Government I

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Textbook: We The People

Throughout U.S. history, Americans have
A) supported strong government.
B) been suspicious of strong government.
C) moved from suspicion of government to enthusiastic support for government.
D) moved from a belief in no government to a belief in strong government.

B

2.
The trend line of Americans' trust in the federal government
A) has declined steadily since the early 1960s.
B) declined during Watergate but rose again during the 1980s.
C) rose in the 1990s and peaked in 2002.
D) rose during the 1970s and 1980s but has declined since 1992.

C

3.
The belief that citizens can affect government is called political
A) culture.
B) socialization.
C) efficacy.
D) satisfaction.

C

4.
According to the ancient Greeks, a citizen was
A) any free male who was at least 18 years old.
B) anyone who was knowledgeable of and actively participated in government.
C) anyone born of Greek parents.
D) anyone who votes.

B

5.
According to the authors of the text, good citizenship requires
A) political knowledge.
B) political engagement.
C) a good education.
D) both a and b.

D

6.
The majority of Americans believe that "government is run by a few big interests" and that government officials "don't care what people think." The term used to describe this would be
A) low efficacy.
B) high efficacy.
C) low participation.
D) high participation.

A

7.
The formal institutions that rule a people are called its
A) economy.
B) legislature.
C) politics.
D) government.

D

8.
Government run by a few people is called
A) autocracy.
B) totalitarianism.
C) pluralism.
D) oligarchy.

D

9.
According to Harold Lasswell, politics is
A) a form of deceit practiced by everyone.
B) what people do to get what they want from government.
C) who gets what, when do they get it and how.
D) the misallocation of "values" for partisan purposes.

C

10.
A system of government that recognizes no formal limits on its power is
A) direct democracy.
B) autocratic.
C) oligarchic.
D) totalitarian.

D

11.
The bourgeoisie of western Europe wanted to
A) open up political participation to all social classes.
B) restore the divine right of kings.
C) promote political participation for the middle classes.
D) overthrow parliaments.

C

12.
Which of the following is the primary responsibility of the Federal Government?
A) police the cities
B) establish zoning for commercial and residential purposes
C) license doctors and lawyers
D) NONE of these are responsibilities of the Federal government

D

13.
In nineteenth-century Prussia, Otto von Bismarck introduced social reforms to aid the lower class because he
A) wanted to introduce modern democratic ideas.
B) was trying to offset the growing power of the middle class.
C) had a religious conversion that told him to aid the poor.
D) needed support from the middle class, which was advocating greater representation of the poor.

B

14.
A student council is an example of:
A) direct democracy.
B) representative democracy.
C) limited democracy.
D) an oligarchy.

B

15.
Which of the following is not part of the U.S. political culture?
A) belief in equality of results
B) belief in equality of opportunity
C) belief in individual liberty
D) belief in free competition

A

16.
Laissez-faire capitalism has been limited by
A) public opinion, which opposes capitalism.
B) voluntary actions by big businesses.
C) government regulation.
D) papal encyclicals.

C

17.
Many of the conflicts in American politics today revolve around
A) the proper scope of government.
B) whether government should exist at all.
C) allowing minorities to participate in government.
D) consolidating the three branches of the military into one.

A

18.
In a democracy, sovereignty is vested in
A) the president.
B) the federal government.
C) the people.
D) Congress.

C

19.
The U.S. definition of liberty refers to
A) personal freedom only.
B) economic liberty only.
C) personal and economic freedom.
D) political and religious freedom.

C

20.
Americans
A) are less supportive of income redistribution than Europeans.
B) are more supportive of income redistribution than Europeans.
C) never support income redistribution programs.
D) want government to equalize income in times of recession.

A

21.
Realistically, the United States did not become a full practicing democracy until
A) 1789.
B) the Civil War.
C) the New Deal.
D) the 1960s.

D

22.
The United States' core political values are
A) liberty and responsibility.
B) liberty, equality, and minority rights.
C) liberty, equality, and democracy.
D) liberty, democracy, and capitalism.

C

23.
Which of the following is not a principle of our democracy?
A) majority rule
B) complete freedom
C) minority rights
D) equality of opportunity

B

24.
In which of the following activities will a typical college student feel the presence of their state government?
A) waking up to standard time
B) reading the nutrition labels on his/her cereal
C) taking American Government 101
D) surfing the internet

C

24.
In which of the following activities will a typical college student feel the presence of their state government?
A) waking up to standard time
B) reading the nutrition labels on his/her cereal
C) taking American Government 101
D) surfing the internet

B

26.
The gambling industry in your state wants to change the state constitution to allow gambling. They organize a campaign through voter signatures and put their proposal directly on the ballot. This is called a(n)
A) ballot initiative
B) midterm election
C) primary
D) ex post facto law

A

27.
In recent years, more and more Americans are learning about government from
A) newspapers.
B) the evening news.
C) late-night comedians.
D) CNN.

c

28.
What kind of government do we have?
A) direct democracy.
B) republic.
C) totalitarian.
D) authoritarian.

b

29.
How much do Americans know about their government?
A) a lot
B) some
C) very little

c

30.
Trust in government in the United States
A) reached an all-time high after 9/11.
B) has declined in the last fifty years.
C) is higher today than ever before.

b

31.
Which is a key American value in our political culture?
A) liberty
B) equality
C) democracy
D) All of these are American values.

d

32.
Which of the following statements describes America's growing population since its founding?
A) More Americans trace their roots to Europe today than ever before.
B) African Americans now make up a much smaller percentage of the total population.
C) The percentage of the American population that identifies as Protestants has been on the rise.
D) The number of elderly Americans has grown and the number of children eighteen and under has declined.

d

33.
The framers of the Constitution stipulated that the number of representatives in the House of Representatives "shall not exceed one for every thirty Thousand. . . " constituents, but today the average member of Congress represents approximately how many people?
A) 150,000
B) 500,000
C) 650,000
D) 750,000

c

///1.
Which of the following is not among the four distinct physical regions of the state of Texas?
A) Coastal Plains
B) Interior Lowlands
C) Great Plains
D) Great Plateau

d

///2.
Texas is the second largest state consisting of approximately ________________ square miles.
A) 167 million
B) 267,000
C) 627,000
D) 950,000

b

///3.
One of the earliest cash crops in Texas was _______________
A) onions
B) citrus
C) cotton
D) rice

c

///4.
_____________ coexisted with farming as a major economic enterprise until the early twentieth century.
A) Fishing
B) Ranching
C) Manufacturing
D) Shipbuilding

b

///5.
The first economically significant oil discovery in Texas occurred in __________________
A) Navarro County
B) Harris County
C) Bexar County
D) Jefferson County

a

////6.
The discovery of oil at _______________ in 1901 produced Texas' first oil boom.
A) Baytown
B) Humble
C) Odessa-Permian
D) Spindletop

d

////7.
By 1929, ___________ of all manufacturing employees in Harris County worked in refineries.
A) 10 percent
B) 27 percent
C) 55 percent
D) 90 percent

b

////8.
The _________________ Commission began regulating oil and gas production in 1917.
A) Public Utilities
B) Land
C) Railroad
D) Petroleum

c

////9.
The Texas economy diversified in the 1980s and 1990s with the rapid growth of __________ enterprises in the Austin and Dallas areas.
A) high-tech
B) industrial
C) manufacturing
D) construction

a

////10.
The ____________ sought to create a free trade zone in North America.
A) North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA)
B) Mexico and United States Trade Treaty
C) Rio Grande Proviso
D) Treaty of Guadalupe

a

///.
States often demonstrate a distinct _____________ that is the product of their entire history.
A) ideology
B) socialization
C) political culture
D) political economics

c

///12.
The Texas Workforce Commission reports that between 1998 and 2000, __________ workers in Texas have been certified by the U.S. Department of Labor as being negatively impacted by the free trade agreement entered into by the United States, Canada, and Mexico.
A) 2,000
B) 12,000
C) 35,000
D) 21,000

d

///13.
Which of the following is not used by Daniel Elazar to describe state political cultures?
A) moralistic
B) monistic
C) individualistic
D) traditionalistic

b

////14.
______________ state political cultures were rooted in New England, where Puritans and other religious groups sought to create the Good Society.
A) moralistic
B) monistic
C) individualistic
D) traditionalistic

a

/15.
______________ state political cultures originated in the middle states where individuals sought material wealth and personal freedom through commercial activities.
A) moralistic
B) monistic
C) individualistic
D) traditionalistic

b

///16.
______________ political culture developed in the South, reflecting the values of the slave plantation economy and its successor, the Jim Crow era.
A) moralistic
B) monistic
C) individualistic
D) traditionalistic

d

////17.
Texas is categorized as having a __________________ political culture.
A) monistic-moralistic
B) moralistic-individualistic
C) moralistic-traditionalistic
D) traditionalistic-individualistic

d

///18.
The ______________ Party dominated Texas politics from the end of Reconstruction until the 1990s.
A) Republican
B) Progressive
C) Democratic
D) Republic of Texas

c

////19.
The concept of __________________ emphasizes rural values and Jeffersonian notions of limited government.
A) provincialism
B) socialism
C) agrarianism
D) utopianism

a

///20.
Which of the following economic sectors dominated Texas politics throughout the latter half of the twentieth century?
A) labor
B) business
C) environmental
D) consumer

b

1.
Since 1789, more than 11,000 amendments were formally offered in Congress. Of these, only ____________ were finally ratified by the states.
A) 500
B) 100
C) 50
D) 27

d

2.
Prior to the twentieth century, most governments relied on ____________ for revenue.
A) tariffs, duties, and other taxes on commerce
B) local sales taxes
C) a national sales tax
D) a personal income tax

a

3.
The First Continental Congress met in 1774. Which of the following actions did the delegates at the Congress take?
A) They declared independence from Great Britain.
B) They called for a total boycott of British goods.
C) They elected George Washington as General of the Colonial Army.
D) They wrote the pamphlet Common Sense, which argued for independence from British rule.

d

4.
The United States' first written constitution was
A) the U.S. Constitution.
B) the Declaration of Independence.
C) the League of States.
D) the Articles of Confederation and Perpetual Union.

d

5.
The Declaration of Independence and the Articles of Confederation were not sufficient to hold the new nation together as an independent and effective nation-state. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) The central government under the Articles of Confederation was powerless to intervene to resolve trade, economic, and political disputes among the states.
B) Many of the pre- and post-revolutionary radicals, small farmers, artisans, and shopkeepers wanted a strong national government in order to protect their economic interests.
C) Many of the pre-Revolutionary colonial elite favored a stronger national government in order to protect their economic interests.
D) Competition among the states for foreign commerce allowed the European powers to play the states against one another.

b

.
The Shays's Rebellion was significant in that it
A) demonstrated the weakness of government under the Articles of Confederation.
B) represents the first major battle of the Civil War.
C) led to renewed fighting between the colonists and the British.
D) was the last battle in the Revolutionary War.

a

7.
The Connecticut Plan provided for which of the following?
A) a House of Representatives apportioned by the number of free inhabitants and a Senate consisting of two members from each state selected by state legislatures
B) a House of Representatives apportioned by the number of free inhabitants plus three-fifths of the slaves and a Senate consisting of two members from each state directly elected by the people
C) a House of Representatives apportioned by the number of free inhabitants plus three-fifths of the slaves and a Senate consisting of two members from each state selected by the state legislatures
D) a bicameral legislature in which both houses would be apportioned according to the number of free inhabitants plus three-fifths of the slaves

c

8.
Which of the following statements is true about the Three-fifths Compromise?
A) It settled the question of how many senators each state would get.
B) It created a system to elect the president of the United States.
C) Under this compromise, five slaves would count as three free persons in apportioning seats in the House of Representatives.
D) Only three-fifths of all slaves were allowed to vote in national elections.

c

9.
Under the original, unamended Constitution, the only person(s) elected directly by the people was/were
A) the President.
B) Senators.
C) Supreme Court judges.
D) members of the House of Representatives.

d

10.
Which of the following statements is true about the Constitutional ratification process?
A) Ratification of the Constitution was a speedy and uncontroversial process.
B) The Constitution was ratified in state legislatures.
C) The struggle for ratification was carried out in thirteen separate campaigns.
D) The so-called Federalists opposed ratification of the U.S. Constitution.

c

11.
What or who were Publius and Brutus?
A) The pen names used in essays written defending ("Publius") and attacking ("Brutus") the proposed U.S. Constitution
B) The nicknames given to Alexander Hamilton ("Publius") and Aaron Burr ("Brutus")
C) Latin terms meaning Federalist ("Publius") and Antifederalist ("Brutus")
D) None of the above

a

12.
In general, it was the ____________ vision of the United States that triumphed.
A) Federalist
B) Antifederalist
C) Jeffersonian
D) Washingtonian

a

13.
Most of the seventeen Constitutional amendments ratified since the Bill of Rights in 1791 have been directly or indirectly concerned with
A) due process of law.
B) equal protection of the law.
C) structure or composition of government.
D) civil liberties.

c

14.
According to the text, the story of the founding is important because
A) it is a story about morality; the British were oppressive, and the Americans had the moral obligation to rebel.
B) all students should learn the lessons of history.
C) it was a story of political choices, and Americans continue today to make tough political choices.
D) it illustrates that democracy is the only political choice for freedom-loving people.

c

15.
According to your text, which of the following statements best articulates the motives of the framers at the Constitutional Convention in Philadelphia?
A) The United States' framers were a collection of securities speculators and property owners whose main aim was self-interest and personal gain.
B) The framers' interests were reinforced by their principles.
C) The framers were primarily interested in philosophical and ethical principles.
D) The framers were most concerned about the expansion of democracy to all new Americans.

b

16.
Under the Great Compromise, small states were given an advantage in the
A) Senate.
B) House of Representatives.
C) electoral college.
D) Supreme Court.

a

17.
The power of judicial review
A) allows the Senate to confirm presidential judicial appointments.
B) is defined in Article III of the U.S. Constitution.
C) was assumed by the Supreme Court.
D) was declared unconstitutional by Chief Justice John Marshall in Marbury v. Madison.

c

18.
An important issue dividing Federalists and Antifederalists was the threat of tyranny, meaning,
A) generally, unjust rule by the group in power.
B) from the Antifederalists' perspective, the fear of an aristocracy.
C) from the Federalists' perspective, rule by the passions of the majority.
D) All of the above

d

19.
Which of the following concepts best explains the underlying reason for the Bill of Rights?
A) checks and balances
B) separation of powers
C) limited government
D) rule by government

c

20.
The amendment route to social change
A) is, and always will be, extremely limited.
B) is very frequently followed.
C) is hard, but has been used over fifty times in American history.
D) has never been used in America.

a

21.
The Constitution's framers placed ____________ ahead of all other political values.
A) individual liberty
B) democracy
C) equality
D) civil rights

a

22.
An amendment to the U.S. Constitution may be proposed in which of the following ways?
A) a majority vote in both houses of Congress and the president's signature
B) a two-thirds vote in both houses of Congress
C) a majority vote in both houses of Congress and a ruling by the Supreme Court that the measure is constitutional
D) a constitutional convention called by one-half of the state legislatures

b

23.
The Equal Rights Amendment
A) was formally approved by Congress and ratified by the states, becoming the Twenty-Seventh Amendment.
B) failed to receive approval in Congress and was never sent to the states.
C) was formally approved by Congress but failed to be ratified by three-quarters of the states.
D) None of the above

c

24.
The purpose of the first ten amendments was to
A) provide more power to the national government.
B) provide clear limitations on the powers of national government.
C) provide clear limitations on the powers of the state governments.
D) limit both the national and state governments.

b

25.
The Tenth Amendment
A) reserves power not granted to the states to the national government.
B) reserves power not granted to the national government to the states.
C) prohibits Congress from restricting freedom of speech.
D) prohibits the states from interfering with the national government.

b

26.
According to your text, _________ inevitably leads to the growth of political activity and the expansion of political participation.
A) equality
B) a political party
C) liberty
D) All of the above

c

27.
What is a limitation (drawback) of liberty as a political principle?
A) Limits on government action can inhibit effective government.
B) Government can use its power to allocate status and opportunity among groups.
C) Groups can use the political process to achieve economic and social gains.
D) None of the above

a

28.
___________ is a system of government in which states retain sovereign authority except for the powers expressly delegated to the national governments.
A) A constitution
B) A confederation
C) Federalism
D) Separation of powers

b

29.
______________ is a system of government in which power is divided, by a constitution, between a central government and regional governments.
A) A confederation
B) Separation of powers
C) A monarchy
D) Federalism

d

30.
One of the key underlying themes of the original Constitution was
A) recognizing the mistrust of people.
B) creating three branches of government that were all democratically elected.
C) making the government as efficient as possible.
D) promoting cooperation between branches of government.

d

31.
The Virginia Plan was favored by
A) small states, since it emphasized the importance of population.
B) large states, since it emphasized the importance of size and wealth.
C) small states, since it treated all states equally.
D) slave states, since it allowed slaves to be counted toward the population of the states.

b

32.
The Three-fifths Compromise dealt primarily with what issue?
A) A slave would count as three-fifths of a person when determining population.
B) Three-fifths of the states had to ratify the current constitution.
C) It now takes a three-fifths vote in Congress to propose constitutional amendments.

a

33.
Antifederalists wanted
A) to stay a British colony.
B) a more decentralized government.
C) more power in the hands of the national government.
D) the right to spit in their opponents' faces.

b

34.
When was our current constitution written?
A) 1776
B) 1787
C) 1812
D) 1920

b

35.
Proponents of the idea of the living Constitution argue that?
A) The judiciary is the institution best qualified to adjust the Constitution's principles to new problems and times.
B) Judges should adhere closely to the word of the document's text.
C) States should be able to amend the constitution with a majority vote.
D) Supreme Court justices should be popularly elected.

a

1.
Most of the rules and regulations Americans face in their daily lives are set by
A) state and local governments.
B) the federal government.
C) regulatory commissions.
D) the U.S. Supreme Court.

a

2.
Especially since the New Deal in the 1930s, ____________ has/have played a much more prominent role in protecting liberty and promoting equality.
A) the national government
B) state governments
C) county governments
D) city governments

a

3.
Over the course of American history, the federal government has _______ compared with state government.
A) grown stronger
B) grown weaker
C) remained the same
D) grown in tandem

a

4.
Which of the following best represents a unitary system of government?
A) The national government selects the textbooks and curriculum for all schools.
B) The national government establishes general guidelines for school policy.
C) The national government gives vouchers to parents for use in private schools
D) The national government makes funding for schools dependent on test scores.

a

5.
Which of the following statements best captures the meaning of the concept devolution of authority?
A) State governments have given the federal government more of their powers over time.
B) State governments have devolved to the point where they exercise very little power in the federal system.
C) City governments are now the premiere power brokers in national politics.
D) The national government grants the states more authority over a range of policies.

d

6.
The division of powers and functions between the national government and state governments is the definition of
A) confederation.
B) intergovernmental relations.
C) expressed powers.
D) federalism.

d

7.
Specific powers provided to the national government in the U.S. Constitution are called ____________ powers.
A) expressed
B) reserved
C) concurrent
D) defined

a

8.
McCulloch v. Maryland is an important case because
A) the Court interpreted the delegated powers of Congress broadly, creating the potential for increased national powers.
B) the court gave a very restricted definition of Congress's delegated powers, in keeping with the era of dual federalism.
C) the Court announced that dual federalism did not conform to the framers intent.
D) this case began the era of dual federalism.

a

9.
The power to declare war is an example of which type of power?
A) reserved
B) implied
C) concurrent
D) expressed

d

10.
The Constitution SPECIFICALLY grants Congress the power to do all of the following EXCEPT:
A) borrow money.
B) lay and collect taxes.
C) declare war.
D) charter a national bank.

d

11.
Gibbons v. Ogden in 1824 was important because it
A) gave the national government significant new authority to regulate interstate commerce.
B) established the principle of judicial review.
C) declared that interstate commerce was to be regulated by state governments.
D) established the principle of no fees on exports.

a

12.
States' rights advocates argue that
A) state governments' rights are subordinate to national government policies.
B) the elastic clause allows for expansion of states' rights.
C) only the national government can amend the U.S. Constitution.
D) states do not have to submit to national laws when they believe the national government exceeds its authority.

D

13.
Which provision allows cities a guarantee of noninterference in various local affairs by state governments?
A) home rule
B) referendum
C) initiative
D) merit system

a

14.
Which of the following statements about federalism is true?
A) Federalism is the most widely used method to divide powers among governmental units in the democracies of the world.
B) The U.S. system of federalism allows substantial inequalities to exist across the country.
C) Federalism and democracy are synonymous concepts.
D) The United States is the only federal system in the world.

b

15.
"State governments experiment with different policies to find measures that best meet the needs and desires of their citizens." This quote from your text best reflects which of these statements?
A) Unlike the federal government, state governments really never know which policies to pursue.
B) Unlike the federal government, state governments always seem to make the "right" policy decisions.
C) State governments can be viewed as laboratories of democracy.
D) The federal government makes policies that apply equally to all state governments.

c

16.
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A) For most of U.S. history, the national government was quite small by comparison both to state governments and to the governments of other Western nations.
B) For most of U.S. history, virtually all of the functions of the national government were aimed at assisting commerce.
C) For most of U.S. history, virtually none of the national government's policies directly coerced citizens.
D) For most of U.S. history, the national government followed a strict interpretation of interstate commerce.

d

17.
The Supreme Court ruling in United States v. Lopez is important because
A) it was the first time since the New Deal that the Supreme Court limited the power of Congress under the commerce clause.
B) it was the first time that the Court had ever used the Tenth Amendment to limit the power of Congress.
C) the Court found that citizens could not bring racial discrimination suits against state governments.
D) the court found the line-item veto to be unconstitutional.

a

18.
Implied powers or the necessary and proper clause allows
A) state governments to nullify national government laws.
B) the national government to interpret its delegated powers expansively.
C) for judicial review.
D) the national government to reserve powers to state governments.

b

19.
What is the purpose of the Tenth Amendment?
A) to give each state constitution the same protections as the federal constitution
B) to limit the powers of the central government by establishing reserved powers for states and individuals
C) to grant to the citizens of each state access to the federal court system
D) to establish the electoral college

b

20.
The New Deal of the 1930s signaled the rise of
A) a less active national government.
B) a more active national government.
C) unfunded mandates.
D) revenue sharing.

b

21.
By the year 1932, ____________ percent of the U.S. workforce was unemployed.
A) 10
B) 15
C) 20
D) 25

d

22.
The era of "New Federalism" began in the
A) 1950s.
B) 1960s.
C) 1970s.
D) 1980s.

c

23.
Which president is best known for his attempts to return power to the states?
A) Richard Nixon
B) George W. Bush
C) Jimmy Carter
D) Harry Truman

a

24.
Which of the following best exemplifies the doctrine of preemption?
A) welfare reform, which preempts states from giving benefits to some residents
B) federal criminalization of marijuana, even when states or cities allow medicinal use
C) federal regulations in which the cost is borne by the states
D) federal and state governments sharing the cost of a new highway

b

25.
The 1996 Welfare Reform Act is an example of "New Federalism" because,
A) the national government has tried "new" types of taxes to pay for it.
B) it reduced the restrictions on how states spend grant money.
C) it reduced the role of state governments in administering the program.
D) it increased the role of the federal government in the day-to-day operation of the programs.

b

26.
For three-quarters of American history, ____________ has/have done most of the fundamental governing.
A) state governments
B) local governments
C) the national government
D) the people directly

a

27.
What is a grant-in-aid?
A) Money provided by cities to state governments
B) Money appropriated by the national Congress to state and local governments
C) The major source of revenue for the national government
D) What the Department of War uses to fund military operations.

b

28.
In contrast to __________ federalism that defined America until the 1930s, since the New Deal, ____________ federalism has prevailed.
A) dual; cooperative
B) dual; layer-cake
C) cooperative; dual
D) cooperative; new

a

29.
Regulations or new conditions for receiving grants that impose costs on state and local governments for which they are not reimbursed by the national government is the definition of
A) preemption.
B) unfunded mandates.
C) fiscal federalism.
D) dual federalism.

b

30.
Which type of grant provides more control to state and local governments in the distribution of federal grants-in-aid?
A) formula
B) project
C) categorical
D) block

d

31.
Which of the following statements best captures the meaning of the concept regulated federalism?
A) State governments regulate how much personal income tax revenue they send to the national government.
B) In recent years the national government has created a large number of regulatory commissions primarily to monitor the policy performance of state governments.
C) The national government sets standards of conduct or requires the states to set standards that meet national guidelines.
D) The states act as watchdogs and regulate federal government grants-in-aid.

c

32.
Why did the framers of the Constitution limit the power of the federal government?
A) They disliked a bloated "big government."
B) They feared that federal government could be a guarantor of liberty.
C) They valued most the political principle of equality.
D) They were suspicious of centralized power.

d

33.
According to the text, what is one of the important arguments for a strong federal government?
A) its role in ensuring equality
B) its role in ensuring liberty
C) its role in allocating wealth to a particular group
D) None of the above

a

34.
When a state's laws conflict with federal law on international trade issues,
A) the state and federal governments enter negotiations to work out a compromise.
B) the World Trade Organization hears the case.
C) the state law is supreme, so the federal law is invalid.
D) the national government law is supreme, so the state law is invalid.

d

35.
One benefit of having a federal system is that
A) states can act as laboratories of democracy.
B) states have different needs and concerns.
C) it gives state and local governments more flexibility to handle problems.
D) All of these are benefits of federalism.

d

36.
Which of the following is a "traditional" area of national government responsibility?
A) defense
B) Social Security
C) welfare
D) FEMA

a

37.
During the course of American history, the federal government has _______ compared with the states.
A) grown stronger
B) grown weaker
C) remained the same
D) grown in tandem

a

38.
Which level of government is not addressed in the Constitution?
A) the national government
B) the states
C) cities
D) All of these are addressed in the Constitution.

c

39.
The process of transferring more responsibilities of governing from the national level to the state level is known as
A) preemption
B) full faith and commerce
C) devolution
D) dual federalism

c

40.
By 2008, how many states had some spousal rights for same sex partners via gay marriage or civil unions?
A) two
B) nine
C) forty one
D) none

b

41.
The Internet Tax Freedom Act that prohibits states and localities from taxing Internet access services is a good example of
A) preemption.
B) home rule.
C) devolution.
D) dual federalism.

a

1.
More than ____________ of the daily newspapers in the United States are owned by large conglomerates such as the Hearst or Gannett corporations.
A) one-quarter
B) one-half
C) three-quarters
D) 90 percent

c

2.
In the United States, there are only three truly national newspapers. Which of the following is NOT one of the newspapers?
A) the Wall Street Journal
B) the Christian Science Monitor
C) USA Today
D) the Washington Post

d

3.
According to the text, the new liberal network Air America Radio was created in order to
A) continue the dominance of liberal talk radio.
B) combat the conservative dominance of American media.
C) combat conservative dominance of talk radio.
D) give the in-depth coverage of issues that only radio can give.

c

4.
American radio and television are regulated by
A) state governments.
B) the Federal Communications Commission.
C) local governments.
D) All of the above

b

5.
Broadcasters must provide candidates running for the same political office equal opportunities to communicate their messages to the public. This is the
A) equal time rule.
B) right to rebuttal rule.
C) fairness doctrine.
D) equal access rule.

a

6.
The process by which a relatively similar picture of events, issues, and problems is presented to the entire nation is referred to as
A) news enclaves.
B) privatization of the news.
C) nationalization of the news.
D) None of the above

c

7.
The Telecommunications Act of 1996 was an attempt to do all of the following EXCEPT
A) loosen federal restrictions of media ownership.
B) allow broadcasters, telephone companies, and cable companies to compete with one another.
C) ban indecent sexual material accessible to minors on the Internet.
D) All of the following were parts of the act.

d

8.
The FCC requires broadcasters to provide individuals the right to respond to personal attacks, which is known as the
A) equal time rule.
B) right of rebuttal.
C) fairness doctrine.
D) None of the above

b

9.
Most of the news on the Internet is
A) news events uncovered by amateur news sleuths.
B) in-depth stories provided by TV networks to enhance their evening news programs.
C) electronic versions of what is already in print.
D) from foreign news agencies.

c

10.
Which of the following is a federally licensed media outlet?
A) the NBC network
B) Newsweek magazine
C) New York Times
D) Slate magazine on the Internet

a

11.
The FCC's fairness doctrine
A) is no longer in effect.
B) is strictly enforced.
C) is enforced only during presidential campaigns.
D) applies only to cable television.

a

12.
Advertising in the mass media is heavily skewed toward
A) working-class families because there are so many of them.
B) upscale, well-educated, and affluent consumers because they have money.
C) the age group of 15 to 21-year-olds because they have jobs and allowances.
D) the public in general, without targeting special groups.

b

13.
Slate magazine, ActBlue, and Facebook illustrate
A) the growing influence of the internet in American media.
B) the liberal dominance of the mainstream media.
C) the power of the mainstream media to affect election outcomes.
D) All of the above

a

14.
Which of the following factors influences the interpretation a news story receives from the media?
A) the audience of the news
B) journalists and producers
C) the sources or topics of the news
D) All of these affect the interpretation of the news.

d

15.
The media frenzy over the Monica Lewinsky scandal is evidence that
A) the media is not at all liberal.
B) the conservative media has more influence on public opinion than any other group.
C) the power of the media is declining.
D) the media's bias is more oriented to entertainment than ideology.

d

16.
According to the authors of the text, today most publishers
A) are most concerned with editorial content.
B) are business people and are more concerned with business operations than editorial content.
C) dictate a particular political bias that the media should promulgate.
D) have a liberal political ideology. B

b

17.
Which of the following best describes the relationship between the government and the media in the United States today?
A) The government controls most of the media content through regulations and tightly controlled press briefings.
B) The government owns, but does not control, the major sources of media.
C) The government does not own, but regulates, the content and the ownership of broadcast media.
D) Broadcast media are not regulated in the United States.

C

18.
"Although they represent only a small percentage of the population, individuals under the age of fifty whose family income is in the 80th percentile or better account for nearly 50 percent of the retail dollars spent on consumer goods in the United States." This statement supports the authors' contention that
A) the print and broadcast media cater to the preferences of consumers.
B) the media cater to the upscale segments of their audiences.
C) the media attempt to understand the tastes and preferences of consumers.
D) All of the above

D

19.
According to the text, what must Americans tolerate to guarantee the maintenance of a democratic society?
A) Politicians will occasionally abuse their power.
B) The media will occasionally abuse their power.
C) Judges will occasionally abuse their power.
D) All of the above

B

20.
Which of the following events do the authors NOT use to illustrate the power of the media in U.S. politics?
A) the civil rights movement
B) ending American involvement in the Vietnam War
C) Watergate
D) the savings and loan scandal

D

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