursor?

A Promyelocyte
B Metamyelocyte
C Band
D Myeloblast
E Prorubricyte

C Band

Explanation - The neutrophil lineage, from most immature to mature, proceeds as follows: Myeloblast, promyelocyte, neutrophilic myelocyte, neutrophilic metamyelocyte, neutrophilic band, neutrophil. A prorubricyte is an erythrocyte precursor

You are on a farm call with a veterinarian to investigate the cause of agalactia in the farmer's cows. These cows have:

A Blood in their milk
B Poor milk production
C Low calcium
D Infertility

B Poor milk production

Explanation - Agalactia (agalactorrhea) is either an absence of milk production or abnormally low milk production following parturition. There are many common causes including infection (especially in sheep, goats, and pigs), poor nutrition or water deprivation, hormonal imbalances, anatomical causes(inverted teats or absence of mammary tissue, scarring of tissue), or failure of the neonate to suckle properly so that the milk let-down reflex is not stimulated

A dirty wound has edges and tissue that need to be removed. What is the term for removing questionable tissue?

A Debridement
B Grafting
C Skin scraping
D Incising

A Debridement

Explanation - Debriding is removing tissue or material from a wound to aid in healing.
A skin scraping is done by taking a dull blade and mineral oil and scraping the skin in an attempt to find mites such as Demodex or Sarcoptes.
A graft is a piece of tissue taken from one part of the body to use in another region of the body.
Incising is the simple term for cutting or making an incision

Periodontal disease can refer to processes affecting which of the following?

A Dentin
B Hard palate
C Tongue
D Enamel
E Gingiva

E Gingiva

Explanation - Periodontal disease is one of the most common conditions seen. The periodontum includes the gingiva, the alveolar bone, the periodontal ligament and cementum of the tooth. Gingivitis is usually the first sign of periodontal disease.

What are the components of a typical X-ray cassette in order from front (where X-rays enter) to back?

A Cassette front, intensifying screen, padding, film, padding, intensifying screen, cassette back
B Cassette front, padding, intensifying screen, film, intensifying screen, padding, cassette back
C Cassette front, padding, intensifying screen, film, padding, cassette back
D Cassette front, padding, film intensifying screen, film, padding, cassette back

B Cassette front, padding, intensifying screen, film, intensifying screen, padding, cassette back

Explanation - The intensifying screen must be next to the film and not shielded by padding in order to expose the film. Most cassettes have intensifying screens and padding on each side of the film

You have a small canine patient in cardiac arrest that needs emergency drugs. The animal does not have venous access, and placing a venous catheter would be too difficult and take too long. What is the best way to get the drugs to this animal quickly?

A Intraosseous catheter
B Subcutaneous injection
C Intracardiac injection
D Intramuscular injection

A Intraosseous catheter

Explanation - An intraosseous catheter or spinal needle can easily be placed in the trochanteric fossa of the femur for vascular access. The marrow has a similar rate of absorption as venous catheters allowing for quick delivery of drugs and fluids.
Intracardiac injection presents high potential hazards such as inducing fibrillation and pneumothorax.
Subcutaneous injections are very slowly absorbed and would not be a good option for this patient.
Intramuscular injection would not be effective because of the length of time the drugs would require to reach circulation

An anthelmintic is used for treating which of the following?

A Intestinal parasites
B Mange
C Ticks
D Fleas

A Intestinal parasites

Explanation - Anthelmintics are drugs used for expulsion of intestinal worms. Ivermectin, praziquantel, fenbendazole, pyrantel, etc. are a few examples of anthelmintics

What does the abbreviation "q" stand for on a prescription?

A Every
B Orally
C Give
D Discontinue

A Every

Explanation - "q" means every. It may say something such as: Give 1 tablet q 12 hours for 14 days.
This would mean give 1 tablet every 12 hours for 14 days.
The abbreviation for orally is "P.O." (per os).

For which procedure is a celiotomy performed?

A Hemilaminectomy
B Pericardial window
C Lung lobectomy
D Spay

D Spay

Explanation - A celiotomy is another name for laparotomy and involves making an incision into the abdomen. An ovariohysterectomy requires an incision into the abdomen, or a celiotomy.
A pericardial window is a procedure to remove the pericardial sac from the heart and does not require an abdominal incision. A lung lobectomy is removal of a lung lobe and requires a thoracotomy (opening of the chest), not a celiotomy.
A hemilaminectomy is a surgery used to relieve spinal cord compression

Which of the following medications blocks the chemoreceptor trigger zone to help reduce nausea and vomiting in small animals?

A Sucralfate
B Famotidine
C Metronidazole
D Metoclopramide

D Metoclopramide

Explanation - The chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ or CRTZ) is part of the medulla that communicates with the vomiting center to initiate vomiting. Metoclopramide (Reglan) is an anti-emetic primarily used to treat nausea and vomiting in small animals. This medication blocks the chemoreceptor trigger zone.
Sucralfate is a gastric "band-aid" that helps to protect and heal irritated mucosa. Famotidine (Pepcid AC) is a gastric acid reducer. Metronidazole is an antibiotic often prescribed for diarrhea or colitis

What is the single most important thing to do when removing a stomach tube from a patient?

A Flush the tube with 5-10 ml of water
B Advance the tube 3cm infuse 10ml of air and then remove
C Clamp or pinch off stomach tube prior to removing
D Twist the tube as you are pulling it out

C Clamp or pinch off stomach tube prior to removing

Explanation - Clamping or pinching off a stomach tube just prior to removing the tube is essential to prevent spillage of the contents within the tube as it is being removed. Any inadvertent spillage could result in contents entering the airway, subsequently causing aspiration pneumonia. None of the other answer choices effectively prevent this potential complication

Activated charcoal would be used for which of the following?

A Snail bait ingestion
B Fluoroscopy
C Thermal skin burns
D Foreign body ingestion

A Snail bait ingestion

Explanation - Activated charcoal is a black liquid administered orally to prevent absorption of toxins through the gastrointestinal tract. It is often used after induction of emesis or after gastric lavage is performed

Orf is the cause of contagious ecthyma primarily in which species?

A Porcine
B Canine
C Ovine
D Bovine

C Ovine

Explanation - Ovine (sheep) and goats are the species which may contract Orf, also known as "soremouth". It is zoonotic and caused by a parapox virus. It is transmitted via direct contact with infected animals or by contact with fomites, so handlers should wear gloves when dealing with infected animals. It is a benign and self-limiting disease in most people but may be serious in immunocompromised people. Symptoms in sheep and goats include papules or pustules on the lips and muzzle that may then crust and bleed.

Which bone is not associated with the forelimb?

A Tibia
B Radius
C Ulna
D Humerus
E Metacarpal

A Tibia

Explanation - The tibia is a bone of the hindlimb also known as the "shinbone". The tibia is located distal to the femur and proximal to the tarsus

You are assisting with an ACTH stimulation test to test for hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's disease). ACTH stimulates the release of which of the following?

A Amylase
B Insulin
C Cortisol
D Bile

C Cortisol

Explanation - The ACTH (cosyntropin) stimulation test measures the ability of the adrenals to respond to the hormone ACTH. This hormone is made in the pituitary and stimulates the adrenals to produce cortisol.
Cushing's disease is an overproduction of cortisol due to either a pituitary or adrenal mass. Addison's disease is the lack of production of cortisol from the adrenal glands

Which of the following is the correct term for dental decay, causing demineralization of the hard tissues of the tooth?

A Enamel hypoplasia
B Odontoclastic resorptive lesions
C Stomatitis
D Caries

D Caries

Explanation - Dental caries is the condition where trapped food is fermented by bacteria, forming acids that demineralize the hard tissue of the tooth. Odontoclastic resorptive lesions are a process where the cementum of the tooth is resorbed and replaced with bone-like material. Enamel hypoplasia, is the absence of enamel formation on the tooth crown during tooth development. Stomatitis is inflammation of the oral mucosal surfaces

Which of the following diseases would be most likely to cause the development of cataracts in dogs?

A Hypoadrenocorticism
B Hypothyroidism
C Toxocara canis
D Diabetes mellitus

D Diabetes mellitus

Explanation - Diabetes mellitus very commonly causes the development of cataracts in dogs. Cats do not typically get cataracts from diabetes.
Toxocara canis (roundworm intestinal parasite) may cause ocular larval migrans in humans and thus is a zoonotic disease. It does not cause cataracts.
Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's disease) does not cause cataracts.
Hypothyroidism could lead to elevated blood lipids and an increased chance of lipid corneal deposition but would not lead to cataract formation

For which of the following diseases should an animal be isolated?

A Demodectic mange
B Bordetella bronchiseptica
C Ehrlichia canis
D Diabetes

B Bordetella bronchiseptica

Explanation - Bordetella is one cause of kennel cough and is contagious to other dogs. The other diseases listed are not contagious. Diabetes is not a contagious condition as is a result of an endocrinopathy. Demodectic manage is secondary to a non-contagious mite. Ehrlichia canis is a tick-borne disease and is not directly transmissible

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