The basic weather instrument equipment for terminals includes wind indicators and ________.
When shall the wind-direction and speed indicator readings be checked?
At the beginning of each work day
How many Altimeter Setting Indicators (ASI's) are required in a terminal facility?
At a non-precision approach location, the margin for error on a comparison of two altimeter setting indicators is +/- _____ in. Hg.
A third party may be allowed to use FAA radio communications when the information pertains to _____________.
the safety of aircraft operation.
When shall facility frequencies be monitored?
Continuously during hours of operation.
Two-way ground-to-air checks of emergency frequencies are made during low-activity periods once a ________.
An FAA wind-direction indicator is considered out of tolerance when it differs from another indicator on the same sensor by ______ degrees.
Where recorders are convenient to operating quarters, who performs recorder checks?
Air Traffic (AT) Personnel
Who is responsible to take action to detect, prevent, and report false, deceptive, or phantom controller communications to an aircraft or controller?
What action is required when landing area conditions information is obtained from other than authorized airport or FAA personnel?
If pilots persist in their request to depart from a closed runway, quote them the appropriate parts of the NOTAM applying to the runway and _____________.
inform them that a clearance cannot be issued
Furnish the quality of braking action to all aircraft as received from pilots or ___________.
What term is used to indicate bad or no braking action on an airport surface?
Issue the runway surface condition and/or Runway Condition Reading (RCR) to all ___________ aircraft.
U.S. Air Force and Air National Guard
"BRAKING ACTION ADVISORIES ARE IN EFFECT" is put on the ATIS broadcast when the braking action is reported as _________.
"FAIR," "POOR," or "NIL"
On a REIL three-setting system, Setting 2 shall be used during the day when the visibility is ________
2 to 5 miles inclusive
Operate the Approach Light System (ALS) between sunrise and sunset when the prevailing visibility is 5 miles or less, or when the ceiling is less than _____ feet.
The ALS intensity setting are operated at Setting 2 during the day when the visibility is _______.
5 up to, but not including, 7 miles
Operate Sequenced Flashing Lights (SFL) when the visibility is less than ______ mile(s).
Operate the runway edge lights between sunrise and sunset when surface visibility is less than _____ mile(s).
Operate runway edge lights between sunset and sunrise for arriving IFR aircraft ___________.
before the aircraft begins final approach
Operate one-setting taxiway lights during the day when ___________.
visibility is less than 1 mile
Turn the rotating beacon on between sunrise and sunset when the report _________.
ceiling or visibility is below basic VFR minima
To what weight class of aircraft do runway use programs always apply?
Turbojets 12,500 pounds or heavier
Who is responsible for ensuring that a proposed runway use program is in compliance with FAA Order 8400.9?
Regional Flight Standards Division
What is always given when authorizing use of a runway and a tailwind component exists?
Wind direction and velocity
Who must be informed whenever rubber-supported cables are in place at the approach end of the landing runway?
Civil and U.S. Army aircraft
For clear and dry runways, unless a greater crosswind component is approved by the applicable Flight Standards Office, the crosswind component for the selected runway (including gust value) must NOT be greater than _____KT.
A designated Short Take Off and Landing (STOL) runway may be assigned only when ________.
requested by the pilot or as specified in an LOA with an aircraft operator
Before any runway use program is implemented, the ______ must coordinate with and encourage participation from the airport proprietor, local community, and aircraft operators who regularly use the airport.
Air Traffic Manager
Except where a runway use program is in effect, use the "calm wind" runway when _________.
less than 5 KT
When the Academy FDIO is OTS, what action must be taken by the FD position?
Copy/request IFR clearances.
FD relays tower visibility to other tower positions, Ft. Worth AFSS, and _________.
In an emergency situation, an Alert #2 would indicate a(n) ________.
In an emergency situation, an Alert #3 would indicate a(n) _________.
An aircraft ID may contain up to _________ character.
The phraseology used to assign a Standard Instrument Departure (SID) is _________.
"(SID name and number) DEPARTURE"
An example of the phraseology used to add a transition onto a SID is ________.
"STROUDSBURG ONE DEPARTURE, SPARTA TRANSITION"
What phraseology is used to tell a pilot what routing to expect beyond a short-range clearance limit if the route differs from what was filed?
"EXPECT FURTHER CLEARANCE VIA VICTOR TEN TULSA"
What phraseology is used for an abbreviated departure clearance?
"CLEARED TO DUPAGE COUNTY AIRPORT AS FILED. MAINTIN ONE ONE THOUSAND."
What phraseology is used for clearing an aircraft to the Tulsa Airport via V14?
"CLEARED TO TULSA AIRPORT VIA VICTOR FOURTEEN"
What phraseology is used for clearing an aircraft to the Tulsa Airport via J104?
"CLEAR TO TULSA AIRPORT VIA JAY ONE OH FOUR."
If the altimeter is 29.89, what is the lowest usable flight level?
Where a higher altitude is required because of an MEA and an MCA is specified at the fix, when shall an aircraft be cleared to begin climb?
Prior to the fix so as to cross the fix at or above the MCA
What phraseology is used to amend a previously issued clearance?
"(Amendment to route), REST OF ROUTE UNCHANGED."
What phraseology is used for amending an altitude in a previously issued clearance?
"UNITED SIX SIXTY-SIX,AMEND ALTITUDE. CROSS OLLIS INTERSECTION AT OR ABOVE THREE THOUSAND, CROSS GORDONSVILLE V-O-R AT OR ABOVE ONE TWO THOUSAND. MAINTAIN FLIGHT LEVEL TWO FOUR ZERO."
Which of the following is NOT a duty of the Clearance Delivery position?
Ensuring separation of aircraft
Hold For Release (HFR) instructions are _________.
used to inform a controller that a departure clearance is not valid
What is always included when issuing a departure clearance for relay to an aircraft by an FSS dispatcher?
Airport of departure
What should be specified when NOT included in the SID?
An air traffic controller's first priority is separation of aircraft and ________.
issuance of safety alerts
Controllers are required to provide additional services to the extent possible, contingent upon higher priority duties, radar limitations, traffic volume, and ______.
When must you issue a safety alert?
When you observe an aircraft in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft.
When a pilot reports an inflight equipment malfunction, controllers must determine the _________.
nature and extent of special handling desired
What is the first action to take when an aircraft reports a NAVAID malfunction?
Request a report from a second aircraft.
When a MARSA procedure is taking place, a controller will provide separation between participating military aircraft and _______.
nonparticipating IFR aircraft
Control formation flights as _________.
a single aircraft
When should use of another controller's airspace be coordinated for an aircraft under your control?
Prior to entering the other controller's airspace.
When can you assume control of an aircraft being transferred to you?
Only after the aircraft enters your area of jurisdiction unless specifically coordinated or specified in an LOA or facility directive
When should radio communications of an aircraft under your control be transferred?
Before the aircraft enters the receiving controller's area of jurisdiction
When are traffic advisories NOT provided to an aircraft?
When the aircraft is in Class A airspace or omission requested by the pilot
A controller's responsibility for applying Traffic Management initiatives does NOT have priority over _________.
maintaining separation of aircraft and the procedural integrity of the sector
Aircraft assigned EDC times should depart as close as possible to the EDC time but NO earlier than ______ minutes before and NO later than ______ minutes after the EDC time.
One of the methods employed by Traffic Management personnel to minimize delays is ________.
When informed that an aircraft is responding to a TCAS Resolution Advisory (RA), do NOT __________.
issue control instructions contrary to that advisory
When less than the applicable separation minima exists between an aircraft and adjacent airspace without prior approval, it is called a(n) ___________.
When an aircraft is responding to an RA, traffic advisories and safety alerts regarding terrain and obstructions should be provided for ________.
the aircraft responding to the RA and all other aircraft under your control jurisdiction
What is the purpose of the four-step position relief briefing process?
To ensure complete transfer of information
Who conducts the verbal briefing?
The specialist being relieved
When does assumption of the position take place?
After the RELIEVING specialist makes a statement that responsibility has been assumed
The Status Information Area (SIA) _____________.
displays current position-related information
A list of items to be recovered during a position relief briefing is called a _________.
position relief checklist
When giving or receiving a position relief briefing, a specialist should NOT _________.
Problems may occur during the position relief briefing when there is heavy reliance on _________.
Both specialist are equally responsible for the completeness and accuracy of the _________.
position relief briefing
During which step in the position relief briefing process does the relieving specialist review the SIA?
Preview the position
During which step in the position relief briefing process does the relieving specialist verify correctness of information received?
Review the position
Before observing the operational situation and work environment that your are to relieve, you should review the __________.
Status Information Area (SIA)
Which of the following is NOT a use of CRU-X information?
assign a specialist to update the Status Information Area
After the relieving specialist indicates to the specialist being relieved that the position has been previewed, _________ may begin/
Where is the FAA Administrator's office located?
Each of the 11 primary offices of the FAA, except for the ATO is managed by a(n) ____________.
The ATO is managed by a(n) __________.
Chief Operating Officer (COO)
Each ATO office is managed by a ________.
What are the 5 primary officesof the ATO?
Terminal, En Route and Oceanic, Flight Services, Systems Operations, and Technical Operations
What are the 5 types ofterminal facilities?
Air Traffic Control Towers (ATCT's), Terminal Radar Approach Control Facilities (TRACON's), Radar Approach Control Facilities (RAPCON's), andApproachandDepartureControl Facilities
The terminal facility is divided into three different areas: facility management, support staff, and __________ staff.
What are the five basic posititions in the tower?
Clearance Delivery (CD), Flight Data (FD), Cab Coordinator (CC), Ground Control (GC), and Local Control (LC)
In the tower, who has responsibility for the safe and efficient operation of the tower cab?
The entire tower team
What are the five basic positions in the TRACON?
Radar Coordinator, Radar Controller, Radar Associate (handoff person), Radar Flight Data, and Nonradar.
Altimeters are categorized as what type of equipment?
Who is responsible for periodic maintenance of tower equipment?
Tower equipment may be grouped in a variety of configurations. The configuration generally conforms to _________.
regional office master plans
When answering a public access telephone from the tower, you would first state _______.
Frequencies allocated to a facility shall be monitored _______.
continuously during hours of operation
Emergency frequencies are checked once a _______.
How many devices for measuring altimeter are required in a terminal facility?
2 ASIs OR one ASI andone mercurial barometer
What is the tolerance for an Altimeter Setting Indicator at a precision approach facility?
±0.02 in. Hg
All clocks at operating positions will be set on what time?
Universal Coordinated Time (UTC) or ZULU
What are the 4 terms for describing the quality of braking action?
"GOOD", "FAIR", "POOR", or "NIL"
Term used to indicate bad or no braking action.
Runway braking action must be described using the terms _________.
"GOOD," "FAIR," "POOR," or "NIL"
Runway braking action reports must always include the _________.
type of aircraft or vehicle from which the report is received
Airport management must be advised when braking action is reported as _________.
"FAIR," "POOR," or "NIL"
The standard emergency phraseology for a pilot to request an arresting system to be raised for immediate engagement is _________.
"BARRIER - BARRIER - BARRIER" or "CABLE - CABLE - CABLE"
What type of ATC facility provides services to aircraft operating in the vicinity of an airport or on the movement area?
What type of ATC facility provides both approach control and departure control services to aircraft in the vicinity of one or more airports?
What type of ATC facility provides service in conjunction with nonradar instrument approaches?
Departure control uses radar and DPs to expedite aircraft out of what type of area?
The Air Traffic Manager and the Assistant Air Traffic Manager provide _______________ to facility personnel.
The Operations Manager maintains a program for _______________.
Who makes position assignments?
What member of the Tower Team compiles statistical data?
What member of the radar team compiles statistical data?
Assisting the Radar Associate is a duty of which radar team member?
Who may use direct-dial or LLWAS wind information for operational purposes?
Two different instruments for measuring pressure are a barometer and ________.
Who has the legal authority to close a runway?
Airport management or military operations officer
A(n) _________ runway use program is an approved noise abatement program that does not require a Letter of Understanding.
Participation in the informal runway use prgrom is ________ for aircraft operators and pilots.
Once established, participation in the formal runway use program is _________ for aircraft operators and pilots.
Established runway use programs apply to all _________.
turbojet aircraft 12,500 lbs. or heavier
Once established, participation in a formal runway use program is mandatory _________.
for aircraft operators and pilots
When a runway use program is in effect, the selected runway must _________.
have braking action reported as "GOOD"
When is which of the 3 REIL settings used during the day?
Setting 3: Visibility less than 2 miles. Setting 2: Visibility is 2 to 5 miles inclusive. Setting 1: When requested.
When is which of the 3 REIL settings used during the night?
Setting 3: Visibility less than 1 mile. Setting 2: Visibility is 1 up to but not including 3 miles. Setting 1: Visibility is 3 miles or greater.
The Visual Approach Slope Indicator (VASI) is a system of lights arranged to provide ___________.
visual descent guidance during approach to a runway
What are the color combinations on a VASI and what do they mean?
All white - above. White & Red - on glidepath. All red - below glidepath.
ALSs provide ________.
visual descent guidance information during approach to a runway
Sequenced Flashing Lights that are installed only in combination with other light systems of an ALS are identified as ________.
A PDR for the route filed by the pilot is assigned when a SID is NOT established for the departure route to be flown or ________.
the pilot indicates that he/she does not wish to use the SID
What action is a pilot expected to take if they do NOT wish to use a SID issued in an ATC clearance?
What are the corresponding altimeter readings and LOWEST USABLE FLIGHT LEVELS?
29.92 and higher, FL 180. 29.91 to 28.92, FL 190. 28.91 to 27.92, FL 200.
What circumstances would warrant an assignment of altitudes NOT in accordance with altitudes prescribed in the direction of flight?
Heavy traffic, meteorological conditions, or aircraft operational limits
What altitude must be maintained over mountainous areas where MEAs have NOT been established?
2,000 ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4NM from the flight course (min IFR altitude)
When assigning altitude, if the requested altitude is NOT available, what is the pilot informed of?
What altitude can be expected and when/where to expect it.
Where MEAs have NOT been established, what action should be taken by the controller?
Clear an aircraft at or above min alt for IFR operations
When "FRC" appears on a flight strip, what action shall be taken by the controller?
Issue the full route clearance.
Abbreviated departure clearances should be issued to reduce ________.
What are the four ways to amend a route of flight?
1. State which portion of the route is being amended, and then state the amendment. 2. State the amendment to the route, and then state that the rest of the route is unchanged. 3. Issue a clearance "direct" to a point on the previously issued route. 4. Issue the entire route by stating the amendment.
When amending the altitude on a clearance, restate amended altitude AND ______________.
ALL OTHER altitudes
Who issues a time check to a pilot who has received a void time on a departure?
Facility delivering the clearance
When aircraft elect to take a delay on the ground, issue departure clearances in the order ________.
in which requests for clearance were originally made, if practicable
If you suggest that an IFR aircraft take a delay on the ground, but the pilot insists on taking off VFR, what should be relayed to the approach control facility?
Use _______ when possible to reduce workload, use ________ separation as oppsoed to non-radar, ________ separation instead of multiple radar vectors, etc.
automation, radar, vertical
What is the first priority of duty for an air traffic controller?
Maintaining separation of aircraft and issuing safety alerts.
What constitutes an Operational Error (OE)?
Loss of minimum separtion between aircraft, below minimum vetoring altitude (MVA), equipment/personel, landing or departing a closed runway with ATC clearance
In most instances, controllers provide air traffic control service on a ________ basis.
What constitutes an Operational Deviation (OD)?
Loss of separation minimum between airspaces or encroachment upon a landing area delegated to another position without approval.
The two types of safety alerts are ________ and ________.
Terrain/Obstruction Alert (Low Altitude Alert), Aircraft Conflict/Mode C Intruder Alert (Conflict Alert)
When an aircraft reports an inflight equipment malfunction, a controller must determine ________.
the pilot's intent
When an aircraft reports a NAVAID malfunction, a controller's first action is to ________.
get confirmation from a 2nd aircraf
Who is responsible for separating aircraft participating in a MARSA procedure?
The military aircraft involved.
Who is responsible for ensuring that pertinent information is correctly displayed in a Status Information Area for which he/she has responsibility?
Specialist being relieved
What are the 4 steps of the position relief briefing process?
1. Preview the position 2. Verbal briefing 3. Assumption of position responsibility 4. Review the position
Responsibility for using the position relief checklist lies with ________.
During which step in the position relief briefing process does the relieving specialist verify the correctness of information received?
Review the position