Combo with Urinalysis Review questions and 3 others
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Created by:
NefariousBunny on September 10, 2012
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258 terms
Terms | Definitions |
|---|---|
the three glass method of urine collection is performed to assess | prostate infections |
to obtain a clean catch urine specimen | Clean the external genitalia, void a few milliliters of urine into the toilet, and then collect midstream flow |
In a urine sample that is being examined microscopically, the best way to differentiate yeast from RBCs is to: | Add a drop of dilute acetic acid to the urine sediment to lyse the rbcs |
A low seminal fluid volume of 1.0 mL containing a sperm count of 5 million/mL would indicate the following? | Infertility |
The active accumulation of fluid within body cavities caused by infection, malignancies, or inflammation damaging the vascular wall is known as a(n): | Effusion |
What substance besides red blood cells and hemoglobin will react with the blood pad on the reagent test strip? | Myoglobin |
The normal healthy reference intervals fo CSF total protein is approximately | 20-50 mg/dL |
The pigment responsible for normal urine color that present in the highest concentration is | urochrome |
To determine if a specimen is urine, measure the concentrations of | urea and creatinine |
A positive bilirubin results is noted on the reagent strip used for a routine urinalysis, and bilirubin crystals are noted on the microscopic examination. This would indicate: | Liver disease |
Sperm motility that is ranked at a value of 3.0 indicates that the sperm are | Mobile with moderate linear progression |
A positive chemical reagent strip test for blood with no red blood cells found in the sediment: | Indicates the presence of hemoglobin or myoglobin |
A dark, amber-colored random urine sample can be cause by: | dehydration |
The reagent strip method used to detect protein in urine is based on: | the protein error of indicators |
A synovial fluid was received in the lab from a 25 year old man who had a recent hokey injury. In the days following the injury, he reported progressively increasing pain and swelling. The final lab report was as follows: Color Brownish green | septic inflammation |
The finding of indigo-blue colored urine is indicative of a defect in the metabolism of: | Tryptophan |
A woman with a history of miscarriages visits her OB for assessment of pregnancy. She sees the doctor ever few days to have her HCG level tested. The hCG levels begin at 5 IU/L and appear to double every 7 to 8 days. What is indicated by these results? | Normal pregnancy |
A pink-orange acidic urine becomes turbid after it has been refrigerated. This is most likely caused by: | Amorphous urates |
A CSF glucose concentration of 35 mg/dL would indicate which of the following: | Bacterial meningitis |
The normal glomerular filtrate volume per minute is: | 120 mL/min |
Observations of urine color and clarity should be performed using: | A well-mixed uncentrifuged specimen |
the nephritic syndrom frequently occurs as a complication of | systemic shock |
Malabsorption of fats by the gastrointestinal system is called | steatorrhea |
The number and type of casts found in urine sediment reflect: | The extent of renal tubular involvement in disease processes |
The hormone responsible for maintenance of sodium balance through its action on the renal tubules is: | Aldosterone |
A man with normal fluid intake excreted 1400 mL of urine in 24 hours. This urine volume can be best described as | Normal |
Ketones in the urine are frequently associated with | Acidosis |
A yellow-brown urine results from the excretion of : | Bilirubin |
Which of the following terms is correctly matched with the definition of urine output?A) Polyuria: lack of urine output B) Anuria: decreased urine output at night C) Oliguria: decreased urine output D) Nocturia: increased urine output | Oliguria: decreased urine output |
Urine that has a mousy order typically indicated: | Phenylketonuria |
Normal crystals found in alkaline urine include | Triple phosphates, amorphous, ammonium biurate |
Synovial fluid is collected by | arthrocentesis |
The protein reagent pad on a urine reagent testing strip is specific for: | Albumin |
The function of ADH is to: | Control water reabsorption by the tubules |
An individual with hepatic cirrhosis has excess peritoneal fluid in his abdominal cavity between the two layers of mesothelial cells. This abnormal fluid buildup is referred to as a (n) | transudate |
Most renal calculi contain: | calcium and oxlate |
Regarding gastric fluid analysis, what does the term "achlorhydria" mean? | The physiologic failure of gastric fluid pH to fall below 3.5 or 1.0 pH unit with gastric stimulation |
Melena is | a large amount of blood in a stool sample |
The cavities of the body that hold abdominal organs, lungs, and the heart are lined by two membranes consisting of which of the following cell types? | Mesothelial cells |
Diabetes insipidus is a disease characterized by: | Polydipsia, polyuria and urine with low specific gravity |
Testing of a urine specimen must occur within how many hours after collection? | 2 |
Glomerular basement membrane thickening occurs in membranous glomerulonephritis as a result of deposition of: | Immune complexes |
Cellular casts degenerate into: | Granular casts |
The type of cells that line the bladder are: | Transitional cells |
Urine with fixed specific gravity equal to 1.010 is termed: | Isothenuric |
To perform a microscopic examination of a urine sample for casts, the sediment is examined using a(n): | Low-power objective |
A patient with pseudogout (degenerative arthritis) would be expected to have what kind of crystals in their synovial fluid? | calcium pyrophosphate dehydrate |
Bacterial decomposition of urea produces urine that has an order or | Ammonia |
The urinalysis reagent strip reaction that reacts specifically to the presence of increased numbers of certain bacteria in the urine is: | Nitrite |
An examination for the presence of white blood cells in a stool sample is performed to: | aid in the differential diagnosis of diarrhea |
The sulfosalicylic acid precipitation confirmatory test is useful in detecting: | proteins other than albumin |
Which of the following is the most often associated with the formation of serous fluid transudate? | systemic disease |
| Which of the following laboratory results would point to a diagnosis of acute nephritic syndrome? A) Increased serum protein, increased GFR, and hematuria B) Increased WBCs in the urine, bacteria in the urine, decreased GFR, and proteinuria C) Normal serum urea and creatinine, increased GFR, and massive proteinuria D) Hematuria, sodium retention, decreased GFR, and proteinuria | Hematuria, sodium retention, decreased GFR and proteinuria |
The functional unit of the kidney is the | nephron |
If a physician orders a creatinine clearance on an individual, what is he or she attempting to determine? | glomerular filtration rate (GFR) |
the major function of the loops of Henle in the kidney is to | adjust urine osmolality |
Upon microscopic examination, a patient's urine exhibits many bacteria, white blood cells, and cellular casts composed of polymorphonuclear leukocytes. It is likely that this individual has | pyelonephritis |
If a freshly voided morning urine specimen has a pH of 6.0 in the absence of any other systemic disease, what is the likely cause? | this pH is within the healthy reference interval for this specimen |
Damage to the glomerulus would be suspected when the urine sediment contains | red blood cell casts |
The portion of a nephron that is most important in maintaining plasma electrolyte balance is the | distal tubule |
The most common glomerular disease worldwide is | IgA nephropathy |
| A man comes to his physician with generalized weakness and fatigue. Blood is collected and an elevated WBC count with lymphocytosis is noted. Serum protein is moderately decreased, but the urine reagent dipstick does not indicate proteinuria. Upon confirmatory testing with a precipitation test, the urine protein is 4+. Based on other symptoms, the physician suspects multiple myeloma. What might be the cause of the discrepancy in urine protein values? | reagent dipsticks respond mosstly to urine albumin and not other proteins |
Which of the following would be affected by allowing a urine specimen to remain at room temperature for three hours before analysis? | pH |
Which of the follow urine results is most apt to be changed by prolonged exposure to light? | bilirubin |
The normal pH for a healthy adult's urine is:A) 4.5 B) 5.0 C) 6.0 D) 8.0 | 4.5-8.0 |
Which of the following is the average volume of urine excreted by an adult in 24 hours?A) 750 mL B) 1000 mL C) 1500 mL D) 2000 mL | 1500 mL |
A urine's specific gravity is directly proportional to its: | dissolved solids |
failure to mix a specimen prior to inserting the reagen strip wil primarily affect the | blood reading |
Urine reagent strips should be stored in a(an): | cool dry air |
A urine specimen comes to the laboratory 7 hours after it is obtained. It is acceptable for culture only if the specimen has been stored: | at 4-7C |
All casts typically contain: | Tamm-Horsfall glycoprotein |
An ammonia-like odor is characteristically associated with urine from patients who: | have an infection with Proteus spp. |
When using the glass slide and coverslip method, which of the following might be missed if the coverslip is overflowed? | Casts |
The largest cells in the urine sediment are: | Squamous epithelial cells |
Increased transitional cells are indicative of: | Catheterization and Malignancy |
A primary characteristic used to identify renal tubular epithelial cells is: | Eccentrically located nucleus |
A person submitted a urine specimen following a strenuous exercise routine can normally have all of the following in the sediment except: | WBC casts |
WBC casts are primarily associated with: | Pyelonephritis |
| Explain the correlation between the patient's blood and urine glucose results. A patient taken to the emergency room following an episode of syncope has a fasting blood glucose level of 450 mg/dL. Results of the routine urinalysis are as follows:COLOR: Pale yellow KETONES: NegativeCLARITY: Clear BLOOD: NegativeSP. GRAVITY: 1.020 BILIRUBIN: NegativePH: 5.0 UROBILINOGEN: NegativePROTEIN: 1+ NITRITE: NegativeGLUCOSE: 250 mg/dL LEUKOCYTES: Negative | The renal threshold for glucose is exceeded |
All of the following are reasons for a negative nitrite test in the presence of increasedbacteria except: | Presence of gram-negative bacteria |
The urinalysis supervisor notices that an unusually large number of reagent strips arebecoming discolored before the expiration date has been reached. | The bottle is not being recapped |
A physician's office is consistently reporting positive nitrite test results with negative LE test results | The LE is read before the required reaction time |
A student's results for reagent strip blood and LE are consistently lower than those of the laboratory staff. | the student is not mixing the sample prior to testing |
A macroscopically turbid cerebrospinal fluid may indicate: | Increased white blood cell count |
If cerebrospinal fluid has a xanthochromic appearance, it can indicate bleeding: | between 12 hours and 2 to 4 weeks |
When a leukocyte differential smear made from a cerebrospinal fluid specimen with an elevated leukocyte count reveals an increase in polymorphonuclear cells, it may be indicative of _____ infection | Bacterial |
Cerebrospinal fluid specimens should be delivered to the laboratory: | Immediately |
Serous fluids: | Are contained within the closed cavities of the body and are an ultrafiltrates of plasma |
Serous fluid for laboratory examination should be collected in a(n): | Sterile container, EDTA tube for cell counts, aspectic enviroment |
Synovial fluids should be collected: | into an anticoagulated tube, into an non-anticoagulate tube, using a sterile needle and syringe |
Fecal occult blood testing tests for: | Whole blood in the stool |
The value of the fecal occult blood test is that it could determine the cause of or aid in detecting: | hypochromic anemia, ulcerative disease, and neoplasic diseases |
False-positive fecal occult blood results can be caused by ingestion of: | red meat and horseradish |
A false-negative fecal occult blood can be caused by: | vitamin C ` |
The American Cancer Society recommends that ____ fecal specimen(s) from ____ consecutive specimen(s) be collected for colorectal screening. | 2,3 |
Semen specimens should be kept ____ before microscopic examination for motility. | at body temperature |
Excessive urination during the night | nocturia |
Marked increase in urine flow | polyuria |
A marked decrease in urine flow | oliguria |
complete stoppage of urine flow | anuria |
A urine specimen is left on the urinalysis counter for 4 hours before being tested. Ketones would be | decreased |
the fluid leaving the glomerulus has a specific gravity of | 1.010 (pH of 7.4) |
What substance are and are not reabsorbed in the ascending Loop of Henle | The ascending will reabsorb Na+ and Cl- and not water |
what is the significance of a positive urine glucose result and a normal blood glucose | Renal tubular damage |
The extent to which a measurement agrees with the true value of the analyte being measures is known as | accuracy |
The normal color of urine is produce by | urochrome |
the renal threshold is best described as the | concentration at which substance in the blood spills into the urine |
What is the functional unit of the kidney | nephron (1-1.5 million in each kidney) |
A urine specimen is left on the urinalysis counter for 4 hours before being tested. RBCs and WBCs would be | decreased |
The primary site of reabsorption of glomerular filtrate is the | proximal convoluted tubule |
to establish and maintain a quality control program in a laboratory with regards to procedures, each specific test should be | standardized |
A specimen with a specific gravity of 1.005 would be considered | hyposthenuric (1.010-Isosthenuric, above 1.010 hypersthenuric, diluted urine below 1.010 is considered hyposthenuric) |
Collected by passing a sterile tube into the bladder | catheterized specimen |
Used to determine prostatic infection | three-glass collection |
second voided specimen urine specimen collected after fasting | fasting specimen |
specimen collected in a sterile container after cleansing the glans penis or urinary meatus | midstream clean catch specimen |
Which of the following: Hydrometry, Urine reagent strips, freezing point depression, refractometry is not a standard method for measuring the specific gravity of urine | freezing point depression |
A urine specimen is left on the urinalysis counter for 4 hours before being tested. Bilirubin would be | decreased |
what requires a chain of custody | urine drug screen |
a urine specimen is left on the urinalysis counter for more than 4 hours before being tested glucose would be | decreased |
Normal urine is primarily composed of | water, urea, and sodium chloride |
a urine specimen is left on the urinalysis counter for 4 hours before being tested. pH would be | Increased |
Not permitting trash and combustible material to pile up, good housekeeping and keeping your work place neat and orderly can help prevent | fires |
What substances are and are not reabsorbed in the descending Loop of Henle | the decending will absorb water and not Na+ and Cl- |
Fred Damon is at the lab to pick up a collection container for a 24 hour urine collection. What collection instructions would you give to Fred? Make sure you include storage requirements | Fred should Wake up in the morning and empty is bladder.He should collect ALL urine for the next 24 hours The next morning at the same time he should collect the last urine During the collection Fred should keep the sample refrigerated |
To extinguish a Class B fire you can use | an ABC fire extinguisher |
When shaken, a urine specimen has yellow foam; what is most likely present? | protein and bilirubin |
Complete the following creatinine clearance:24 hour urine volume= 798 mL Urine Creatinine= 120 mg/dL Serum Creatinine= 2.3 mg/dL | Creatinine Clearance = (120 X 798)/(2.3 X1440)Creatinine Clearance= 28.9 ml/Min |
A urine specimen is left on the urinalysis counter for 4 hours before being tested. Bacteria would be | Increased |
Safety regulations in the clinical laboratory fall under which government agency | OSHA |
You receive a urine for a urine drug screen that has a specific gravity of 1.000. What should you do? Make sure you include other tests that may be helpful? | This specimen is most likely not urine and should be rejected. Other test that would be helpful in confirming this would be creatinine and BUN. The urine temperature would also help determine if this was a true specimen. |
What is the preferred method for urine preservation | refrigeration |
| Which of the following statements about Standard Precautions is correct? A) Standard Precautions only applies to body fluids that may contain blood. B) Standard Precautions applies only to blood. C) Standard Precautions mean that all blood and body fluids should be handled as if they were infectious and capable of transmitting disease. D) Standard Precautions do not apply to pleural fluid or semen. | Standard Precautions mean that all blood and body fluids should be handled as if they were infectious and capable of transmitting disease. |
A urine specimen is left on the ruinalysis counter for 4 hours before being tested clarity would be | increased |
Color and it's significance:Brown Black-Dark yellow-red-green | Brown black-melaninDark yellow-concentrated specimen Red-myoglobin Green-pseudomonas infection |
A urine concentration test was performed on a patient after a food and water deprivation period with the following findings:After 14 hours Urine Osmolality = 850 mOsm/Kg After 16 hours Urine Osmolality = 850 mOsm/Kg What do these results indicate? | this represents loss of tubular function and concentrating ability |
Freshly voided normal urine is usually clear; however, if it is alkaline, a white turbidity may be present due to | amorphous phosphates |
what is the normal ratio of urine to plasma osmolality with controlled fluid intake | 3:1 |
A patient has a sudden drop in blood pressure. The sequence of reactions in the RAAS is | renin, angiotensinogen, angiotensin I, angiotensin II, aldosterone. |
What substances are not allowed to filter through the glomerulus in significant amounts? | Protein and cells |
what can be used to confirm that a body fluid is urine | creatinine |
a urine specimen is left on the urinalysis counter for 4 hours before being tested. Nitrite would be | increased |
The principle of the reagent strip test for pH is | double indicator reaction |
the purpose of scanning the perimeter of urine sediment placed under a conventional glass slide is to | detect the presence of casts |
most renal calculi are composed of | calcium |
the principle of the reagent strip test for protein is the | protein error of indicators |
Oval fat bodies and fatty casts are characteristic urine sediment constituents in patients with | acute interstitial nephritis (When present in a urine specimen, these cells are accompanied by increased amounts of protein and cast formation. Oval fat bodies are often associated with nephritic syndrome) |
Reagent strip chemical tests may be inaccurate if the specimen is | tested immediately after refrigeration |
The presence of crenated RBCs in the urine sediment is associated with | hypersthenuria (Crenated RBCs are a sign of a hypertonic urine. The high specific gravity causes the water to leave the cells. Hypertonic urine can be seen in dehydrated patients or early morning specimens) |
Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets may be accomplished by all of the following except | lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid (If the yeast cannot be differentiated on the basis of budding, 2% acetic acid can be added. RBCs will lyse; yeast will not. The oil droplets will have very defined refractile edges) |
Phenylketonuria is caused by | lack of the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase |
The type of protein that precipitates at 60F and dissolves at 100F is a/an | abnormal globulin associated with multiple myeloma (Bence Jones protein can be found in multiple myeloma. In multiple myeloma, the serum contains a high levels of immunoglobulin light chains or Bence Jones protein. Bence Jones protein can be detected by the heat soluble. Other proteins when heated will coagulate and remain coagulated. Bence Jones protein however will coagulate or precipitate at 60 degrees and will dissolve at 100 degrees. Serum electrophoresis should be done as a confirmatory test) |
Phenylketonuria produces what kind of scent? | mousy |
The recommended centrifugation for preparing the urine sediment is | 400 RCF for 5 minutes |
The location of epithelial cells in the urinary tract in ascending order is | squamous, transitional, renal tubular (The squamous epithelial cells are found in the urethra. Transitional can be found in the bladder and renal tubular in the kidneys) |
The SSA test should be performed on | urine that has been centrifuged (The SSA test for protein is more sensitive the reagent strips and will detect other protein besides albumin. To perform the SSA a aliquot of 3% Sulfosalicylic acid is added to an equal amount of urine. The tube is mixed and graded from 1+-4+ based on the amount of precipitate. If a un centrifuged urine is used the turbidity from other element could interfere in this reading) |
Acute renal failure may be classified by | post renal, pre-renal and renal |
Sediment constituents that are used to differentiate between upper and lower urinary tract infections are | WBC casts (White blood cell cast are associated with pyelonephritis and infection. Since cast are only formed in the kidney, white blood cell cast pinpoint the location of the white blood cells and the infection to the kidneys. The white blood cells in the cast can be differentiated from red blood cells because they are larger and have multinuclei and granules in the cytoplasma. down) |
To detect the presence of casts, the sediment is examined using | reduced light under low power (The casts will be reported out in number of cast per low power field. However high powered is used to differentiate the different types of casts) |
Th presence of increased renal tubular epithelial cell casts is most indicative of | acute tubular necrosis |
Cystinosis produces what kind of scent | a sulfur odor is associated with Cysinosis |
Urobilinogen is formed from the | reduction of bilirubin by intestinal bacteria |
the protein section of the reagent strip is most sensitive to | albumin |
a spotted reaction on the reagent strip reaction for blood indicates | hematuria |
the cells most frequently associated with urinary tract infections are | neutrophils |
motility by which of the following si most noticeable during the urine sediment examination | Trichomonas vaginalis |
A 1+ reagent strip reaction and a 4+ Clinitest reaction could indicate the presence of | glucose and other reducing substances |
Porphyrins are intermediary compounds in the formation of | heme |
Infection of the bladder is termed | cystitis |
the reagent strip reaction that should be read last is the | Leukocyte esterase |
The substance producing the brown color in feces is | urobilin |
Normal crystals found acidic urine include | calcium oxalate, uric acid, amorphous urates |
pediatric urine specimens are additionally tested for the presence of | galactose using Clinitest |
Which of the following cells found in increased numbers in the urine sediment is only indicative of nephron damage | renal tubular cells |
A medical technology student consistently obtains lower RBC counts than the instructor. A possible reason for this might be | failure to recognize crenated cells, focusing in the wrong plane, failure to centrifuge a mixed specimen |
A false-positive test for 5-HIAA may result if the patient | does not receive appropriate diet instructions |
A disease that causes large amounts of branched-chain amino acids to be excreted in the urine is | maple syrup urine disease |
Inhibition of bacterial growth in the Guthrie test should be interpreted as | negative for PKU |
the major constituent of casts is | Tamm-Horsfall protein |
Excessive fat metabolism is indicated by the presence in the urine of | ketones |
The normal range of pH is | 4.5-8.0 |
Identification of crystals is based on shape and | urine pH and crystal size |
The pseudoperoxidase reaction is the principle for the reagent strip test(s) for | both blood and creatinine |
What can produce a negative nitrite test in the presence of significant bacteriuria? | production of nitrogen from the presence of many bacteria |
The recommended diluting fluid for synovial fluid cell counts is | saline (WBC counts are most commonly done on a synovial fluid. If a fluid is very viscous hyaluronidase may need to be added. This will reduce the viscosity of the sample and allow the count to be performed. Many traditional WBC counting methods used acetic acid as a diluent but this would cause clot formation in a synovial fluid. To prevent this saline is used as a diluent) |
The normal sperm concentration is | 20-160 million/mL |
the function of serous fluid is to | provide lubrication for the serous membranes |
a dark green amniotic fluid is associated with | meconium |
conditions the produce elevated CSF protein include all of the following except | fluid leakage (multiple sclerosis, hemorrhage, meningitis) |
crystals found in the synovial fluid during attacks of gout are | monosodium urate |
examination of a CSF shows 1000 WBCs, of which 75% are lymphocytes and 25% are monocytes this finding is consistent with | viral meningitis |
exudate fluids usually result from | inflammation of the serous membrane |
The pathological accumulation of fluid in a body cavity is termed a/an | effusion |
a milky-appearing synovial fluid is associated with the presence of | monsodium urate crystals |
A yellow color in semen specimen may be caused by all of the following except | preservation at room temperature |
wet preparations for the detection of fecal neutrophils are stained with | Methylene blue ( Methylene blue is used for wet preps and Wright stain is used for fixed specimens) |
When performing microscopic examination of a stool for muscle fibers, the structures that are counted | have vertical and horizontal striations |
chemical analysis of CSF shows that the fluid contains | plasma chemicals in the concentrations different from those in the plasma |
Stools from persons with steatorrhea contain excess amounts of | fat |
normal semen should liquefy | within 1 hour |
Amniotic fluid tests for fetal maturity include | L/S ratio and microviscosity |
Which one does not match: A) Normal: clear, pale yellow B) Traumatic tap: blood streaks C) Crystals: milky D) Sepsis: Uniform blood | Sepsis: Uniform blood |
The term occult blood describes blood that | is not visibly apparent in the stool specimen |
the normal CSF glucose is | 60-70% of the blood glucose |
before analysis semen specimens should be | allowed to liquefy |
where is synovial fluid found? | Synovial fluid surrounds all joints, acts as a lubricant and supplies nourishment to cartilage(It is NOT found only in the knee) |
A xanthochromic CSF specimen will appear | yellow and clear |
To determine the WBC count on a cloudy CSF specimen that contains both RBCs and WBCs, it is necessary to | dilute the specimen using glacial acetic acid |
Semen analysis on postvasectomy patients should be performed | until two consecutive monthly specimens show no sperm |
The third tube of CSF collected from a lumbar puncture should be used for | hematology tests |
The presence of xanthochromia and an increased D-dimer test in the CSF is indicative of | a cerebral hemorrhage |
Peritoneal fluid is collected by a procedure called | paracentesis |
Which of the following pairings of stool appearance and cause does not match?A) Pale, frothy: steatorrhea B) Yellow-gray: bile duct obstruction C) Black, tarry: blood D) Yellow-green: barium sulfate | Yellow-green barium sulfate |
The primary cause of decreased CSF glucose in bacterial meningitis is | alteration of blood-brain glucose transport |
the normal brown color of the feces is produced by | urobilin |
spermatogenesis takes place in the | seminiferous tubules |
Before and during collection of a sample for quantitative fecal fats, a patient should | consume 100 g of fat per day. |
A CSF specimen, in which there is uneven distribution of blood among the three tubes and clots are detected, is an indication of | traumatic tap |
A pleural fluid delivered to the laboratory in ice would be accompanied by a requisition to test for | pH |
Using a 1:20 dilution and the 5 RBC counting squares of the Neubauer counting chamber, an average of 54 sperm is counted. The sperm concentration is | 54,000,000/mL |
The functions of the cerebrospinal fluid include all of the following exceptA) protection of neurologic tissue from trauma. B) removal of metabolic waste products. C) transmission of neurologic impulses. D) nutritional enrichment of nervous tissue | transmission of neurologic impulses. |
Hemolytic disease of the newborn endangers the fetus by | destroying fetal RBCs (the fetus will suffer from anemia) |
If CSF tubes numbered 2 and 3 cannot be analyzed within 1 hour, the correct procedure is to | refrigerate tube 3 and leave tube 2 at room temperature. |
Tests for the detection of occult blood rely on the | pseudoperoxidase activity of hemoglobin |
To determine if a questionable specimen is semen, the specimen should be tested for | acid phosphatase. |
Crystals frequently seen with chronic inflammation are | cholesterol |
Hemolytic disease of the newborn is caused by | maternal antibodies. |
What is most often associated with the formation of a transudate? | Congestive heart failure (Transudates result from excessive filtration of blood serum across a physically intact vascular wall due to disruption of reabsorption. This occurs in systematic diseases that alter the hydrostatic pressure of the capillaries and include congestive heart failure, hepatic cirrhosis or nephritic syndrome) |
To determine if an unknown fluid is synovial fluid, the fluid can be tested | by adding acetic acid and observing clot formation |
A turbid synovial fluid with yellow-green color is indicates | infection (Specimens that are septic or caused by an infection can produce a specimen that is white, gray, yellow of green. The majority of infectious agents in septic arthritis are bacterial but can also be fungal or viral) |
A milky, green-tinged pleural fluid | stains weakly with Sudan III |
The recommended specimen for quantitative fecal testing is a | 72-hour specimen |
The foam, or shake, test is a screening test for amniotic fluid | surfactants |
| An amniocentesis is performed on a woman whose last two pregnancies have resulted in stillbirths due to hemolytic disease of the newborn. A screening test performed at the hospital is positive for bilirubin, and the specimen is sent to a reference laboratory for a bilirubin scan. Doctors are concerned when the report comes back negative, and they question if the | specimen was exposed to light |
acute glomerulonephritis | deposition of immune complexes, formed in conjunction with group A strep infection, on the glomerular membrane |
goodpasture's syndrome | attachment of cytotoxic antibody formed during viral respiratory infections to glomerular and alveolar basement membranes |
nephrotic syndrome | disruption of the electrical charges that produce the tightly fitting podocytes barrier results in a massive protein and lipid loss |
minimal change syndrome | disruption of podocytes occurring primarily in children following alleric reactions and immunizations |
chronic glomerulonephritis | marked decrease in renal function resulting from the glomerular damage precipitated by other renal disorders |
alport syndrome | genetic disorder showing lamellated and thinning of glomerular basement membrane |
wegerner's syndrome | ANCA binds to neutrophils in cascular walls producing damage to small vessels in the lungs and glomerulus |
cystitis | ascending bacterial infection of the bladder |
acute pyelonephritis | infection of the renal tubules and interstitum related to inference of urine flow to the bladder reflux of urine from the bladder and untreated cystitis |
acute tubular necrosis | damage to the renal tubular cells caused by ischemia or toxic changes |
Reaction principle of Urobilinogen | Ehrlich (p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde) |
Reaction principle of Bilirubin | Diazzo reaction |
Reaction principle of Blood | pseudo-peroxidase activity of hemoglobin |
Reaction principle of Glucose | glucose oxidase peroxidase |
Reaction principle of Ketone | sodium nitroprusside |
Reaction principle of LE | granulocytic esterase reaction |
Reaction principle of Nitrite | Greiss |
Reaction principle of pH | double buffer system |
Reaction principle of total protein | protein error of indicator |
Reaction principle of specific gravity | pKa changes of polyelectrolytes |
Reaction principle of SSA and substance being measured | acid precipitation-protein (all proteins) |
Reaction principle of Clinitest and substance being measured | copper reduction-reducing system |
Reaction principle of Acetest and substance being meausred | sodium nitroprusside-ketones |
Reaction principle of Icotest and substances being measured | Diazzo reaction-bilirubin |
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