HC-130 RQS Loadmaster MQF

Created by DempseyTriple 

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Master Question File

True or False? During starting and operation of the GTC, personnel must stand clear of compressor air intake and exhaust and plane of rotation of turbine and compressor.

True

True or False? It is allowed to use circuit breakers as switches?

False

The Utility Hydraulic System has a __ gallon reservoir mounted on the left side of the cargo compartment, operates from the output of the number one and two engine driven hydraulic pumps, and will maintain approximately 3,000 PSI output pressure.

7 Gallon

The utility system normally operates the ____?

Landing gear, flaps, normal brakes, nosewheel steering, a portion of the surface control boost system, flare launchers, and air refueling system reels.

The Booster Hydraulic System has a __ gallon reservoir mounted on the right side of the cargo compartment, operates from the output of the number three and number four engine driven hydraulic pumps, and will maintain approximately 3,000PSI output pressure.

2 Gallon

The Auxiliary Hydraulic system has a __ gallon reservoir mounted in the cargo compartment, operates from an electrically driven hydraulic pump, and will maintain approximately 3,000 PSI output pressure.

6.22 Gallons

The Auxiliary Hydraulic System supplies hydraulic pressure to operate the ____?

Aft cargo door and ramp, emergency main landing gear brake and nose gear emergency extension.

If the Auxiliary Hydraulic Pump switch is turned off, allow at least ___ seconds for the accummulator to discharge before turning pump switch back on. Failure to do this will overload the motor and open the circuit breaker.

10 seconds

When the switch is held in the ____ position, hydraulic pressure is directed to the open side of the aft cargo door actuating cylinders to relieve the load on the up-locks. After approximately ___ seconds, hydraulic pressure is then directed to the aft cargo door up-lock cylinders unlatching the up-locks.

Close/2

True or False. When operating ramp control, ensure ramp control valve rotary handle is rotated in a counterclockwise direction. Rotating handle in a clockwise direction will reverse ramp lock sequence.

False

Position 4 on the ramp control knob ___ .

raises the ramp

The flare launch tubes should not be loaded/unloaded while the airplane is taxiing.

True

Prior to loading the flare launcher tubes, open the manally operated hydraulic shutoff valve (located approximately at FS ___ ). This will allow jettisoning of flare/smoke manually in the event of accidental ignition during loading operations.

FS850 left side

Leave the Flare Launching switch in the FIRE position for approximately _______ seconds to ensure flare deployment, or visually check the flare launch tube to ensure the flare has physically departed the flare tube.

30 Seconds

The oxygen system operates at an indicated pressure of _______ PSI in a static system under a no-flow condition.

270-455 psi

On a HC-130P, there are _______ Type MA-1 portable oxygen units provided for use by crewmembers at high altitudes to facilitate movement within the airplane or for emergencies.

10

The HC-130P is equipped with _______ hand-operated fire extinguishers. _______ extinguisher(s) is/are located on the flight station and _______ extinguishers are located in the cargo compartment.

4/1/3

What is appropriate procedure to follow when using the Halon Fire Extinguisher?

A. Hold in a vertical position, about 8 feet from fire
B. Remove pull-ring pin and aim nozzle at base of fire
C. Squeeze lever and sweep agent across base of fire

There is/are _______ hand axe(s) installed on the HC-130P.

2

An inertia switch in each emergency exit light assembly actuates the light when the airplane is subjected to a ______________ force exceeding ______________ g's.

decelerating / 2.5

An emergency escape rope is installed ______________ each overhead escape hatch.

aft of

On airplanes that have a paratroop jump door observation seat, it is permissible to be occupied for takeoffs and landings.

False

It is permissible to store hot cups in receptacles.

False

The two single fold up bunks may be used without the bunks safety straps installed.

False

Unless specifically allowed, do not initiate any checklist until called for by the ___________.

pilot

Should any crewmember note a condition which would necessitate discontinuing an engine start, they shall call out "______________" and state the reason.

Stop Start

Personnel will not be in the vicinity of or go through the static propeller arc (bleed air on or off) unless absolutely necessary in the performance of duties.

True

What is the alarm bell signal for abandon the airplane (Ground Evacuation)?

One long sustained ring

What is the alarm bell signal for ditching or crash landing imminent?

Six short rings

Three short rings followed by one long sustained ring on the emergency alarm bells means ____________.

bailout

What is the alarm bell signal for "brace for impact"?

One long sustained ring

On a HC-130P, emergency chopping locations are painted on each side of the fuselage _______________ of the paratroop jump doors.

above and forward

If a main wheel well fire exists, or if hot brakes are suspected, chock ______________.

the nose wheel only

Do not approach the main wheel well area when extreme temperatures due to excessive braking are suspected. If conditions require personnel to be close to an overheated wheel or tire assembly, the approach should be from the ______________ only.

fore or aft

If a fuselage fire/smoke and fume condition occurs with passengers aboard, and oxygen equipment is not available for them, descend to a safe altitude before depressurizing the airplane.

True

What action should the crew take with regard to pyrotechnics when there is a fire in the aft fuselage area in flight.

The pilot should direct the loadmaster to jettison the pyrotechnics, and direct the copilot to fire all flares in the flare launcher.

When manually extending the main landing gear, make sure the ratchet on the handcrank is set for _______ rotation before placing it on the emergency extension stub shaft.

down

If main landing gear does not free fall, place extension handcrank on the emergency extension stub shaft and rotate approximately 330 turns _____ for lowering the left main gear, or _____ for lowering the right main gear.

clockwise, counterclockwise

When you land with an unsafe nose gear, where do you place the chocks?

In front of the nose wheels

The airplane is serviceable for landing, taxiing, or towing if the measurement between the lower shelf bracket (bracket movable assembly) which attaches the drag pin to the strut and the upper surface of the shelf bracket does not exceed _______ inches after landing.

.7

The airplane is serviceable for landing, taxiing, or towing if the measurement between the lower shelf bracket which attaches the drag pin to the strut and the upper surface of the shelf bracket does not exceed _______ inches in flight.

.5

The Main Landing Gear (MLG) Tiedown Fixture will be used as the primary method of securing the landing gear.

False

For main landing gear tiedown, if 25,000 pound chains are not available, _______ tiedown devices and _______ 10,000 pound chain segments, forming two chain loops are required to tiedown each pair of opposite struts.

3 / 7

Jettison of large heavy palletized or unpalletized cargo resting on the floor should be attempted only as a last resort.

True

If the ramp locks fail to lock in flight after completing the prescribed emergency procedures, leave the ramp control knob in position _______ before turning the pump back on for the remainder of the flight.

4

Relatively lightweight cargo should be jettisoned by hand. Use the paratroop door if the ramp and cargo door cannot be opened.

True

It is recommended that pallets weighing less than ______ pounds not be jettisoned.

2,500 lbs.

Do not shift cargo in flight except when necessary to maintain airplane control.

True

Over water bailout avoids the numerous risks associated with ditching. Therefore, ditching must be considered as a ______________ and attempted only when conditions are ______________ or there is no other alternative.

last resort / ideal

The order of preference for bailout exits are _______, _______, and _______.

cargo door and ramp / paratroop doors / forward crew door

Bailout from the crew entrance door is not recommended at airspeeds above _______ knots, with the landing gear extended, or without a helmet.

150

The primary ground evacuation route for personnel sitting in either the left or the right front scanner seat is out the paratroop door.

True

During gear up landing or nose gear retracted landings, open and secure the _______ and the _______.

emergency escape hatches / paratroop doors

If landing with nose gear retracted, and cargo can be safely moved, shift it to a maximum allowable aft center of gravity limitation computed for the airplane gross weight.

True

If ditching occurs (no passengers), all crewmembers will normally board the ______________ liferaft.

Left inboard

When ditching, the loadmaster will provide ______________.

flashlight, first aid kit, water containers

What is the loadmaster's position for ditching?

troop seat forward of right paratroop door

Side emergency exits and flight station hinged windows are usable exits during all ditching situations.

False

With the escape ladder installed, it is impossible to exit the airplane from the center escape hatch using the right side of the ladder.

False

After ditching, the loadmaster will pull the life raft release handles through their full travel, for complete ejection and inflation of the liferaft.

True

Normal hydraulic system pressure for the Utility and Booster systems is _______ to ________ with a max of 3500 PSI. The aux system limits are 2900 to 3300 with a max of 3500 PSI.

2900, 3200

If upon entering the airplane, fumes are present and suspected of being flammable or toxic, you may proceed with the preflight provided you do not apply power to the aircraft.

False

Each installed fuselage fuel tank will be checked as follows. There must be _______ of the _______ bolts installed.

16/28

The emergency exit light at the center overhead escape hatch will be armed ______________.

if escape ladder is installed

The beaded chains on the static line retriever winch (western gear) will be of equal length and a minimum length of _______ and a maximum of _______ (inside to inside).

4 3/4 inches / 5 inches

After starting engines, the loadmaster will ensure the ______________ prior to entering the airplane.

surrounding area is clear of obstructions

During the Infiltration/Exfiltration checklist, the LM will self initiate and relay the "Prepare to land" call to the user when the navigator states _____ feet AGL.

100

HAAR Astern position is defined as ___________.

the stabilized formation position behind the AAR equipment (approximately 5 ft directly aft of the drogue) with zero rate of closure.

A hard hose is defined as a hose condition in which hose slack is not properly taken up on contact. Any resulting hose whip is likely to damage the receiver's probe.

True

Inadvertent Disconnect (HAAR only) is known as an unplanned disconnect, at which time the receiver moves to astern position (or as briefed) to await further instructions from the tanker.

True

What helicopter position is known as a position to the left or right of the tanker, outboard of the wingtip and slightly above and behind the tanker horizontal stabilizer.

Observation

The term used by tanker and receiver aircrews when referring to a Practice Breakaway, prior to accomplishing the manoeuvre is _______________.

Practice Emergency Separation

What term is used when the probe strikes the rim or periphery of the drogue but does no damage.

rim

A soft contact is when the probe has not fully engaged in the drogue.

True

What call is made when the receiver has damaged the drogue.

spokes

The term tanker abeam is when the receiver is _________ of the tanker's 9 o'clock position during join-up.

aft

During initial radio contact (EMCON 1 and 2), tanker and receiver aircrews will confirm
the altimeter setting and identify any changes to the mission briefing.

True

If a crossover is required, the receiver pilot will move to the outside of the tanker wingtip, ____ ft aft of the horizontal stabilizer, and increase altitude to a minimum of _____ ft above the tanker's vertical stabilizer.

100 / 50

Before initiating a turn at night, the tanker pilot must confirm the receiver is established in either the observation or the refueling position.

True

Unless ___________, receiver crews will not attempt probe-to-drogue contact in a turn at night.

an emergency fuel condition exists

Contact with a malfunctioning drogue that is rotating at greater than ____ revolution per second may damage the probe nozzle lock ring; a ____________ rotating drogue could result in partial or complete unthreading of the probe nozzle.

1 / clockwise

A normal disconnect position for a receiver is approximately ____ to ____ ft above the contact position.

5, 10

A small amount of fuel spray from the nozzle and receptacle during fuel transfer requires fuel transfer to be terminated. The tanker and/or receiver pilot(s) should be notified if this condition exists.

False

Under normal circumstances two receivers will not __________ simultaneously or fly in the __________ position at the same time.

disconnect / astern

For EMCON 2-4 HAAR, receivers ____ flash their formation/position lights ____ sec prior to
movement for disconnect. This procedure may be briefed otherwise for single hose
operations.

will / 5

When an emergency condition exists that requires immediate separation of aircraft, the tanker will call
________________________________________and hose assignment pertaining to the receiver required to breakaway.

"BREAKAWAY, BREAKAWAY, BREAKAWAY" preceded by the tanker call sign

Tankers and receivers will begin monitoring designated radio frequencies and will have electronic rendezvous equipment operating at no less than _______ minutes prior to ARCT.

10

For _______ and _______, light signals will be used to pass Breakaway Call.

EMCON 3 / EMCON 4

During HAAR, one white light from tanker to receiver indicates ________.

proceed to observation

During HAAR, two white lights from tanker to receiver indicates ___________.

crossover to observation

During HAAR, one amber light from tanker to receiver indicates ____________.

prepare to turn

During HAAR, multiple red lights from tanker to receiver indicates ___________.

breakaway

During HAAR, two amber lights from tanker to receiver indicates _____________.

tanker is unable to pass fuel; go to spare tanker

During HAAR, one green light from tanker to receiver indicates ___________.

clear to contact and/or crossover

During HAAR, when receiver disconnects, manoeuvres outboard of hose, and emits one steady light from the receiver to tanker indicates _____________________.

reset reel response

During HAAR, the receiver remaining in contact or emitting a flashing light after flashing a steady light indicate _______________.

more fuel is required

When performing HAAR, a single flash is ____ second(s) in duration and given with an Aldis lamp, flashlight, signal light panel, search/landing light, etc.

2

A receiver with an extended probe with the visible landing or search light ON (IR for NVG operations), and IFF on EMERGENCY indicate an emergency fuel requirement exists and secure communications will be used if available.

True

The refueling range on the HC-130 is _____ to _____ meters.

17.1 / 23.2 (56 - 76 ft)

When hose slack and whip occur and are observed by the tanker scanner or reported by the receiver pilot, the receiver will be instructed to return to the ___________ position.

observation

On some occasions, a hose may not retract fully when the drogue assembly engages the Teflon on the pod. In this case, after full extension of the hose, the loadmaster will call "DROGUE APPROACHING THE POD" when the _______ foot white band enters the pod.

56 ft.

During the POST AIR REFUELING checklist (HAR), what position must the receivers be in before the loadmaster can call the receiver "CLEAR'?

clear of the tanker refueling hose(s) (no closer than the observation position)

If the utility hydraulic system fails, the hose and drogue can be extended by emergency means. Reel response will be lost and the hose will not rewind.

True

The hydraulic shut-off valves for the left and right air refueling systems are located _____ of the left wheel well area.

aft

When using EMERGENCY HOSE EXTENSION AND REFUELING procedures, after notifying the receiver of the emergency, ensure the area behind the aircraft is clear before using the procedure.

True

Breakage of the hose may result in a long thin wire trailing from the hose pod that may endanger the helicopter if they make an observation pass to look for damage. Do not guillotine jettison this wire if a visible fuel leak is present.

True

Any crewmember observing the loss of a drogue or breakage of a refueling hose will immediately

notify the tanker flight engineer

If it is determined that less than ____________ of hose and drogue remain extended and operation below 130 KIAS does not impair mission operations, hose jettisoning is not mandatory and will be at the discretion of the pilot.

7 feet

When landing with a hose(s) extended, the pilot should fly a normal approach and landing (800-3,000 feet down the runway), on the side of the runway opposite the extended hose, not using reverse on landing roll, with the loadmaster(s) in position to observe the hose(s). When the loadmaster indicates the hose has stopped flying, brake the aircraft to a stop and do not taxi off the runway until the hose(s) can be secured, either in the aircraft through the paratroop doors, or in a vehicle.

True

Vehicle treadways on aircraft AF 56-510 and up are _______ inches wide and installed _______ inches apart

35/30

On the floor of the ramp and mounted on the sides of the cargo compartment are fittings with a capacity of ______-pounds.

5,000

When loading a vehicle the internal tire pressure should not exceed _______ PSI. Pneumatic tires with internal tire pressure exceeding _______ PSI are considered hard rubber tires.

100/100

On the cargo compartment floor, recessed ______ -pound capacity tiedown fittings are set into a symmetrical pattern 20 inches apart.

10,000

The load limit for one truck-loading ramp is _______ pounds. When using one truck loading ramp only, place it on the ramp as close as possible to the centerline.

12,500

The maximum load allowed on steel or aluminum bridge plates is _______ pounds per plate. Ensure the ramp is supported prior to onloading/offloading more than 2000 pounds.

7,500

Bridge plate(s) shall not be installed until after vehicle is in position for on/off loading.

True

The maximum load that may be imposed on the auxiliary ground loading ramps is _______ pounds per wheel.

6,500

The maximum load that may be imposed on the auxiliary ground loading ramps is _______ pounds per axle.

13,000

It is permissible for two axles to contact the auxiliary ground loading ramp simultaneously. Items with axles less than _______ inches apart are considered one axle.

48

Each Bi-Fold Auxiliary ramp weighs _______ lbs and shall be handled by at least _______ people to prevent personal injury.

155/2

A Bi-Fold Auxiliary ramp with a non-operational jettison handle shall only be used for static load training.

True

When normal use limitations of the Bi-Fold Auxiliary ramps are exceeded during a mission, ______________.

enter the following statement in the aircraft forms: " Bi-Fold Auxiliary ramps (enter serial number of set) normal load limits exceeded. Inspection required prior to next use".

The maximum load that may be imposed on Bi-Fold Auxiliary ramp for normal use is _______ pounds per set, or _______ pounds for contingency or exercise operations.

10,000 / 13,000

Ramp support must be used when loading/unloading more than ______ pounds across the ramp.

2,000

The HCU-9/A cargo winch weighs _______ lbs.

290

The cargo winch internal snatch block is stowed in accordance with command directives and is rated at a maximum capacity of _______ pounds.

13,000

The pry bar can be used anywhere on the cargo compartment or ramp floor without shoring provided the weight on the pry bar does not exceed _______ pounds.

2,000

Personnel and CDS airdrops shall not be conducted with an inverted static-line retriever.

True

The minimum size anchor cable stop to be used on the anchor cable is __________ inch.

3/8

Tiedown equipment, baggage, winch power cables, etc. shall not be hung from the anchor cable or U-bolts.

True

Static line retrievers may be used to winch cargo loads.

False

Each right-hand dual rail detent latch provides a constant forward restraining force of _______ pounds and a variable aft restraining force of up to _______ pounds.

20,000 / 4,000

Each left-hand dual rail detent latch provides a constant restraining force of _______ pounds forward and _______ pounds aft.

20,000 / 10,000

The ramp dual-rail detents will restrain up to _______ pounds.

5,000

The maximum weight that may be placed on the dual-rail guard assemblies is _______ pounds.

250

Ensure that No. _______ lock cover doors are closed prior to operating paratroop doors.

11

The capacity of the dual rail mounted cargo tiedown rings on sections 1 through 6B (floor) is _______ pounds, sections 7 and 8 (ramp) are limited to _______ pounds.

10,000 / 5,000

On aircraft except MC-130H, an overboard vent is located at FS _____ on the left side of the aircraft, approximately _____ inches above the floor.

642 / 36

Items requiring venting shall be in accordance with ___________________________.

TO 37C2-8-1-127

When the overboard vent is used to vent fuel, a write-up shall be entered in the Form ____, "Overboard vent at FS 642 is contaminated by fuel. Do not use to vent liquid oxygen until cleaned in accordance with T.O. 37C2-8-1-127".

781A

Wrapping the webbing at least one and one-half turns around the spindle of the tightening device on the CGU-1/B tiedown device ______ provide sufficient friction to prevent slipping.

should

The ground test valve shall be closed prior to manually opening the aft cargo door and ramp.

True

Prior to operating the auxiliary hydraulic system electrically driven pump, check the position of the ground test valve. If the valve is open, check with the flight engineer/maintenance personnel before turning on the pump.

True

It is permissible to manually open the aft cargo door and ramp with the ground test valve open.

False

The auxiliary ground loading ramps may be left installed and secured for flight ______________.

when mission requirements dictate

When inspecting canary slides, each ramp must have at least one operational safety latch/lanyard installed.

True

Walking on seat back support beams is allowed.

False

It is okay to jettison pallets with sections 5B and 6B removed.

False

With dual rails ______________, bolts must be installed in floor anchor points at the following locations prior to flight: C-130A aircraft AF56-0510 and up, and all other aircraft - FS 397, 477, 517, 597, 617, 677, and ramp locations near tiedown rings 30A and 30G.

installed/removed

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