Final Exam

Created by Janessa87 

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test 3

Under what circumstances do cells in the kidneys secrete renin?
A) The urine pH decreases.
B) Blood flow in the afferent arteriole decreases.
C) Serum potassium levels are high.
D) Serum osmotic pressure increases.

B.) Blood flow in the afferent arteriole decreases.

What is the cause of most cases of pyelonephritis?
A) an ascending infection by E. coli
B) abnormal immune response, causing inflammation
C) dialysis or other invasive procedure
D) virulent bacteria in the blood

A) an ascending infection by E. coli

Which disease is manifested by dysuria and pyuria?
A) nephrotic syndrome
B) cystitis
C) glomerulonephritis
D) urolithiasis

B) cystitis

Pyelonephritis may be distinguished from cystitis by the presence in pyelonephritis of:
A) microbes, leukocytes, and pus in the urine
B) painful micturition
C) urgency and frequency
D) urinary casts and flank pain

D) urinary casts and flank pain

Which pathophysiologic process applies to acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis?
A) streptococcal infection affects both the glomerular and tubule functions
B) ischemic damage occurs in the tubules, causing obstruction and decreased GFR
C) immune complexes deposit in glomerular tissue, causing inflammation
D) increased glomerular permeability for unknown reasons

C) immune complexes deposit in glomerular tissue, causing inflammation

Renal disease frequently causes hypertension because:
A) albuminuria increases vascular volume
B) congestion and ischemia stimulates release of renin
C) ADH secretion is decreased
D) damaged tubules absorb large amounts of filtrate

B) congestion and ischemia stimulates release of renin

Urinary casts are present with acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis because of:
A) large numbers of microbes and leukocytes enter the filtrate
B) ruptured capillaries release debris into the tubules
C) normal reabsorption of cells and proteins cannot take place
D) inflamed tubules mold RBCs and protein into a typical mass

D) inflamed tubules mold RBCs and protein into a typical mass

What would be the long-term effects of chronic infection or inflammation of the kidneys?
A) dehydration and hypovolemia
B) gradual necrosis, fibrosis, and development of uremia
C) sudden anuria and azotemia
D) severe back or flank pain

B) gradual necrosis, fibrosis, and development of uremia

What are the significant signs of nephrotic syndrome?
A) hyperlipidemia and lipiduria
B) pyuria and leucopenia
C) hypertension and heart failure
D) gross hematuria and pyuria

A) hyperlipidemia and lipiduria

Common causes of urolithiasis include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) hypercalcemia
B) hyperlipidemia
C) inadequate fluid intake
D) hyperuricemia

B) hyperlipidemia

Which of the following is a predisposing factor to bladder cancer?
A) prostatic cancer
B) hormonal abnormalities
C) exposure to chemicals and cigarette smoke
D) presence of embryonic tissue

C) exposure to chemicals and cigarette smoke

Which of the following relates to polycystic kidney disease?
A) It affects only one of the kidneys.
B) It results in gradual degeneration and chronic renal failure.
C) The kidneys are displaced and the ureters are twisted.
D) The prognosis is good because there is adequate reserve for normal life.

B) It results in gradual degeneration and chronic renal failure.

What is the primary reason for hypocalcemia developing during end-stage renal failure or uremia?
A) decreased parathyroid hormone secretion
B) insufficient calcium in the diet
C) excessive excretion of calcium ions in the urine
D) a deficit of activated vitamin D and hyperphosphatemia

D) a deficit of activated vitamin D and hyperphosphatemia

With severe kidney disease, either hypokalemia or hyperkalemia may occur and cause:
A) cardiac arrhythmias
B) encephalopathy
C) hypervolemia
D) skeletal muscle twitch or spasm

A) cardiac arrhythmias

Which of the following would likely cause chronic renal failure?
A) cystitis with pyelonephritis in the right kidney
B) circulatory shock
C) persistent bilateral glomerulonephritis
D) obstruction of a ureter by a renal calculus

C) persistent bilateral glomerulonephritis

Cystitis is more common in females due to:
A) the mucosa in the urinary tract is continuous
B) the urethra is short, wide, and adjacent to areas with resident flora
C) the pH of urine is more acidic in females
D) females have a higher incidence of congenital anomalies

B) the urethra is short, wide, and adjacent to areas with resident flora

Which of the following congenital defects is a common cause of cystitis in young children?
A) polycystic kidney
B) horseshoe kidney
C) hypoplasia of the kidney
D) vesicoureteral reflux

D) vesicoureteral reflux

Which factor contributes to severe anemia in individuals with chronic renal failure?
A) increased erythropoietin secretion
B) limited protein intake
C) compensatory increase in bone marrow activity
D) inability to absorb Vitamin B12 and iron

B) limited protein intake

Uremic signs of renal failure include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) encephalopathy
B) congestive heart failure
C) osteodystrophy
D) azotemia and acidosis

B) congestive heart failure

The normal pH of urine is:
A) 7.35-7.45
B) 4.5- 8.0
C) 1.5-7.5
D) 1.0-7.0

B) 4.5- 8.0

In acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, the glomerular inflammation results from:
A) the antecedent infection
B) type III hypersensitivity reaction
C) ascending infection from the bladder
D) spread of infection from the tubules

B) type III hypersensitivity reaction

Through what area does the cerebrospinal fluid circulate around the brain and spinal cord?
A) between the double layers of the dura mater
B) in the subdural space
C) in the subarachnoid space
D) through the arachnoid villi

C) in the subarachnoid space

Which of the following is a TRUE statement about transient ischemic attacks?
A) They usually cause necrosis and permanent brain damage.
B) Rupture of an aneurysm or damaged artery may cause a TIA.
C) They usually indicate systemic hypertension.
D) They often warn of potential cerebrovascular accidents.

D) They often warn of potential cerebrovascular accidents.

What is a major function of the limbic system?
A) overall control of fluid balance
B) required for logical thinking, reason, and decision making
C) determines emotional responses
D) responsible for artistic and musical talents

C) determines emotional responses

Where are beta-1 adrenergic receptors located?
A) bronchiolar walls
B) arteriolar walls
C) cardiac muscle
D) glands of the intestinal tract

C) cardiac muscle

A brain tumor causes headache because the tumor:
A) causes ischemic pain in the brain
B) stretches the meninges and blood vessel walls
C) erodes the skull
D) compresses sensory fibers in cranial nerves

B) stretches the meninges and blood vessel walls

What would be the expected effect of a tumor developing in the inferior part of the left frontal lobe?
A) numbness in the right leg
B) weakness in the right side of the face
C) paralysis in the left leg
D) dizziness and loss of balance

B) weakness in the right side of the face

What is the probable source of an embolus causing a CVA?
A) right ventricle of the heart
B) femoral vein
C) common carotid artery
D) pulmonary artery

C) common carotid artery

What would be the effect of infarction owing to obstruction in the right anterior cerebral artery?
A) some visual loss
B) sensory deficit involving the upper body
C) aphasia
D) contralateral weakness in the leg, impaired spatial relationships

D) contralateral weakness in the leg, impaired spatial relationships

In cases of Guillain-Barré syndrome, what does the pathophysiology include?
A) damage and loss of function in the motor neurons of the spinal cord and medulla
B) encephalopathy with disorientation, headache, and coma
C) infection and inflammation of the motor cortex
D) inflammation and demyelination of peripheral nerves, leading to ascending paralysis

D) inflammation and demyelination of peripheral nerves, leading to ascending paralysis

An epidural hematoma is located between the:
A) dura mater and the arachnoid mater
B) dura mater and the skull
C) arachnoid mater and the pia mater
D) pia mater and the brain

B) dura mater and the skull

In a case of bacterial meningitis, where does swelling and purulent exudate form?
A) involving the pia, arachnoid, and surface of the entire brain
B) in the dura mater and epidural space
C) at the site of the injury or entry point of the microbes
D) primarily around the spinal cord

A) involving the pia, arachnoid, and surface of the entire brain

What are significant signs of acute bacterial meningitis?
A) severe headache, nuchal rigidity, and photophobia
B) fatigue and lethargy, fever, and anorexia
C) focal signs, such as progressive paralysis in a limb
D) ascending paralysis beginning in the legs

A) severe headache, nuchal rigidity, and photophobia

Expressive aphasia is most likely to result from damage to:
A) the left frontal lobe
B) the left temporal lobe
C) the right motor cortex
D) Wernicke's area

A) the left frontal lobe

What are the significant early signs of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm?
A) impaired speech and muscle weakness
B) severe headache, nuchal rigidity, and photophobia
C) abnormal sensations and tremors
D) vomiting and visual abnormalities

B) severe headache, nuchal rigidity, and photophobia

Herpes zoster can be identified by a typical:
A) unilateral rash and pain along a cranial nerve or dermatome
B) weakness and muscle atrophy in the legs
C) ascending paralysis commencing in the legs
D) skeletal muscle spasms in the face and neck

A) unilateral rash and pain along a cranial nerve or dermatome

What characteristic is common to all individuals with cerebral palsy?
A) some loss of cognitive function
B) one or more types of seizure
C) serious multiple communication difficulties
D) a form of motor disability

D) a form of motor disability

Which of the following is characteristic of multiple sclerosis?
A) remissions and exacerbations
B) predictable pattern of progression in all patients
C) onset in men and women more than 60 years of age
D) full recovery of function during remissions

A) remissions and exacerbations

Which type of cerebrovascular accident has the poorest prognosis?
A) CVA caused by thrombus
B) hemorrhagic CVA
C) embolic CVA
D) no difference among types

B) hemorrhagic CVA

Which of the following factors predispose(s) an individual to a cerebrovascular accident?
1. hypertension
2. hypocholesteremia
3. smoking cigarettes
4. history of coronary artery disease
5. diabetes mellitus
A) 1, 3
B) 1, 2, 4
C) 2, 4, 5
D) 1, 2, 3, 5
E) 1, 3, 4, 5

E) 1, 3, 4, 5

What are the significant early signs of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm?
A) impaired speech and muscle weakness
B) severe headache, nuchal rigidity, and photophobia
C) abnormal sensations and tremors
D) vomiting and visual abnormalities

B) severe headache, nuchal rigidity, and photophobia

Which of the following does NOT apply to Reye's syndrome?
A) There is no permanent damage in the body.
B) It is precipitated by a combination of viral infection and administration of ASA.
C) Cerebral edema develops.
D) Liver damage is common.

A) There is no permanent damage in the body.

The rabies virus is usually transmitted by:
A) respiratory droplets
B) insects such as mosquitoes
C) bites from infected animals
D) the fecal-oral route

C) bites from infected animals

Common manifestations of rabies infection include:
A) headache, foaming at the mouth, and difficulty swallowing
B) difficulty walking and coordinating movements
C) decreased sensitivity to sound and touch
D) vomiting, liver and kidney damage

A) headache, foaming at the mouth, and difficulty swallowing

Typical signs of a TIA include:
A) rapidly increasing intracranial pressure
B) loss of consciousness
C) transient muscle weakness in a hand or leg
D) headache, photophobia, and nuchal rigidity

C) transient muscle weakness in a hand or leg

Which of the following is characteristic of generalized seizures?
A) the localization of the seizure activity
B) the uncontrolled discharge of neurons in both hemispheres
C) seizures that persist for several hours
D) loss of consciousness and all motor function

B) the uncontrolled discharge of neurons in both hemispheres

Which statement does NOT apply to the pathophysiology of multiple sclerosis?
A) demyelination of axons
B) it affects the brain, spinal cord, and cranial nerves
C) it affects motor, sensory, and autonomic fibers
D) progressive random degeneration of peripheral nerves

D) progressive random degeneration of peripheral nerves

What is the pathophysiologic change in Parkinson's disease?
A) degeneration of motor fibers in the pyramidal tracts
B) excess secretion of stimulatory neurotransmitters in the CNS
C) degeneration of the basal nuclei with a deficit of dopamine
D) deficit of acetylcholine and degeneration of the motor cortex in the frontal lobe

C) degeneration of the basal nuclei with a deficit of dopamine

Which of the following statements does NOT apply to myasthenia gravis?
A) The cholinergic receptors at the neuromuscular junctions are damaged.
B) It is an autoimmune disorder.
C) Muscle weakness and fatigue occur in the face and neck.
D) Dementia develops in the later stage.

D) Dementia develops in the later stage.

What is the pathophysiologic change in Parkinson's disease?
A) degeneration of motor fibers in the pyramidal tracts
B) excess secretion of stimulatory neurotransmitters in the CNS
C) degeneration of the basal nuclei with a deficit of dopamine
D) deficit of acetylcholine and degeneration of the motor cortex in the frontal lobe

C) degeneration of the basal nuclei with a deficit of dopamine

Which of the following are common early manifestations of Parkinson's disease?
A) tremors at rest in the hands and difficulty initiating voluntary movements
B) extreme weakness in the legs and spastic movements in the arms
C) visual deficits and speech impairment
D) loss of facial expressions and altered posture and gait

A) tremors at rest in the hands and difficulty initiating voluntary movements

In which type of neuron is progressive degeneration occurring with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)?
A) upper motor neurons
B) upper and lower motor neurons
C) motor and sensory neurons
D) motor, sensory, and autonomic system neurons

B) upper and lower motor neurons

Which statement applies to Huntington's disease? It:
A) is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait
B) is manifested in individuals by age 20 years
C) presents with choreiform movements in the upper body and decreased ability to concentrate
D) causes decreased levels of all neurotransmitters in the CNS

C) presents with choreiform movements in the upper body and decreased ability to concentrate

What are the characteristic changes in the brain with Alzheimer's disease?
A) cortical atrophy with plaques and neurofibrillary tangles, impairing conduction
B) increased ACH and decreased GABA and serotonin levels
C) obstruction of many small arteries and arterioles throughout the cerebral cortex
D) vacuoles forming in the neurons, rapidly destroying them

A) cortical atrophy with plaques and neurofibrillary tangles, impairing conduction

Which disease is associated with excessive dopamine secretion, decreased gray matter in the temporal lobes, and abnormal hippocampal cells in the brain?
A) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
B) schizophrenia
C) panic disorder
D) depression

B) schizophrenia

Which of the following are typical characteristics associated with schizophrenia?
A) disorganized thought processes, short attention span, delusions
B) lack of energy and motivation, poor concentration, insomnia
C) hyperventilation, tachycardia, intense anxiety
D) memory loss, mood swings, hostile behavior

A) disorganized thought processes, short attention span, delusions

Which of the following dietary supplements has reduced the incidence of spina bifida in recent years?
A) vitamin B6
B) folic acid
C) vitamins A and D
D) zinc and magnesium

B) folic acid

Which of the following is used both to confirm the diagnosis and classify seizures?
A) characteristics of the aura
B) presence of precipitating factors
C) electroencephalogram
D) changes in the characteristics of cerebrospinal fluid

C) electroencephalogram

What is the typical initial effect of a herniated intervertebral disc at the L4 to L5 level?
A) back pain and weakness at waist level
B) muscle weakness in both legs
C) lower back pain radiating down the leg
D) urinary incontinence

C) lower back pain radiating down the leg

What causes a herniated intervertebral disc?
A) a tear in the nucleus pulposus
B) a protrusion of the nucleus pulposus through the annulus fibrosis
C) displacement of the annulus fibrosis between the laminae
D) failure of the spinous processes to restrict movement of the intervertebral disc

B) a protrusion of the nucleus pulposus through the annulus fibrosis

Which of the following is the most common cause of brain damage in children with cerebral palsy?
A) hyperbilirubinemia
B) hypoglycemia
C) hypoxia
D) trauma

C) hypoxia

Which statement does NOT apply to status epilepticus?
A) Seizures are recurrent or continuous without full recovery between episodes.
B) Severe hypoxia and acidosis develop.
C) This condition occurs only in idiopathic seizures.
D) If the episode persists, there may be additional brain damage.

C) This condition occurs only in idiopathic seizures.

Which of the following is a typical early sign of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)?
A) impaired ventilation
B) cognitive impairment
C) poor control of eye movement
D) weakness and muscle atrophy in upper limbs

D) weakness and muscle atrophy in upper limbs

Which of the following are typical early signs of Alzheimer's disease?
1. behavioral changes
2. reduced ability to reason and problem solve
3. decreased verbal responses
4. urinary incontinence
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 4
C) 2, 3
D) 1, 3, 4

A) 1, 2
1. behavioral changes
2. reduced ability to reason and problem solve

Which statement is TRUE about amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)?
A) Cognitive function remains normal.
B) ALS affects primarily young women.
C) Sensory neurons are damaged initially.
D) Cause of death is usually a cardiac arrhythmia.

A) Cognitive function remains normal.

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is caused by:
A) inheritance of an autosomal dominant trait
B) infection in the brain by HIV
C) an autoimmune reaction that damages nerve receptors
D) infection in the brain by a prion

D) infection in the brain by a prion

The defective gene for Huntington's disease can be detected in carriers.
A) true
B) false

A) true

What does the inner ear contain?
A) malleus, incus, and stapes
B) organ of Corti and semicircular canals
C) tympanic membrane and auditory canal
D) ossicles and oval window

B) organ of Corti and semicircular canals

Why does vertigo occur with Ménière's syndrome?
A) Fluid is lost from the inner ear.
B) Increased blood pressure causes edema in the middle and inner ears.
C) Damage occurs to the vestibular branch of the auditory nerve.
D) Excessive endolymph impairs the function of hair cells in the labyrinth.

D) Excessive endolymph impairs the function of hair cells in the labyrinth.

The right eye would lose all vision if damage occurred to the:
A) left optic nerve
B) right optic nerve
C) left occipital lobe
D) right occipital lobe

B) right optic nerve

Narrow-angle glaucoma develops when the angle is decreased between the:
A) retina and ciliary process
B) lens and ciliary body
C) iris and cornea
D) iris and lens

C) iris and cornea

Severe pain develops with narrow-angle glaucoma when the:
A) pupils are constricted
B) pupils are dilated
C) lens changes shape
D) excess vitreous humor forms

B) pupils are dilated

Herpes simplex virus is a common cause of:
A) conjunctivitis
B) corneal ulceration and scarring
C) eye infection in the neonate
D) total blindness

B) corneal ulceration and scarring

Why is amputation frequently a necessity in diabetics?
A) necrosis and gangrene in the feet and legs
B) lack of glucose to the cells in the feet and legs
C) severe dehydration in the tissues
D) elevated blood glucose increasing blood viscosity

A) necrosis and gangrene in the feet and legs

Which of the following hormonal imbalances causes Addison's disease?
A) increased glucocorticoids
B) decreased glucocorticoids
C) deficit of ADH
D) deficit of T3 and T4

B) decreased glucocorticoids

Which of the following hormonal imbalances causes myxedema?
A) increased glucocorticoids
B) decreased glucocorticoids
C) deficit of ADH
D) deficit of T3 and T4

D) deficit of T3 and T4

Which signs are typical of Graves' disease?
A) facial puffiness, bradycardia, and lethargy
B) exophthalmos, heat intolerance, and restlessness
C) delayed physical and intellectual development
D) goiter and decreased BMR

B) exophthalmos, heat intolerance, and restlessness

Choose the statement that applies to Type I diabetes mellitus.
A) Onset often occurs during childhood.
B) Relative insufficiency of insulin or insulin resistance develops.
C) It can be treated by diet, weight control and exercise, or oral hypoglycemics.
D) Complications rarely occur.

A) Onset often occurs during childhood

Which of the following indicates hypoglycemia in a diabetic?
A) deep, rapid respirations
B) flushed dry skin and mucosa
C) thirst and oliguria
D) staggering gait, disorientation, and confusion

D) staggering gait, disorientation, and confusion

Which one of the following develops hypoglycemia more frequently?
A) Type I diabetics
B) Type II diabetics
C) patients with a poor stress response
D) those with a regular exercise and meal plan

A) Type I diabetics

Characteristics of Cushing's syndrome include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) heavy body and round face
B) atrophied skeletal muscle in the limbs
C) staring eyes with infrequent blinking
D) atrophy of the lymph nodes

C) staring eyes with infrequent blinking

Which of the following is an effect of Addison's disease?
A) elevated blood glucose levels
B) high blood pressure
C) low serum potassium levels
D) poor stress response

D) poor stress response

What is the most common cause of type 1 diabetes mellitus?
A) increased glucose production in the liver
B) destruction of pancreatic cells by an autoimmune reaction
C) increased resistance of body cells to insulin action
D) chronic obesity

B) destruction of pancreatic cells by an autoimmune reaction

Which of the following are common early signs of a pituitary adenoma?
1. persistent headaches
2. hemianopia
3. hypertension
4. papilledema
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2
D) 1, 3, 4

C) 1, 2
1. persistent headaches
2. hemianopia

Which of the following hormones is involved in both the stress response and the anti-inflammatory response?
A) aldosterone
B) norepinephrine
C) thyroxine
D) cortisol

D) cortisol

Which of the following may result from cryptorchidism?
A) infertility
B) testicular cancer
C) both a and b
D) neither a nor b

C) both a and b

.
Differences between Type I and Type II diabetes include:
A) Type 1 diabetes weight gain is common, and Type II weight loss often occurs
B) Type 1 diabetes leads to fewer complications than Type II diabetes
C) Type 1 diabetes may be controlled by adjusting dietary intake and exercise, but Type II diabetes requires insulin replacement
D) Type 1 diabetes occurs more frequently in children and adolescents, and Type II diabetes occurs more often in adults
E) None of the above are correct.

D) Type 1 diabetes occurs more frequently in children and adolescents, and Type II diabetes occurs more often in adults

Which of the following applies to benign prostatic hypertrophy?
A) the tumor usually becomes malignant in time
B) the gland becomes small, nodular, and firm
C) manifestations include hesitancy, dribbling, and frequency
D) lower abdominal or pelvic pain develops

C) manifestations include hesitancy, dribbling, and frequency

Why does severe pain occur with each menstrual cycle in endometriosis?
A) obstruction in the fallopian tubes
B) inflammation around ectopic endometrial tissue
C) hormonal imbalance causing uterine contractions
D) fibrous tissue responding to hormonal changes

B) inflammation around ectopic endometrial tissue

Which of the following applies to carcinoma of the breast?
A) It presents as a tender, painful, firm nodule.
B) Tumor cells may demonstrate estrogen receptors on the membrane.
C) Occasionally, a genetic factor may have a small role in tumor development.
D) The tumor is invasive but does not metastasize until very late.

B) Tumor cells may demonstrate estrogen receptors on the membrane.

Which is considered to be the stage of carcinoma in situ in cervical cancer?
A) the invasive stage
B) the stage of mild dysplasia
C) the time before it can be detected by a Pap test
D) noninvasive severe dysplasia

D) noninvasive severe dysplasia

What is a major predisposing factor to cervical cancer?
A) high estrogen levels
B) familial incidence
C) infection with HPV
D) early age for onset of menstrual cycles

C) infection with HPV

Which of the following infections may be transmitted from the mother to the fetus during delivery?
A) gonorrhea
B) chlamydia
C) herpes simplex
D) syphilis
E) all of the above

A) gonorrhea
B) chlamydia
C) herpes simplex
D) syphilis
E) all of the above**

Benign prostatic hypertrophy usually progresses to prostatic cancer.
A) true
B) false

B) false

Which is/are sexually transmitted infection(s) usually considered asymptomatic in women?
A) chlamydia
B) gonorrhea
C) syphilis
D) all of the above

A) chlamydia
B) gonorrhea
C) syphilis
D) all of the above **

Which of the following frequently causes PID and subsequent infertility?
A) chlamydia
B) genital warts
C) trichomoniasis
D) herpes simplex

A) chlamydia

Vaginal candidiasis is frequently predisposed by:
A) systemic antibacterial therapy
B) insertion of an intrauterine device
C) sexual intercourse with an infected partner
D) previous viral infection

A) systemic antibacterial therapy

Ovarian cancer has a poor prognosis because:
A) it does not respond to chemotherapy or radiation
B) vague signs and hidden location lead to late diagnosis
C) premenopausal women are not likely to notice changes
D) hormone therapy is ineffective

B) vague signs and hidden location lead to late diagnosis

Infertility in women may result from:
A) endometriosis
B) hormonal imbalances
C) a and b
D) neither a nor b

A) endometriosis
B) hormonal imbalances
C) a and b**

Viable sperm may not be able to access an ovum when:
A) cervical mucus is highly viscous
B) vaginal pH is abnormal
C) structural abnormalities are present
D) b, c
E) a, b, c

A) cervical mucus is highly viscous
B) vaginal pH is abnormal
C) structural abnormalities are present

E) a, b, c **

How do testicular tumors usually present?
A) soft, tender mass
B) multiple firm nodules
C) hard, painless unilateral mass
D) small, fluid-filled cyst

C) hard, painless unilateral mass

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