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1. Which is mismatched:
A) Fleming - penicillin
B) Domagk - sulfonamide
C) Ehrlich - tetracycline
D) Florey and Chain - penicillin
E) none of the choices are correct

Ehrlich - tetracycline

2. Salvarsan was:
A) discovered in the mid-1900's
B) used to treat syphillis
C) formulated from the red dye prontosil
D) first discovered as a product of Penicillium notatum
E) discovered by Robert Koch

used to treat syphillis

3. Substances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms that can inhibit or destroy other microorganisms are called:
A) antibiotics
B) narrow-spectrum drugs
C) semisynthetic drugs
D) synthetic drugs
E) broad-spectrum drugs

antibiotics

4. Antimicrobics effective against a wide variety of microbial types are termed:
A) antibiotics
B) narrow-spectrum drugs
C) semisynthetic drugs
D) synthetic drugs
E) broad-spectrum drugs

broad-spectrum drugs

5. Antibiotics are derived from all the following except:
A) Penicillium
B) Bacillus
C) Staphylococcus
D) Streptomyces
E) Cephalosporium

Staphylococcus

6. Important characteristics of antimicrobic drugs include:
A) low toxicity for human tissues
B) high toxicity against microbial cells
C) do not cause serious side effects in humans
D) stable and soluble in body tissues and fluids
E) all of the choices are correct

all of the choices are correct

7. Broad-spectrum drugs that disrupt the body's normal flora often cause:
A) nephrotoxicity
B) superinfections
C) allergic reactions
D) drug toxicity
E) all of the choices are correct

superinfections

8. Penicillins and cephalosporins:
A) interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan
B) are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis
C) attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis
D) damage cell membranes
E) block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules

block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules

9. Sulfonamides:
A) interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan
B) are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis
C) attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis
D) damage cell membranes
E) block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules

are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis

10. Aminoglycosides:
A) interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan
B) are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis
C) attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis
D) damage cell membranes
E) block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules

attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis

11. Ampicillin, amoxicillin, mezlocillin, and penicillin G all have:
A) a beta-lactam ring
B) resistance to the action of penicillinase
C) a semisynthetic nature
D) an expanded spectrum of activity
E) all of the choices are correct

a beta-lactam ring

12. A chemical that inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes is:
A) synercid
B) penicillinase
C) aztreonam
D) clavulanic acid
E) imipenem

clavulanic acid

13. All of the following pertain to cephalosporins except:
A) have a beta-lactam ring
B) greater resistance to beta-lactamases
C) newer generations have activity against gram negatives
D) many administered by injection not orally
E) are synthetic drugs

are synthetic drugs

14. Which antimicrobic does not inhibit cell wall synthesis?
A) gentamicin
B) vancomycin
C) cephalosporins
D) penicillins
E) clavamox

gentamicin

15. Gram negative rods are often treated with:
A) penicillin G
B) vancomycin
C) aminoglycosides
D) synercid
E) isoniazid

aminoglycosides

16. This drug is used to treat cases of tuberculosis:
A) penicillin G
B) vancomycin
C) aminoglycosides
D) synercid
E) isoniazid

isoniazid

17. Which antimicrobic does not interfere with protein synthesis?
A) aminoglycosides
B) tetracyclines
C) erythromycin
D) trimethroprim
E) chloramphenicol

trimethroprim

18. Which of these drugs have the most narrow spectrum?
A) tetracycline
B) Isoniazid
C) erythromycin
D) aminoglycosides
E) cephalosporins

Isoniazid (tuberculosis treatment)

19. All of the following pertain to fluoroquinolones except:
A) broad spectrum
B) include ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin
C) are nephrotoxic
D) used to treat respiratory, urinary, and sexually transmitted infections
E) readily absorbed from intestines

are nephrotoxic

20. Antimicrobics that are macrolides:
A) disrupt cell membrane function
B) include tetracyclines
C) include azithromycin, clarithromcyin, and erythromycin
D) are very narrow-spectrum drugs
E) are hepatotoxic

include azithromycin, clarithromcyin, and erythromycin

21. The drug that can cause aplastic anemic, and is used to treat typhoid fever and brain abscesses is:
A) chloramphenicol
B) clindamycin
C) ciprofloxacin
D) bacitracin
E) gentamicin

chloramphenicol

22. The drug used against intestinal anaerobic bacteria, that can also alter normal flora causing antibiotic-associated colitis is:
A) chloramphenicol
B) clindamycin
C) ciprofloxacin
D) bacitracin
E) gentamicin

clindamycin

23. The antifungal drug that can be used to treat serious systemic fungal infections is:
A) nystatin
B) griseofulvin
C) amphotericin B
D) sulfa drugs
E) metronidazole

amphotericin B

24. The drug used for several protozoan infections is:
A) nystatin
B) griseofulvin
C) amphotericin B
D) sulfa drugs
E) metronidazole

metronidazole

25. Mebendazole, niclosamide, and ivermectin are drugs used to treat _____ infections.
A) bacterial
B) fungal
C) protozoan
D) helminthic
E) virus

helminthic

26. Ketoconazole, fluconazole, clotrimazole, and miconazole are broad-spectrum azoles used to treat _____ infections.
A) bacterial
B) fungal
C) protozoan
D) helminthic
E) virus

fungal

27. There are fewer antifungal, antiprotozoan, and antihelminth drugs compared to antibacterial drugs because fungi, protozoa, and helminths:
A) do not cause many human infections
B) are not affected by antimicrobics
C) are so similar to human cells that drug selective toxicity is difficult
D) are parasites found inside human cells
E) because their cells have fewer target sites compared to bacteria

are so similar to human cells that drug selective toxicity is difficult

28. Which of the following is not a mode of action of antivirals?
A) block penetration
B) block transcription and translation
C) inhibit DNA synthesis
D) block maturation
E) bond to ergosterol in the cell membrane

bond to ergosterol in the cell membrane

29. An antiviral that is a guanine analog would have an antiviral mode of action that:
A) blocks penetration
B) blocks transcription and translation
C) inhibits DNA synthesis
D) blocks maturation
E) bonds to ergosterol in the cell membrane

inhibits DNA synthesis

30. Antivirals that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat:
A) influenza A virus
B) HIV
C) herpes zoster virus
D) respiratory syncytial virus
E) hepatitis C virus

HIV

31. Acyclovir is used to treat:
A) influenza A virus
B) HIV
C) herpes zoster virus
D) respiratory syncytial virus
E) hepatitis C virus

herpes zoster virus? *****im guessing on this

32. The cellular basis for bacterial resistance to antimicrobics include:
A) bacterial chromosomal mutations
B) synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure
C) prevention of drug entry into the cell
D) alteration of drug receptors on cell targets
E) all of the choices are correct

all of the choices are correct

33. The multidrug resistant pumps in many bacterial cell membranes cause:
A) bacterial chromosomal mutations
B) synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure
C) prevention of drug entry into the cell
D) alteration of drug receptors on cell targets
E) all of the choices are correct

prevention of drug entry into the cell

34. Side effects that occur in patient tissues while they are on antimicrobic drugs include all the following except:
A) development of resistance to the drug
B) hepatotoxicity
C) nephrotoxicity
D) diarrhea
E) deafness

development of resistance to the drug

35. A superinfection results from:
A) build up of a drug to toxic levels in the patient
B) the wrong drug administered to the patient
C) an immune system reaction to the drug
D) decrease in most normal flora with overgrowth of an unaffected species
E) all of the choices are correct

decrease in most normal flora with overgrowth of an unaffected species

36. Drug susceptibility testing:
A) determines the patient's response to various antimicrobics
B) determines the pathogen's response to various antimicrobics
C) determines if normal flora will be affected by antimicrobics
D) determines if the drug is increasing to toxic levels in a patient
E) none of the choices are correct

determines the pathogen's response to various antimicrobics

37. A clinical microbiologist makes serial dilutions of several antimicrobics in broth, then incubates each drug dilution series with a standard amount of a patient's isolated pathogen. What is this microbiologist setting up?
A) Kirby-Bauer
B) antibiogram
C) E-test
D) MIC
E) therapeutic index (TI)

MIC

38. A ratio of the dose of the drug that is toxic to humans versus the minimum effective dose for that pathogen is assessed to predict the potential for toxic drug reactions. This is called the:
A) Kirby-Bauer
B) antibiogram
C) E-test
D) MIC
E) therapeutic index (TI)

therapeutic index (TI)

39. When a patient's immune system reacts adversely to a drug, this serious side effect is called a superinfection.
A) True
B) False

False

40. The most important antibiotic of the penicillin family is penicillin G.
A) True
B) False

True? I think

41. Species of Bacillus produce bacitracin and the polymyxins.
A) True
B) False

True

42. Ciprofloxacin is used to treat viral respiratory infections.
A) True
B) False

True

43. Resistance factor plasmids are transferred to other bacterial cells during transformation, transduction, and conjugation.
A) True
B) False

True

44. The MIC is the smallest concentration of an antimicrobic required to inhibit the growth of the microbe.
A) True
B) False

True

45. Drugs that are hepatotoxic cause damage to a patient's kidneys.
A) True
B) False

False

46. The Kirby-Bauer test uses an agar surface, seeded with the test bacterium, to which small discs containing a specific concentration of several drugs are placed on the surface.
A) True
B) False

true

47. An antimicrobic with a low therapeutic index is a safer choice compared to a drug with a high therapeutic index.
A) True?
B) False

true?

48. _____ are plasmids that contain genes for resistance to a drug.

Resistance Plasmids (R-Plasmids)

49. Sulfonamides are analogs of PABA and, as a result, they inhibit _____ synthesis.

...

50. Drugs that insert on the _____ ribosomal subunit prevent peptide bond formation or inhibit translocation of the subunit during translation.

...

51. Drugs that act by mimicking the normal substrate of an enzyme, thereby blocking its active site, are called _____.

...

52. All _____ consist of a thiazolidine ring, a beta-lactam ring, and an R group.

...

53. The major source of naturally produced penicillin is the mold _____.

...

54. The _____ are drugs that deposit in developing teeth and cause a permanent brown discoloration.

...

55. Polyene drugs bind to fungal _____ and cause loss of selective permeability.

...

56. Primaquine and chloroquine are drugs used in the treatment of _____.

...

57. If pathogen A is more resistant to an erythromycin disc on a Kirby-Bauer plate compared to pathogen B, then pathogen A will have a _____ zone of inhibition compared to pathogen B.

...

58. Discuss the problems with development of antifungal, antiprotozoan, antihelminth, and antiviral drugs compared to the antbacterial drugs. Discuss at least 3 different modes of action that have been developed for these drugs.

...

59. Describe how the therapeutic index of a drug is determined and explain its function.

...

60. Discuss 5 factors that have influenced the increasing development of resistant microbial strains.

...

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