True or False? During starting and operation of the GTC, personnel must stand clear of compressor air intake and exhaust and plane of rotation of turbine and compressor.
The Utility Hydraulic System has a __ gallon reservoir mounted on the left side of the cargo compartment, operates from the output of the number one and two engine driven hydraulic pumps, and will maintain approximately 3,000 PSI output pressure.
The utility system normally operates the ____?
Landing gear, flaps, normal brakes, nosewheel steering, a portion of the surface control boost system, flare launchers, and air refueling system reels.
The Booster Hydraulic System has a __ gallon reservoir mounted on the right side of the cargo compartment, operates from the output of the number three and number four engine driven hydraulic pumps, and will maintain approximately 3,000PSI output pressure.
The Auxiliary Hydraulic system has a __ gallon reservoir mounted in the cargo compartment, operates from an electrically driven hydraulic pump, and will maintain approximately 3,000 PSI output pressure.
The Auxiliary Hydraulic System supplies hydraulic pressure to operate the ____?
Aft cargo door and ramp, emergency main landing gear brake and nose gear emergency extension.
If the Auxiliary Hydraulic Pump switch is turned off, allow at least ___ seconds for the accummulator to discharge before turning pump switch back on. Failure to do this will overload the motor and open the circuit breaker.
When the switch is held in the ____ position, hydraulic pressure is directed to the open side of the aft cargo door actuating cylinders to relieve the load on the up-locks. After approximately ___ seconds, hydraulic pressure is then directed to the aft cargo door up-lock cylinders unlatching the up-locks.
True or False. When operating ramp control, ensure ramp control valve rotary handle is rotated in a counterclockwise direction. Rotating handle in a clockwise direction will reverse ramp lock sequence.
Prior to loading the flare launcher tubes, open the manally operated hydraulic shutoff valve (located approximately at FS ___ ). This will allow jettisoning of flare/smoke manually in the event of accidental ignition during loading operations.
FS850 left side
Leave the Flare Launching switch in the FIRE position for approximately _______ seconds to ensure flare deployment, or visually check the flare launch tube to ensure the flare has physically departed the flare tube.
The oxygen system operates at an indicated pressure of _______ PSI in a static system under a no-flow condition.
On a HC-130P, there are _______ Type MA-1 portable oxygen units provided for use by crewmembers at high altitudes to facilitate movement within the airplane or for emergencies.
The HC-130P is equipped with _______ hand-operated fire extinguishers. _______ extinguisher(s) is/are located on the flight station and _______ extinguishers are located in the cargo compartment.
What is appropriate procedure to follow when using the Halon Fire Extinguisher?
A. Hold in a vertical position, about 8 feet from fire
B. Remove pull-ring pin and aim nozzle at base of fire
C. Squeeze lever and sweep agent across base of fire
An inertia switch in each emergency exit light assembly actuates the light when the airplane is subjected to a ______________ force exceeding ______________ g's.
decelerating / 2.5
On airplanes that have a paratroop jump door observation seat, it is permissible to be occupied for takeoffs and landings.
Unless specifically allowed, do not initiate any checklist until called for by the ___________.
Should any crewmember note a condition which would necessitate discontinuing an engine start, they shall call out "______________" and state the reason.
Personnel will not be in the vicinity of or go through the static propeller arc (bleed air on or off) unless absolutely necessary in the performance of duties.
Three short rings followed by one long sustained ring on the emergency alarm bells means ____________.
On a HC-130P, emergency chopping locations are painted on each side of the fuselage _______________ of the paratroop jump doors.
above and forward
If a main wheel well fire exists, or if hot brakes are suspected, chock ______________.
the nose wheel only
Do not approach the main wheel well area when extreme temperatures due to excessive braking are suspected. If conditions require personnel to be close to an overheated wheel or tire assembly, the approach should be from the ______________ only.
fore or aft
If a fuselage fire/smoke and fume condition occurs with passengers aboard, and oxygen equipment is not available for them, descend to a safe altitude before depressurizing the airplane.
What action should the crew take with regard to pyrotechnics when there is a fire in the aft fuselage area in flight.
The pilot should direct the loadmaster to jettison the pyrotechnics, and direct the copilot to fire all flares in the flare launcher.
When manually extending the main landing gear, make sure the ratchet on the handcrank is set for _______ rotation before placing it on the emergency extension stub shaft.
If main landing gear does not free fall, place extension handcrank on the emergency extension stub shaft and rotate approximately 330 turns _____ for lowering the left main gear, or _____ for lowering the right main gear.
The airplane is serviceable for landing, taxiing, or towing if the measurement between the lower shelf bracket (bracket movable assembly) which attaches the drag pin to the strut and the upper surface of the shelf bracket does not exceed _______ inches after landing.
The airplane is serviceable for landing, taxiing, or towing if the measurement between the lower shelf bracket which attaches the drag pin to the strut and the upper surface of the shelf bracket does not exceed _______ inches in flight.
The Main Landing Gear (MLG) Tiedown Fixture will be used as the primary method of securing the landing gear.
For main landing gear tiedown, if 25,000 pound chains are not available, _______ tiedown devices and _______ 10,000 pound chain segments, forming two chain loops are required to tiedown each pair of opposite struts.
3 / 7
Jettison of large heavy palletized or unpalletized cargo resting on the floor should be attempted only as a last resort.
If the ramp locks fail to lock in flight after completing the prescribed emergency procedures, leave the ramp control knob in position _______ before turning the pump back on for the remainder of the flight.
Relatively lightweight cargo should be jettisoned by hand. Use the paratroop door if the ramp and cargo door cannot be opened.
Over water bailout avoids the numerous risks associated with ditching. Therefore, ditching must be considered as a ______________ and attempted only when conditions are ______________ or there is no other alternative.
last resort / ideal
The order of preference for bailout exits are _______, _______, and _______.
cargo door and ramp / paratroop doors / forward crew door
Bailout from the crew entrance door is not recommended at airspeeds above _______ knots, with the landing gear extended, or without a helmet.
The primary ground evacuation route for personnel sitting in either the left or the right front scanner seat is out the paratroop door.
During gear up landing or nose gear retracted landings, open and secure the _______ and the _______.
emergency escape hatches / paratroop doors
If landing with nose gear retracted, and cargo can be safely moved, shift it to a maximum allowable aft center of gravity limitation computed for the airplane gross weight.
If ditching occurs (no passengers), all crewmembers will normally board the ______________ liferaft.
When ditching, the loadmaster will provide ______________.
flashlight, first aid kit, water containers
Side emergency exits and flight station hinged windows are usable exits during all ditching situations.
With the escape ladder installed, it is impossible to exit the airplane from the center escape hatch using the right side of the ladder.
After ditching, the loadmaster will pull the life raft release handles through their full travel, for complete ejection and inflation of the liferaft.
Normal hydraulic system pressure for the Utility and Booster systems is _______ to ________ with a max of 3500 PSI. The aux system limits are 2900 to 3300 with a max of 3500 PSI.
If upon entering the airplane, fumes are present and suspected of being flammable or toxic, you may proceed with the preflight provided you do not apply power to the aircraft.
Each installed fuselage fuel tank will be checked as follows. There must be _______ of the _______ bolts installed.
The emergency exit light at the center overhead escape hatch will be armed ______________.
if escape ladder is installed
The beaded chains on the static line retriever winch (western gear) will be of equal length and a minimum length of _______ and a maximum of _______ (inside to inside).
4 3/4 inches / 5 inches
After starting engines, the loadmaster will ensure the ______________ prior to entering the airplane.
surrounding area is clear of obstructions
During the Infiltration/Exfiltration checklist, the LM will self initiate and relay the "Prepare to land" call to the user when the navigator states _____ feet AGL.
HAAR Astern position is defined as ___________.
the stabilized formation position behind the AAR equipment (approximately 5 ft directly aft of the drogue) with zero rate of closure.
A hard hose is defined as a hose condition in which hose slack is not properly taken up on contact. Any resulting hose whip is likely to damage the receiver's probe.
Inadvertent Disconnect (HAAR only) is known as an unplanned disconnect, at which time the receiver moves to astern position (or as briefed) to await further instructions from the tanker.
What helicopter position is known as a position to the left or right of the tanker, outboard of the wingtip and slightly above and behind the tanker horizontal stabilizer.
The term used by tanker and receiver aircrews when referring to a Practice Breakaway, prior to accomplishing the manoeuvre is _______________.
Practice Emergency Separation
The term tanker abeam is when the receiver is _________ of the tanker's 9 o'clock position during join-up.
During initial radio contact (EMCON 1 and 2), tanker and receiver aircrews will confirm
the altimeter setting and identify any changes to the mission briefing.
If a crossover is required, the receiver pilot will move to the outside of the tanker wingtip, ____ ft aft of the horizontal stabilizer, and increase altitude to a minimum of _____ ft above the tanker's vertical stabilizer.
100 / 50
Before initiating a turn at night, the tanker pilot must confirm the receiver is established in either the observation or the refueling position.
Unless ___________, receiver crews will not attempt probe-to-drogue contact in a turn at night.
an emergency fuel condition exists
Contact with a malfunctioning drogue that is rotating at greater than ____ revolution per second may damage the probe nozzle lock ring; a ____________ rotating drogue could result in partial or complete unthreading of the probe nozzle.
1 / clockwise
A normal disconnect position for a receiver is approximately ____ to ____ ft above the contact position.
A small amount of fuel spray from the nozzle and receptacle during fuel transfer requires fuel transfer to be terminated. The tanker and/or receiver pilot(s) should be notified if this condition exists.
Under normal circumstances two receivers will not __________ simultaneously or fly in the __________ position at the same time.
disconnect / astern
For EMCON 2-4 HAAR, receivers ____ flash their formation/position lights ____ sec prior to
movement for disconnect. This procedure may be briefed otherwise for single hose
will / 5
When an emergency condition exists that requires immediate separation of aircraft, the tanker will call
________________________________________and hose assignment pertaining to the receiver required to breakaway.
"BREAKAWAY, BREAKAWAY, BREAKAWAY" preceded by the tanker call sign
Tankers and receivers will begin monitoring designated radio frequencies and will have electronic rendezvous equipment operating at no less than _______ minutes prior to ARCT.
During HAAR, two white lights from tanker to receiver indicates ___________.
crossover to observation
During HAAR, two amber lights from tanker to receiver indicates _____________.
tanker is unable to pass fuel; go to spare tanker
During HAAR, one green light from tanker to receiver indicates ___________.
clear to contact and/or crossover
During HAAR, when receiver disconnects, manoeuvres outboard of hose, and emits one steady light from the receiver to tanker indicates _____________________.
reset reel response
During HAAR, the receiver remaining in contact or emitting a flashing light after flashing a steady light indicate _______________.
more fuel is required
When performing HAAR, a single flash is ____ second(s) in duration and given with an Aldis lamp, flashlight, signal light panel, search/landing light, etc.
A receiver with an extended probe with the visible landing or search light ON (IR for NVG operations), and IFF on EMERGENCY indicate an emergency fuel requirement exists and secure communications will be used if available.
When hose slack and whip occur and are observed by the tanker scanner or reported by the receiver pilot, the receiver will be instructed to return to the ___________ position.
On some occasions, a hose may not retract fully when the drogue assembly engages the Teflon on the pod. In this case, after full extension of the hose, the loadmaster will call "DROGUE APPROACHING THE POD" when the _______ foot white band enters the pod.
During the POST AIR REFUELING checklist (HAR), what position must the receivers be in before the loadmaster can call the receiver "CLEAR'?
clear of the tanker refueling hose(s) (no closer than the observation position)
If the utility hydraulic system fails, the hose and drogue can be extended by emergency means. Reel response will be lost and the hose will not rewind.
The hydraulic shut-off valves for the left and right air refueling systems are located _____ of the left wheel well area.
When using EMERGENCY HOSE EXTENSION AND REFUELING procedures, after notifying the receiver of the emergency, ensure the area behind the aircraft is clear before using the procedure.
Breakage of the hose may result in a long thin wire trailing from the hose pod that may endanger the helicopter if they make an observation pass to look for damage. Do not guillotine jettison this wire if a visible fuel leak is present.
Any crewmember observing the loss of a drogue or breakage of a refueling hose will immediately
notify the tanker flight engineer
If it is determined that less than ____________ of hose and drogue remain extended and operation below 130 KIAS does not impair mission operations, hose jettisoning is not mandatory and will be at the discretion of the pilot.
When landing with a hose(s) extended, the pilot should fly a normal approach and landing (800-3,000 feet down the runway), on the side of the runway opposite the extended hose, not using reverse on landing roll, with the loadmaster(s) in position to observe the hose(s). When the loadmaster indicates the hose has stopped flying, brake the aircraft to a stop and do not taxi off the runway until the hose(s) can be secured, either in the aircraft through the paratroop doors, or in a vehicle.
Vehicle treadways on aircraft AF 56-510 and up are _______ inches wide and installed _______ inches apart
On the floor of the ramp and mounted on the sides of the cargo compartment are fittings with a capacity of ______-pounds.
When loading a vehicle the internal tire pressure should not exceed _______ PSI. Pneumatic tires with internal tire pressure exceeding _______ PSI are considered hard rubber tires.
On the cargo compartment floor, recessed ______ -pound capacity tiedown fittings are set into a symmetrical pattern 20 inches apart.
The load limit for one truck-loading ramp is _______ pounds. When using one truck loading ramp only, place it on the ramp as close as possible to the centerline.
The maximum load allowed on steel or aluminum bridge plates is _______ pounds per plate. Ensure the ramp is supported prior to onloading/offloading more than 2000 pounds.
The maximum load that may be imposed on the auxiliary ground loading ramps is _______ pounds per wheel.
The maximum load that may be imposed on the auxiliary ground loading ramps is _______ pounds per axle.
It is permissible for two axles to contact the auxiliary ground loading ramp simultaneously. Items with axles less than _______ inches apart are considered one axle.
Each Bi-Fold Auxiliary ramp weighs _______ lbs and shall be handled by at least _______ people to prevent personal injury.
A Bi-Fold Auxiliary ramp with a non-operational jettison handle shall only be used for static load training.
When normal use limitations of the Bi-Fold Auxiliary ramps are exceeded during a mission, ______________.
enter the following statement in the aircraft forms: " Bi-Fold Auxiliary ramps (enter serial number of set) normal load limits exceeded. Inspection required prior to next use".
The maximum load that may be imposed on Bi-Fold Auxiliary ramp for normal use is _______ pounds per set, or _______ pounds for contingency or exercise operations.
10,000 / 13,000
The cargo winch internal snatch block is stowed in accordance with command directives and is rated at a maximum capacity of _______ pounds.
The pry bar can be used anywhere on the cargo compartment or ramp floor without shoring provided the weight on the pry bar does not exceed _______ pounds.
Tiedown equipment, baggage, winch power cables, etc. shall not be hung from the anchor cable or U-bolts.
Each right-hand dual rail detent latch provides a constant forward restraining force of _______ pounds and a variable aft restraining force of up to _______ pounds.
20,000 / 4,000
Each left-hand dual rail detent latch provides a constant restraining force of _______ pounds forward and _______ pounds aft.
20,000 / 10,000
The capacity of the dual rail mounted cargo tiedown rings on sections 1 through 6B (floor) is _______ pounds, sections 7 and 8 (ramp) are limited to _______ pounds.
10,000 / 5,000
On aircraft except MC-130H, an overboard vent is located at FS _____ on the left side of the aircraft, approximately _____ inches above the floor.
642 / 36
When the overboard vent is used to vent fuel, a write-up shall be entered in the Form ____, "Overboard vent at FS 642 is contaminated by fuel. Do not use to vent liquid oxygen until cleaned in accordance with T.O. 37C2-8-1-127".
Wrapping the webbing at least one and one-half turns around the spindle of the tightening device on the CGU-1/B tiedown device ______ provide sufficient friction to prevent slipping.
Prior to operating the auxiliary hydraulic system electrically driven pump, check the position of the ground test valve. If the valve is open, check with the flight engineer/maintenance personnel before turning on the pump.
It is permissible to manually open the aft cargo door and ramp with the ground test valve open.
The auxiliary ground loading ramps may be left installed and secured for flight ______________.
when mission requirements dictate
When inspecting canary slides, each ramp must have at least one operational safety latch/lanyard installed.
With dual rails ______________, bolts must be installed in floor anchor points at the following locations prior to flight: C-130A aircraft AF56-0510 and up, and all other aircraft - FS 397, 477, 517, 597, 617, 677, and ramp locations near tiedown rings 30A and 30G.
On jump platform installation, if washers and screws are not available, safety-wire the hinge plate to the tiedown ring with _______ (or greater) stainless steel safety wire, using at least _______ turns of wire on each tiedown ring.
0.032 / 4
It is permissible sometimes for a person to step on the paratroop jump platform when it is in the folded, stowed position.
The center anchor cable supports will be in the _______ position for onload/offload.
raised, and/or stowed
Ensure the turnbuckle terminal is screwed into the turnbuckle barrel so no more than _______ threads on the terminal are exposed on either end.
Ensure the turnbuckle locking assemblies are secured with locking pin(s) installed or safety wire with ______________ before using anchor cables.
1 turn .032 stainless steel
For HC-130 aircraft when airdropping static-line personnel from either the ramp and the door or the paratroop door, ______________ side personnel restraint system shall be removed.
When accomplishing rewind operation with no load on the static line retriever cable, wind cable to within _______ inches of cut-off position. Momentarily stop operation of winch; then cycle winch to REWIND position leaving a few inches of cable protruding.
The anchor cable stowage bracket at FS 813 must be ______________ during paratroop tailgating operations.
When routing the litter strap over the ceiling bar and through the strap buckle leave _______ inches minimum and _______ inches desired in the running end.
4 / 6
Woven type cables are limited to no more than ____ broken wires per inch provided no broken wires are detected in the next consecutive inch.
Wrapped type cables are limited to no more than _______ broken wires per inch, per strand provided no more than _______ broken wires exist in one inch running length of cable. The maximum number of broken wires shall not occur in any two consecutive inches of cable.
3 / 6
Vehicles/items may be airlifted without questioning certification providing those vehicles/items do not exceed the limitations/procedures of the TO 1C-130A-9.
During flight, the axle load limit for wheeled cargo with pneumatic tires placed between the treadways on the cargo ramp (compartments L and M) is _______ pounds.
During flight, the axle load limit for wheeled cargo with pneumatic tires placed on the treadways in C, D and K compartments is _______ pounds.
During flight, the axle load limit for wheeled cargo with pneumatic tires placed on the treadways on the cargo ramp (compartment L and M) is _______ pounds.
During flight, the tongue load limit between the treadways on the cargo floor is ___________pounds.
During flight, the tongue load limit between the treadways on the cargo ramp (compartment L and M) is _______ pounds.
A single axle weight up to _______ pounds may be transported on the airplane ramp provided it is the only item on the ramp.
When loading items with solid tires, do not exceed _______ pounds per inch of tire width for unshored vehicles.
Prime mover gross weight should normally be equal to or greater than the piece of rolling stock cargo being onloaded/offloaded.
The auxiliary truck loading ramps must overlap the loading vehicle bed by a minimum of _______ inches.
Park diesel powered vehicles with automatic transmissions in ______________ and those with manual transmissions in ______________.
PARK / neutral
Close the paratroop doors when equipment/cargo more than _______ inches high and _______ inches wide at the top is being loaded or when other high-profile cargo is being loaded off the centerline.
100 / 80
Do not exceed _______ MPH inside the aircraft or on the ramp while onloading/offloading the vehicle.
When loading vehicles in the airplane, park gasoline-powered vehicles with automatic transmissions in ______________ and those with manual transmissions in ______________.
PARK / low gear
The maximum height of cargo on pallets positioned on the cargo ramp shall not exceed _______ inches.
The maximum cargo weight on a single pallet secured with nets and stacked to _______ inches shall not exceed 10,000 pounds.
The maximum cargo weight on a single pallet secured with nets and stacked above 96 inches (not to exceed 100 inches) shall not exceed _______ pounds.
When low-profile cargo is loaded on a HCU-6/E pallet, the top net may be used for restraint in all directions provided certain conditions are met. Supplemental straps (CGU-1/B) or chains will be used to provide forward, lateral, and aft restraint if the net weight of the pallet exceeds _______.
When conducting bare tine loading/offloading operations the tines shall be a minimum of _____ inches in length.
The minimum restraint criteria, expressed in units of the force of gravity, or load factor is: _______ forward, _______ aft, _______ lateral, _______ vertical.
3.0 / 1.5 / 1.5 / 2.0
When restraining spring-mounted vehicles, do not attach more than ___________ the total number of tiedowns required in any given direction to the axles of the vehicles.
Gloves _______ be worn when handling winch cable and winch accessories to prevent injury to personnel.
During winch operations, do not allow the cable to extend beyond the last _______ wraps or permanent damage to unit may result if operated with load attached.
When operating the cargo winch, ensure that the winch cable hook is facing _______ when connected to an item that is to be winched.
a direction other than down
During offloading winching with the Bulldog, ensure the power switch is _______. The winch will be attached to power source and operational if required for _______ use.
OFF / emergency
To prevent damage to the aircraft rollers when loading palletized/airdrop loads that weigh over _______ pounds, ensure the 40K-loader bed is approximately _______ inches higher than the airplane rollers.
18,000 / 3-1/2
Unless the heat is turned off, do not stack cargo that may be damaged by temperature above 200 degrees F closer than __________ inches to the heating outlets.
The maximum gross weight in number 5 pallet position (FS 646 to FS 734) is limited to _______ pounds.
For vehicles with pressure-type fuel system, the fuel cap will be placed in the ______________ position.
On other than Material Handling Equipment (MHE), if the driver is required to assist in the onloading/offloading, the driver may dismount provided ______________.
the parking brake is set, wheels are chocked, engine is turned off
During winching operations, cable hook and snatch block shall be equipped with operable spring clips (internal portable winch only).
For jettison, the maximum allowable cargo height is measured from the ______________.
bottom of the pallet/platform
The maximum weight limit for paratroop door bundle(s) is ______________ pounds, excluding the weight of the parachute. The dimensions must not exceed 48 inches long, 30 inches wide, and 66 inches high including the parachute bundle.
When tailgating paratroopers, ensure the static line retriever winch cable will extend to FS _______ to ensure the static line retriever cable length is adequate.
No more than _______ static-line paratroopers shall be dropped from the ramp on a single pass. After one _______ man stick has jumped using one anchor line cable, their deployment bags ______________ and then the second _______ man stick may jump.
20 / 20 / must be retrieved / 20
The height of a CDS container will not exceed _____ inches unless authorized by specific rigging procedures.
For CDS, when airdropping a combined rigged weight of _____ pounds or less, the alternate forward barrier may be used in lieu of the BSA.
When dropping CDS and using the alternate forward barrier, to prevent damage to the aircraft structure, taught tension shall be maintained on the chain.
Container Ramp Loads are individually restrained with a length of Type X nylon webbing (release strap) routed through floor tiedown rings on the cargo ramp/floor and secured to the container webbing on the forward and aft side.
When performing Container Ramp Load airdrops, in all cases, parachutists shall not exit on the _______ side of the aircraft as the ramp load. Unused roller conveyor assemblies shall be removed.
When performing Container Ramp Load airdrops, preposition a length of _______ nylon webbing (release strap) through at least _______ ramp tiedown rings in column E/D/C.
Type VIII / two
When airdropping Container Ramp Loads, the loadmaster shall manually cut the release strap between the ______________ and the ______________ on the forward side of the load at the release point.
knot / tiedown ring
CRRC/Container ramp loads that are followed by a parachutist must be rigged with deployment parachute(s) equipped with breakaway static line(s), or deployment parachute(s) packed in T-10 deployment bags, and shall be safety tied to the load with a length of 8/7 cord.
When airdropping Container Ramp Loads in conjunction with personnel equipped with free-fall parachutes, anchor cable stop will be positioned at FS _______ to allow immediate retrieval of the static lines prior to parachutist exiting the aircraft.
Do not stow hazardous materials susceptible to leaking on the same aircraft pallet with foodstuff, feed, or any other edible material intended for consumption by humans or animals (see A3.2.1.).
The aircrew must have ________ and _______ access to all hazardous materials to mitigate any hazard posed by an in-flight incident.
The following is considered a "fuel leaker" and must be drained of fuel:
MA-3 air conditioner, H-1 Heater, All commercial support equipment
At temperatures above -78.5 degrees C (-109.3 degrees F) dry ice will sublimate and release carbon dioxide fumes; If symptoms of overexposure are noted, the use of _____________________ should provide rapid relief.
oxygen and increased ventilation
When loaded on the aircraft cargo ramp, the vehicle fuel tank must be drained if the fuel tank openings cannot be located on the high side of the ramp.
Each liquid vehicle fuel tank, including units rigged for airdrop or units being transported as cargo to a staging area for a subsequent airdrop, may be no more than _____________ full with exceptions.
When transported under the authority of Chapter 3 of AFMAN 24-204, the following fuel limitations apply: Each liquid vehicle fuel tank may will not exceed ______________ full.
When using the compatability chart in AFMAN 24-204 (Table A18.1), the letter "O" at an intersection of horizontal and vertical columns indicates that these articles must not be loaded together unless separated by a 463L pallet position or not less than a distance of _______________inches in all directions.
For airdrop of personnel over or near bodies of water, ______________ will furnish the required number of life preservers.
unit/service being airdropped
Pallet position six is limited to _______ pounds when rollers and ramp air deflectors are installed.
Pallet position six is limited to ______ pounds with ramp air deflectors removed and rollers installed.
Load the aircraft in such a manner that at least one unobstructed emergency exit is available for each _______ passengers/troops.
In regards to emergency exits and safety aisles, litters and seats erected across an emergency exit are considered an obstruction.
When airlifting passengers, an unobstructed aisle way will be maintained in the wheel well (pallet position 3 & 4) and ramp area (pallet position 6) to provide access to emergency exits. In the wheel well area the aisle way will be a minimum of _______ inches wide between the outer edge of the cargo and the aircraft and will begin at the cargo floor.
On all missions, cargo will be loaded in such a way that the ______________ will have access to the rear of the aircraft.
A ______________ indicates an operating procedure, technique, and so forth, which may result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed.
A ______________ indicates an operating procedure, technique, and so forth, which may result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed.
A ______________ indicates operating procedures, techniques, etc., which are considered essential to emphasize.
Which AF Form would you use to send comments or suggest improvements to the AFI 11-2HC-130V3?
AF Form 847
Only one loadmaster is required for a mission sortie if dropping ______________.
Door bundles (less than 100 lbs) or static line personnel airdrops using only one paratroop door, freefall personnel airdrops below 10,000 MSL, SATBs and rescue drops (parabundle, free fall, less than 100 lbs)
The basic Flight Duty Period (FDP) is _______ hours providing no mission events, helicopter air refueling (HAR) below 3,000 feet AGL, pilot proficiency training or functional check flights (FCF) are accomplished after _______ hours (16 hours for AFRC and ANG crewmembers) and no Air Refueling or HAR at or above 3,000 feet AGL after 14 hours.
16 / 12
Flight Duty Period (FDP) and Crew Duty Period (CDP) both begin when aircrew members report for _________.
The basic Flight Duty Period (FDP) is ________ hours providing no mission events, helicopter air refueling (FAR) below 3,000 feet AGL, pilot proficiency training, or fuctional check flights (FCF) are accomplished after 12 hours.
Aircraft commanders may extend the crew's FDP and/or CDP by up to 2 hours on a mission in progress.
Crews may complete initial alert activities (e.g., transportation, briefing, preflight, engine run of their alert aircraft) without starting their crew duty day. This time should not exceed _______ hours.
Crew members departing on missions scheduled to recover away from home station should be notified 24 hours before reporting for the mission. During the first 12 hours, a crewmember may not perform limited non-flying duties.
An alert crew will not remain in alert status for more than 2 consecutive 72-hour alert periods. The crew will receive 12 hours of premission crew rest between the first and second alert periods.
250. Aircraft _______ depart on a pressurized flight unless the door warning light system for the cargo ramp is _______.
will not / operative
Aircraft will not be flown with a crew entrance door or crew entrance door warning light malfunction.
Aircraft may be flown pressurized with a cargo ramp lock malfunction, provided no cargo is resting on the ramp.
Unpressurized flight may be authorized with a cargo ramp lock malfunction when ______________.
mission requirements dictate
The maximum gross weight for all C-130 operations is ______________ pounds without a waiver.
All occupants will be seated with seat belts fastened during _______. Personnel performing required duties are exempt; however, they will have a designated seat (spot for combat loading procedures) and required restraint available.
taxi, takeoffs, landings
Provide a safety belt for all occupants over _______ years of age. Occupants will fasten seat belts securely when turbulence is encountered or anticipated, or in areas of forecast clear air turbulence.
All crewmembers will monitor ______________. Crewmembers will notify the AC before going off headset and when back on headset.
Non-aircrew members may monitor interphone or radio transmissions only when specifically approved by the ______.
Without wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least _______ feet; with wing walkers avoid obstacles by at least _______ feet.
25 / 10
After landing and clearing the runway, with approval of the AC, the loadmaster may open the aft cargo door and lower the ramp to _______ inches above horizontal, to prepare for cargo offload or onload. Ensure all equipment, cargo, and passengers remain secure in the cargo compartment.
During reverse taxi, if a complete set of ground loading ramps or canary slides are installed, at least one must be removed to allow unobstructed vision from the cargo ramp while backing.
During reverse taxi, avoid taxi obstructions by at least _______ feet even if using a wing walker.
During engine running onload/offload operations, a DD Form 365-4 is not required for the subsequent sortie if the aircraft will depart empty.
Due to the hazards involved, only hand transferable items of cargo may be on or offloaded through the paratroop doors during EROs.
During onload and offload, station a crewmember (normally the loadmaster) on interphone (cord held taut) approximately _______ feet and at a _______ degree angle from the aircraft axis.
25 / 45
After the aircraft has slowed to taxi speed, the LM may remove all tiedowns except _____ forward and _____ aft restraint. Remove remaining restraints only after the aircraft is stopped and vehicle drivers are in place.
1 / 1
When airlifting litter patients, position the litters ______________ and secure each of the litters with a tiedown strap.
longitudinally (patient's head aft)
During Infil/Exfil operations, if there is going to be a time delay before onloading occurs, ______________ to allow the aircraft to be taxied in the event of an emergency.
raise the ramp enough
All aircrew members will have flight gloves readily available during flight and will wear them for ______________.
takeoffs, landings, when operating in a combat environment
You are required to carry a ______________ on all flights.
headset, helmet and oxygen mask, operable flashlight
While overwater, LPUs will be sized and readily available at the crewmember's station, and worn whenever below _______ feet overwater (except for takeoff and landing).
Helmet visors will be lowered or eye protection worn by all personnel aft of FS 617 on all airdrops, HAR, and pyrotechnic missions requiring doors to be open.
To transfer a loaded weapon to another crewmember, place the weapon on a flat surface. You may use hand-to-hand transfer.
If an air deflector door cannot be opened, then it is still authorized to open its respective paratroop door.
Crew loadmasters will wear a ______________ when performing duties near an open exit in flight.
restraint harness/parachute, helmet, eye protection
For actual combat missions, wear a restraint harness for drops below _______ feet AGL. For drops at or above _______ feet AGL, parachute wear is recommended.
Checklist may still be in progress after the "ONE MINUTE WARNING". Call "_______" if all checklists are not completed by the "_______" call.
no drop / 5 Second
All personnel will prebreathe 100% oxygen below 10,000 feet pressure altitude or cabin altitude on any mission scheduled for a drop at or above ______________ feet MSL.
For jumpmaster-directed airdrops using the Search and Rescue Airdrop Checklist after Pre-Deployment checks are complete, the loadmaster will allow the jumpmaster access to paratroop door or ramp and door, as appropriate by _______ minute(s) prior to the jump.
When a parachutist is observed to be fouled during a tailgate exit the first priority is to ______________.
cut the parachutist free if the parachutist indicates consciousness
A-7A and A-21 containers weighing up to _______ pounds, excluding the weight of the parachute, are referred to as door bundles.
Free Fall Daylight drops will be made at _______ feet AGL and night drops no lower than _______ feet AGL.
150 / 500
When must evasion plan of action (EPA) information be coordinated among all aircrew members and maintained on file with intelligence/SERE for recovery purposes?
Before the Mission.
Wearing NVGs for an extended period of time can cause fatigue. Periodically, breathing 100 percent oxygen and removing NVGs to rest the eyes can reduce eye fatigue.
During leaflet drops the _______ backs up the kicker and assumes the kicker position if the kicker becomes incapacitated.
Chemical lights attached to side escape hatch/crew entrance door handle may be removed in-flight after completing infil/exfil operations.
On HC-130, when tailgating paratroopers and/or CDS/ramp bundle airdrops, the single left side anchor cable will be attached to the left center U-bolt on the forward bulkhead at 245 and the aft ________ U-bolt at FS 913.
_______ is the sum of military, diplomatic, and civil efforts to affect the recovery and reintegration of isolated personnel.
Personnel Recovery (PR).
Expected Visual Detection Range of a survivor with a life vest is ______ mile(s) under daytime conditions.
Use a set scanning pattern when searching. Move the eyes and pause at a rate which covers _____ degrees per second.
Employ the ______ search when the only available lead is a lat known position (LKP) or dead reckoning position and the intended track of the search objective. This usually is the first search pattern employed; it consists of one search leg along a given track.
Use a ______ search to cover large rectangular areas where the objective is expected to be between two points and possible off track due to navigation error. Employ this simultaneously with or immediately after completion of a route search.
The __________ search is a series of parallel tracks advancing along a given track. The longer legs are perpendicular to the given track and are sufficient in length to allow for navigational error or drift of the search objective.
The ___________ search is a series of search legs which expand outward forming a square pattern. Use this search for concentrated search of a small area where a sighting or search objective has been reported.
The ________ search is a series of legs which originates from a datum point. It provides greater navigational accuracy, increased scanning opportunities, and is more flexible than the expanding square.
Use the _______ search in mountainous or rolling terrain. Fly search legs around a peak or back and forth along the side of the mountain, depending upon the size and accessibility of the search area.
Only in extreme emergencies should smoke or illumination signals be used if there is a danger or igniting fuel or oil on the water surface, or a fire danger exists in dry or forested areas.
Pyrotechnics that have been issued for training purposes will be marked in bold capital letters with the word "TRAINING".
Pyrotechnic compositions characteristically contain their own oxidants, and therefore do not depend upon atmospheric oxygen for combustion. Many pyrotechnic mixtures, particularly illuminating flare compositions, burn with intense heat up to ______ degrees F.
The ______ is an air-launched parachute flare. It is 36 inches long, 4.875 inches in diameter and rated as providing 2-million candlepower illumination for approximately 300 seconds (5 minutes).
The _______ is an air launched parachute flare similar to the LUU-2B in both size and use. This flare provides 1.6 million candle-power illumination for approximately 3 minutes. It is 25.5 inches long, 4.875 inches in diameter.
A single ______ flare deployment provides a 1,200 watts/steradian (W/str) intensity output from 5,000 feet AGL, adequately illuminating a 2,500-meter diameter area. Though similar to the overt LUU-2/B in size and shape, the 7-minute burn time is significantly longer than the normal LUU-2s
In the event the timer end cap is separated from the flare, do not pull on the nylon cord or the parachute. An approximate _____ pound pull on one of the suspension cables of the parachute will cause the flare to ignite.
Packaged aircraft parachute flares dropped in excess of ____ feet or unpackaged flares dropped in excess of ____ foot shall be considered unserviceable.
3 / 1
This aircraft smoke and illumination signal provides approximately 40 minutes of white smoke and yellow flame for day and night use. It is commonly referred to as a "long smoke".
The MK-6, MOD 3 smoke signal has a _____ second ignition delay and must be launched immediately after the igniter has been actuated.
Do not prepare more than ______ MK-6's at a time, and do not remove more than _____ markers at a time from the storage containers in-flight.
2 / 4
Packaged signal markers dropped in excess of _____ feet or unpackaged signals dropped in excess of _____ feet shall be considered unserviceable.
10 / 5
This marker was designed for day or night use for all surface reference point marking purposes. This signal provides approximately 13 to 18 minutes of white smoke and yellow flame for day or night use. It is commonly referred to as "short smoke".
The MK-25, MOD 3, MOD 5 marker may be converted for use in fresh water by adding ________ ounces of table salt or two salt tablets through the base plugs.
1/2 or 3/4
MK-25 MOD 3, MOD 5 packaged signals dropped in excess of ____ feet or unpackaged signals dropped in excess of ____ feet shall be considered unserviceable.
6 / 3
The MK-59 Sea Dye markers are used to produce a daylight reference point on the ocean surface in the form of a bright green dye slick. The slick expands to about 20 feet in diameter and lasts approximately ____ hours (depending on conditions).
When manually launching parachute flares from the aircraft, only the cargo ramp will be opened unless the mission dictates otherwise.