EW.Final

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Which of the following is the best method to sterilize heat-labile solutions?
A) Dry heat
B) Autoclave
C) Membrane filtration
D) Pasteurization
E) Freezing

C

Which of the following best describes the pattern of microbial death?
A) The cells in a population die at a constant rate.
B) All the cells in a culture die at once.
C) Not all of the cells in a culture are killed.
D) The pattern varies depending on the antimicrobial agent.
E) The pattern varies depending on the species.

A

Which of the following substances can sterilize?
A) Alcohol
B) Phenolics
C) Ethylene oxide
D) Chlorine
E) Soap

C

Which of the following substances is used for surgical hand scrubs?
A) Phenol
B) Chlorine bleach
C) Chlorhexidine
D) Soap
E) Glutaraldehyde

C

Place the following surfactants in order from the most effective to the least effective antimicrobial activity:
1-Soap; 2-Acid-anionic detergent; 3-Quats.
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 1, 3, 2
C) 2, 1, 3
D) 3, 2, 1
E) 3, 1, 2

D

The antimicrobial activity of chlorine is due to which of the following?
A) The formation of hypochlorous acid
B) The formation of hydrochloric acid
C) The formation of ozone
D) The formation of free O
E) Disruption of the plasma membrane

A

Iodophors differ from iodine (I2) in that iodophors
A) Don't stain.
B) Are less irritating.
C) Are longer lasting.
D) Are combined with a nonionic detergent.
E) All of the above.

E

Which of the following does NOT achieve sterilization?
A) Dry heat
B) Pasteurization
C) Autoclave
D) Formaldehyde
E) Ethylene oxide

B

Which of the following is a limitation of the autoclave?
A) Requires a long time to achieve sterilization
B) Cannot inactivate viruses
C) Cannot kill endospores
D) Cannot be used with heat-labile materials
E) Cannot be used with glassware

D

Which of the following affects the elimination of bacteria from an object?
A) Number of bacteria present
B) Temperature
C) pH
D) Presence of organic matter
E) All of the above

E

Which of the following does NOT directly result from application of heat?
A) Breaking of hydrogen bonds
B) Breaking of sulfhydryl bonds
C) Denaturing of enzymes
D) Cell lysis
E) Damage to nucleic acids

D

Which of these disinfectants acts by denaturing proteins?
A) Alcohols
B) Aldehydes
C) Bisphenols
D) Halogens
E) Phenolics

C

Which of the following substances is NOT an oxidizing agent?
A) Chlorine
B) Glutaraldehyde
C) Hydrogen peroxide
D) Iodine
E) Ozone

B

) Which of the following is NOT used to disinfect water?
A) Ozone
B) Gamma radiation
C) Chlorine
D) Copper sulfate
E) Heat

E

Which of the following substances is NOT effective against nonenveloped viruses?
A) Alcohol
B) Chlorine
C) Ethylene oxide
D) Ozone
E) All are equally effective.

A

Glutaraldehyde is considered one of the most effective disinfectants for hospital use. Which of the following statements about glutaraldehyde is false?
A) Stains and corrodes
B) Is safe to transport
C) Acts rapidly
D) Is not hampered by organic material
E) Attacks all microorganisms

A

Which concentration of ethanol is the most effective bactericide?
A) 100% B) 70% C) 50% D) 40% E) 30%

B

Which of the following is NOT a factor contributing to hospital-acquired infections?
A) Some bacteria metabolize disinfectants.
B) Gram-negative bacteria are often resistant to disinfectants.
C) Invasive procedures can provide a portal of entry for bacteria.
D) Bacteria may be present in commercial products such as mouthwash.
E) All of the above may contribute to hospital-acquired infection.

E

Which of the following treatments is the most effective for controlling microbial growth?
A) 63°C for 30 min.
B) 72°C for 15 sec.
C) 140°C for 4 sec.
D) They are equivalent treatments.
E) None is effective.

D

Which of the following could be used to sterilize plastic Petri plates in a plastic wrapper?
A) Autoclave
B) Gamma radiation
C) Microwaves
D) Sunlight
E) Ultraviolet radiation

B

In Figure 7.1, what is the thermal death time for culture (a)?
A) 150°C
B) 60 min.
C) 120 min.
D) 100°C
E) Can't tell

B

A suspension of 106 Bacillus cereus endospores was put in a hot-air oven at 170°C. Plate counts were used to determine the number of endospores surviving at the time intervals shown.
) In Figure 7.2, the thermal death point for this culture is
A) 15 min. B) 50°C. C) 30 min. D) 170°C.
E) Can't tell from the data provided.

E

In Figure 7.2, the decimal reduction time (D value) for the culture is approximately
A) 0 min. B) 15 min. C) 30 min. D) 45 min. E) 60 min.

B

In Figure 7.2, the thermal death time for this culture is
A) 0 min.
B) 10 min.
C) 20 min.
D) 40 min.
E) 60 min.

E

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) Ag N burns
B) Alcohols N open wounds
C) CuSO4 N algicide
D) H2O2 N open wounds
E) Organic acids N food preservation

B

Which graph in Figure 7.3 best depicts the effect of placing the culture at 7°C at time x?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e

D

In Table 7.1, which compound was the most effective against Staphylococcus?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) Can't tell

C

In Table 7.1, which compound was the most effective against E. coli?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) Can't tell

E

In Table 7.1, which compound was bactericidal?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) Can't tell

E

) In Table 7.2, which preservative is most effective?
A) Sorbate
B) Benzoate
C) Sorbate + benzoate
D) No preservative

B

Which one of the following does NOT belong with the others?
A) Acid-anionic detergents
B) Benzoic acid
C) Supercritical CO2
D) Pasteurization
E) Peracetic acid

A

Which one of the following does NOT belong with the others?
A) Beta-propiolactone
B) Glutaraldehyde
C) Ethylene oxide
D) Hydrogen peroxide
E) Propylene oxide

D

Which of the following substances is NOT used to preserve foods?
A) Biguanides
B) Nisin
C) Potassium sorbate
D) Sodium nitrite
E) Sodium propionate

A

In Table 7.3, which disinfectant is the most effective at stopping bacterial growth?
A) Doom
B) K.O.
C) Mortum
D) Sterl
E) Can't tell

A

) In Table 7.3, which disinfectant was bactericidal?
A) Doom
B) K.O.
C) Mortum
D) Sterl
E) Can't tell

C

In Table 7.3, which disinfectant was most effective against Salmonella?
A) Doom
B) K.O.
C) Mortum
D) Sterl
E) Can't tell

E

Which of the following will NOT destroy prions?
A) Boiling
B) Incineration
C) NaOH + autoclaving at 134°C
D) Proteases
E) All of the above destroy prions.

A

Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) Ionizing radiation N hydroxyl radicals
B) Ozone N takes electrons from substances
C) Plasma sterilization N free radicals
D) Supercritical fluids N CO2
E) Ultraviolet radiation N desiccation

E

Which of the following will NOT preserve foods?
A) Desiccation
B) High pressure
C) Ionizing radiation
D) Microwaves
E) Osmotic pressure

D

Which of the following will NOT inactivate endospores?
A) Autoclave
B) Chlorine dioxide
C) High pressure
D) Plasma
E) Supercritical CO2

C

If you were preparing nutrient agar at home and didn't have an autoclave, what could you use to sterilize the nutrient agar?
A) Bleach
B) Boiling for 1 hour
C) Hydrogen peroxide
D) Oven at 121°C for 1 hour
E) Pressure cooker at 121°C for 15 minutes

E

Bone and tendons for transplant are decontaminated by
A) Ethylene oxide.
B) Glutaraldehyde.
C) Peroxygens.
D) Plasma sterilization.
E) Supercritical fluids.

E

Which one of the following is most resistant to chemical biocides?
A) Gram-negative bacteria
B) Gram-positive bacteria
C) Mycobacteria
D) Protozoan cysts
E) Viruses with lipid envelopes

C

Penicillin was considered a "miracle drug" for all of the following reasons EXCEPT
A) It was the first antibiotic.
B) It doesn't affect eukaryotic cells.
C) It inhibits gram-positive cell wall synthesis.
D) It has selective toxicity.
E) It kills bacteria.

A

A drug that inhibits mitosis, such as griseofulvin, would be more effective against
A) Gram-positive bacteria.
B) Gram-negative bacteria.
C) Fungi.
D) Wall-less bacteria.
E) Mycobacteria.

C

Most of the available antimicrobial agents are effective against
A) Viruses.
B) Bacteria.
C) Fungi.
D) Protozoa.
E) All of the above.

B

Antimicrobial peptides work by
A) Inhibiting protein synthesis.
B) Disrupting the plasma membrane.
C) Complementary base pairing with DNA.
D) Inhibiting cell-wall synthesis.
E) Hydrolyzing peptidoglycan.

B

In what way are semisynthetic penicillins and natural penicillins alike?
A) Both are broad spectrum.
B) Both are resistant to penicillinase.
C) Both are resistant to stomach acids.
D) Both are bactericidal.
E) Both are based on Ά-lactam.

E

Which of the following antibiotics is NOT bactericidal?
A) Aminoglycosides
B) Cephalosporins
C) Polyenes
D) Rifampins
E) Penicillin

C

Which one of the following does NOT belong with the others?
A) Bacitracin
B) Cephalosporin
C) Monobactam
D) Penicillin
E) Streptomycin

E

The antibiotic tetracycline binds to the 30S subunit of the ribosome as shown in Figure 20.1. The effect is to
A) Prevent attachment of tRNA.
B) Prevent peptide bond formation.
C) Prevent transcription.
D) Stop the ribosome from moving along the mRNA.
E) Prevent attachment of tRNA and mRNA.

B

The antibiotic cycloheximide binds to the 60S subunit of the ribosome as shown in Figure 20.2. The effect is to
A) Prevent mRNANribosome binding in eukaryotes.
B) Prevent peptide bond formation in prokaryotes.
C) Prevent polypeptide elongation in eukaryotes.
D) Prevent transcription in prokaryotes.
E) Prevent ribosome formation in bacteria.

C

Which of these antimicrobial agents has the fewest side effects?
A) Streptomycin
B) Tetracycline
C) Penicillin
D) Erythromycin
E) Chloramphenicol

C

Which of the following drugs does NOT act by competitive inhibition?
A) Ethambutol
B) Isoniazid
C) Streptomycin
D) Sulfonamide
E) Tetracycline

C

Which of the following methods of action would be bacteriostatic?
A) Competitive inhibition with folic acid synthesis
B) Inhibition of RNA synthesis
C) Injury to plasma membrane
D) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
E) Competitive inhibition with DNA gyrase

B

Which of the following antibiotics is recommended for use against gram-negative bacteria?
A) Polyenes
B) Bacitracin
C) Cephalosporin
D) Penicillin
E) Polymyxin

E

Which of the following antimicrobial agents is recommended for use against fungal infections?
A) Amphotericin B
B) Bacitracin
C) Cephalosporin
D) Penicillin
E) Polymyxin

A

In Table 20.1, the minimal bactericidal concentration of antibiotic X is
A) 2 µg/ml.
B) 10 µg/ml.
C) 15 µg/ml.
D) 25 µg/ml.
E) Can't tell.

C

) In Table 20.1, the minimal inhibitory concentration of antibiotic X is
A) 2 µg/ml.
B) 10 µg/ml.
C) 15 µg/ml.
D) 25 µg/ml.
E) Can't tell.

B

More than half of our antibiotics are
A) Produced by fungi.
B) Produced by bacteria.
C) Synthesized in laboratories.
D) Produced by Fleming.
E) Produced by eukaryotic organisms.

B

The antibiotic chloramphenicol binds to the 50S subunit of the ribosome as shown in Figure 20.3. The effect is to
A) Prevent attachment of tRNA.
B) Prevent peptide bond formation.
C) Prevent transcription.
D) Stop the ribosome from moving along the mRNA.
E) Prevent polypeptide formation in eukaryotes.

A

The antibiotic streptomycin binds to the 30S subunit of the ribosome as shown in Figure 20.4. The effect is to
A) Cause misreading of mRNA in 70S ribosomes.
B) Prevent binding of tRNA in eukaryotes.
C) Prevent polypeptide elongation in eukaryotes.
D) Prevent peptide bond formation in prokaryotes.
E) Prevent binding of tRNA in eukaryotes.

A

Which compound would be the most useful to treat candidiasis?
A) Uracil
B) Thymine
C) Flucytosine
D) Guanine
E) Penicillin

C

Which of the following antibiotics are used to treat fungal infections?
1. Aminoglycosides 2. Cephalosporins
3. Griseofulvin 4. Polyenes 5. Bacitracin
A) 1, 2, and 3 B) 3 and 4 C) 3, 4, and 5
D) 4 and 5 E) All of the antibiotics

B

Which of the following antibiotics does NOT interfere with cell wall synthesis?
A) Cephalosporins
B) Macrolides
C) Natural penicillins
D) Semisynthetic penicillins
E) Vancomycin

B

The antimicrobial drugs with the broadest spectrum of activity are
A) Aminoglycosides.
B) Chloramphenicol.
C) Lincomycin.
D) Macrolides.
E) Tetracyclines.

E

Which of the following statements is false?
A) Fluoroquinolone inhibits DNA synthesis.
B) Acyclovir inhibits DNA synthesis.
C) Amantadine inhibits release of viral nucleic acid.
D) Interferon inhibits glycolysis.
E) Azoles inhibit plasma membrane synthesis.

D

Protozoan and helminthic diseases are difficult to treat because
A) Their cells are structurally and functionally similar to human cells.
B) They replicate inside human cells.
C) They don't have ribosomes.
D) They don't reproduce.
E) They have more genes than bacteria.

A

Which of the following organisms would most likely be sensitive to natural penicillin?
A) L forms
B) Streptococcus pyogenes
C) Penicillinase-producing Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D) Penicillium
E) Mycoplasma

B

Which of the following statements about drug resistance is false?
A) It may be carried on a plasmid.
B) It may be transferred from one bacterium to another during conjugation.
C) It may be due to enzymes that degrade some antibiotics.
D) It is found only in gram-negative bacteria.
E) It may be due to increased uptake of a drug.

D

Which of the following does NOT constitute an advantage of using two antibiotics together?
A) It can prevent drug resistance.
B) It lessens the toxicity of individual drugs.
C) Two are always twice as effective as one.
D) It allows treatment to be provided prior to diagnosis.
E) All of the above are advantages.

C

Drug resistance occurs
A) Because bacteria are normal microbiota.
B) When antibiotics are used indiscriminately.
C) Against antibiotics and not against synthetic chemotherapeutic agents.
D) When antibiotics are taken after the symptoms disappear.
E) All of the above.

B

In Table 20.2, the most effective antibiotic tested was
A) A. 3MM
B) B. 7MM
C) C. 0
D) D. 10MM
E) Can't tell.

D

In Table 20.2, the antibiotic that exhibited bactericidal action was
A) A. 3MM
B) B. 7MM
C) C. 0
D) D. 10MM
E) Can't tell.

E

In Table 20.2, which antibiotic would be most useful for treating a Salmonella infection?
A) A. 3MM
B) B. 7MM
C) C. 0
D) D. 10MM
E) Can't tell.

E

Which of the following would be selective against the tubercle bacillus?
A) Bacitracin N inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis
B) Ethambutol N inhibits mycolic acid synthesis
C) Streptogramin N inhibits protein synthesis
D) Streptomycin N inhibits protein synthesis
E) Vancomycin N inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis

B

In the presence of penicillin, a cell dies because
A) It lacks a cell wall.
B) It plasmolyzes.
C) It undergoes osmotic lysis.
D) It lacks a cell membrane.
E) Its contents leak out.

C

Lamisil is an allylamine used to treat dermatomycoses. Lamisil's method of action is similar to that of
A) Polymyxin B.
B) Azole antibiotics.
C) Echinocandins.
D) Griseofulvin.
E) Bacitracin.

B

Niclosamide prevents ATP generation in mitochondria. You would expect this drug to be effective against
A) Gram-negative bacteria.
B) Gram-positive bacteria.
C) Helminths.
D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
E) Viruses.

C

The data in Table 20.3 show that these bacteria
A) Can be subcultured.
B) Developed resistance to antibiotics.
C) Were killed by 0.125 µg/ml of antibiotic X.
D) Were killed by 0.5 µg/ml of antibiotic X.
E) Were resistant to 1.0 µg/ml at the start of the experiment.

B

) Which of the following statements about drugs that competitively inhibit DNA polymerase or RNA
polymerase is false?
A) They cause mutations.
B) They are used against viral infections.
C) They can affect host cell DNA.
D) They are too dangerous to use.
E) They interfere with protein synthesis.

D

The substrate for transpeptidase used to synthesize peptidoglycan is shown in Figure 20.5. Which of the drugs shown would inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e

D

The structures of the influenza drug Tamiflu and sialic acid, the substrate for influenza virus's neuramidase, are shown in Figure 20.6. What is the method of action of Tamiflu?
A) Inhibits cell wall synthesis
B) Inhibits plasma membrane synthesis
C) Inhibits synthesis of neuramidase
D) Competitive inhibition
E) Prevents synthesis of virus spikes

D

Which of the following does NOT affect eukaryotic cells?
A) Antiprotozoan drugs
B) Antihelminthic drugs
C) Antifungal drugs
D) Nucleotide analogs
E) Semisynthetic penicillins

E

Mebendazole is used to treat cestode infections. It interferes with microtubule formation; therefore, it would NOT affect
A) Bacteria.
B) Fungi.
C) Helminths.
D) Human cells.
E) Protozoa.

A

Which of the following antibiotics causes misreading of mRNA?
A) Aminoglycoside N changes shape of 30S units
B) Chloramphenicol N inhibits peptide bonds at 50S subunit
C) Oxazolidinone N prevents formation of 70S ribosome
D) Streptogamin N prevents release of peptide from 70S ribosome
E) Tetracyclines N bind with 30S subunit

A

) The antibiotic actinomycin D binds between adjacent G-C pairs, thus interfering with
A) Transcription.
B) Translation.
C) Cellular respiration.
D) Plasma membrane function.
E) Peptide bond formation.

A

Use of antibiotics in animal feed leads to antibiotic-resistant bacteria because
A) Bacteria from other animals replace those killed by the antibiotics.
B) The few surviving bacteria that are affected by the antibiotics develop immunity to the antibiotics, which they pass on to their progeny.
C) The antibiotics cause new mutations to occur in the surviving bacteria, which results in resistance to
antibiotics. D) The antibiotics kill susceptible bacteria, but the few that are naturally resistant live and reproduce, and their progeny repopulate the host animal. E) The antibiotics persist in soil and water.

D

The agent that would cause croup in newborns:
Bunyaviradae, CMV, EBV,Pneumovirus, Paramyxovirus, ruebellla, Enterovirus, fliovirade, flavavirus, hepadnavirus, HOV, HIV, HSVE

Pneumovirus

You are examining a patient to find evidence of a viral infection along the trigeminal nerve. Upon activation of the virus, skin lesions appear around the mouth and eyes:Bunyaviradae, CMV, EBV,Pneumovirus, Enterovirus, fliovirade, flavavirus, hepadnavirus, HOV, HIV, HSVE, HSV1,Paramyxovirus, ruebellla,

HSV1

You caution the patient that these skin lesions may be recurrent and may be triggered by:
Stress, Fever, Menstruation, UV Radiation, All, Non

All

The herpes virus is: An enveloped virus, a naked virus, an enveloped RNA virus, a naked RNA virus, A prion

An enveloped virus

Which of the following viruses would caused an enlarged liver and spleen and a gray white exudates in the pharynx: Bunyaviradae, CMV, EBV,Pneumovirus, Enterovirus, fliovirade, flavavirus, hepadnavirus, HOV, HIV, HSVE, HSV1,Paramyxovirus, ruebellla,

EBV

The polio virus is: an enveloped DNA virus, A naked DNA virus, An enveloped RNA virus, A naked RNA virus, A prion,

A naked RNA virus

You are doing some extra reading on viral diseases, you read that a specif disease is teratogenic that means:

The virus can inject the developing fetus

Which of the following would be infected by HSV2?

Lumbosacral nerve

Which is not an example of an enveloped DN pox virus

Chicken Pox

While traveling in Africa, you notice children with large cheek swellings near the jaw. You discover that this is due to a B Cell malignancy caused by:

EBV

You have been transported back to Elizabeth England. While enjoying the Shakespeare play, the person next to you collapses. You examine the person and notice that he has swollen lymph nodes, a fever, and a rash in the pharynx and on the face. Eventually the rash becomes macular and pustular, you realize the person has

Small Pox

Knowing that this is a viral disease, you know that there is very little that you can do for the person except hope that this:

Variola Minor

A crowd gathers around the person and begin to wonder how this disease came about. You know that the exposure could be do to

Inhalation of droplet or skin crusts

The causative agent for polio would be

enterovirus

The group of viruses that would include Ebola and Marburg viruses

Filoviradae

The causative agent for hantavirus

Bunyaviraidae

The virus that can be prevented by the Salk to Sabine vaccines

Enterovirus

An example of a retrovirus would be

HIV

West Nile disease and yellow Jack

Flavivirus

RNA virus that can be prevented by the HDCV or RVA vaccines

Rhabdovirus

Causative agents for mumps

Paramyxovirus

Causative DNA Non enveloped virus that causes verrucas and is a trigger for cancer

HPV

Virus that causes hepatitus B

Hepadnavirus

Virus that can be prevented by HBIG

Hepadnavirus

German measles can be prevented by the vaccine called

MMR

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