Private Ground - Test 1

102 terms by tazzbranch

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Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with

all pilots

How often should you check the heading indicator and align it with the magnetic compass?

every 15 minutes

Which basic flight maneuver increases the load factor on an airplane as compared to straight and-
level flight?

turns

The CTAF/MULTICOM frequency for Garrison Airport is

122.9 MHz.

The length of the longest runway at Portland International Airport is

11,000 feet.

What are the basic VFR weather minimums, if any, for flight at 6,500 feet MSL in the airspace
shown by A?

Clear of clouds with three statute miles visibility

On a sectional chart, what does the notation "NO SVFR" above the airport name indicate?

No special VFR operations are permitted at anytime.

An airport beacon with two white flashes and one green flash indicates

a military airport.

When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be
particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to

sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence.

How should a pilot determine the direction of bank from an attitude indicator such as the one
illustrated?

By the relationship of the miniature airplane (C) to the deflected horizon bar (B).

Which control surfaces are usually located on the empennage?

Rudder, elevator, stabilator

The most practical way to compensate for blind spots in aircraft design while climbing or
descending is to make

shallow S-turns.

Except when necessary for takeoff and landing, when you fly over congested areas, you must
maintain an altitude of at least 1,000 feet

above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued
under which subject number?

60

What requirements must be met before you enter the airspace represented in D?

Two-way radio communications

The three pressure instruments connected to the pitot-static system are the

airspeed indicator, altimeter, and vertical speed indicator

Excessively high engine temperatures will

cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent
internal engine damage.

The possibility of carburetor icing exists even when the ambient air temperature is as

high as 70°F and the relative humidity is high.

What information concerning Greater Cincinnati Airport in Covington, Kentucky, is contained in
the accompanying NOTAM excerpt?

the airport has an experimental lighting system

Penetration of active warning areas by nonparticipating aircraft should be avoided because of

unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles.

A power loss occurs when you apply carburetor heat because

less dense air is entering the engine.

What are the control characteristics of an aircraft with the CG forward of limits?

Very stable pitch, inadequate elevator control for landing, longer takeoff run, and greater nose-over tendency

When using two-bar VASI lights, what will you see when you are on the proper glide slope?

Far bar red, near bar white.

After landing at a tower-controlled airport, when should the pilot contact ground control?

When advised by the tower to do so.

Floating caused by the phenomenon of ground effect will be most realized during an approach
to land when at

less than the length of the wingspan above the surface.

What frequency should you use to announce your position during an approach for a landing at
Taos Municipal?

122.8 MHz

In what flight condition is torque effect the greatest in a single-engine airplane?

Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.

What is the full flap operating range for the airplane?

60 to 100 MPH.

In the Northern Hemisphere, if an aircraft is accelerated or decelerated, the magnetic compass
will normally indicate

correctly when on a north or south heading.

What are the characteristics of a monocoque airplane structure?

Almost all structural loads are carried by the outer skin of the airplane.

The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is

to enter 45° at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude.

The VHF emergency frequency monitored by most ground facilities is

121.5 MHz.

How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?

There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.

One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to

increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.

(Area 2.) The day VFR visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over the town of Cooperstown, after departing and climbing out of the Cooperstown Airport at or below 700 feet
AGL are

1 mile and clear of clouds.

If the aircraft's radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport?

Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower.

A turn coordinator provides an indication of the

movement of the aircraft about the yaw and roll axis.

What are the special VFR weather minimums for flight within Class D airspace?

Clear of the clouds with one statute mile visibility

Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when

the unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally.

What action, if any, is required when you are departing a satellite airport that does not have an
operating control tower that is within Class C airspace?

Contact ATC as soon as practicable.

Assume that you land at an airport with the altimeter set to 29.92 instead of the current setting
of 30.00. What will the altimeter read if the field elevation is 2,000 feet MSL?

1,920 feet MSL

If the engine magneto switch is turned to the "OFF" position, but the engine continues to run,
the probable cause is

a broken magneto ground wire.

Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are
required for landings or takeoffs.

at all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions.

A large letter "X" placed near the runway threshold indicates the

runway is closed

A controller may issue a safety alert to an aircraft under his control when that aircraft is

in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or another aircraft.

Dihedral is used to stabilize the airplane about the

longitudinal axis.

This symbol is used on sectional charts to represent an airport which has

a hard-surfaced runway that is 1,500 feet to 8,069 feet in length.

The angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the relative wind is known as the angle of

attack.

No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class
D airspace unless the

ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles.

The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately

080° and 260° magnetic.

What condition must be present for carburetor icing to occur?

High relative humidity

TRSA Service in the terminal radar program provides

sequencing and separation for participating VFR aircraft.

An electrical system failure (battery and alternator) occurs during flight. In this situation, you would

experience avionics equipment failure.

Wingtip vortices contribute to the production of

induced drag.

Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-andlevel
flight?

Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued
under which subject number?

60

Which instrument will become inoperative if the pitot tube becomes clogged?

Airspeed.

How often should you check the heading indicator and align it with the magnetic compass?

Every 15 minutes

What VFR weather minimums are required to take off from Salina Airport?

Visibility three miles and a ceiling of 1,000 feet, or special VFR

When in radar contact, who is primarily responsible for VFR aircraft separation?

Pilot in command

What is the primary force that causes an airplane to turn?

Horizontal component of lift

What causes the separation of air over the wing during a stall?

The angle formed by the wing chord line and the relative wind is excessive, regardless of the airspeed or attitude.

The attitude indicator reflects the airplane's movement about the

longitudinal and lateral axes.

The recommended method of scanning for other aircraft during the day is to use

a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10° sector of the viewing area.

If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85, what change occurs?

700-foot increase in indicated altitude.

To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and
a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the

fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps.

What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area
(MOA)?

Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.

P-factor is one of the forces that causes the airplane to

yaw to the left

The purpose of a displaced threshold is to

cause aircraft to touch down farther down the runway.

Refer to the illustration and determine the appropriate landing runway and traffic pattern
direction.

Runway 36, right-hand traffic

Excessive cylinder head and engine oil temperatures can be caused by

using a lower-than-normal fuel grade.

The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be
verified by applying carburetor heat and noting

a decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.

How are the lift and drag components of the wing affected when you lower the flaps?

Both lift and drag increase

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to
operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?

An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only

when the associated control tower is in operation.

Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only

when the associated control tower is in operation.

At nontower airports without an FSS or UNICOM, the CTAF usually is

122.9 MHz.

The arrows that appear on the end of the north/south runway indicate that the area

cannot be used for landing, but may be used for taxiing and takeoff.

Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?

Class C

After departing runway 36, you make a left turn to a heading of 180°. If the magnetic compass
initially indicates a turn in the opposite direction, you should know that this reaction is

normal for all magnetic compasses under similar conditions.

When you use the words "PAN-PAN" in a radio message, it indicates you have

an urgent situation requiring priority on the radio frequency and timely, but not immediate, assistance.

When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on

121.5 and 243.0 MHz.

During flight, when are the indications of a magnetic compass accurate?

Only in straight-and-level unaccelerated flight.

One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for

improved engine performance.

If the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on

Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right.

The letters VHF/DF appearing in the Airport/Facility Directory for a certain airport indicate that

the Flight Service Station has equipment with which to determine your direction from the station.

An airport's rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates

that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums.

When departing Portland International Airport to the north, the proper frequency for departure
control is

133.0

Loading an airplane to the most aft CG will cause the airplane to be

less stable at all speeds.

The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than
1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is

5 miles.

An on glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is

a green light signal.

According to the markings on the accompanying airspeed indicator, what is the maximum
speed with flaps fully extended?

85 knots

When approaching an airport with an operating control tower, you must contact the tower
before entering the

Class D airspace.

FAA Advisory Circulars provide what type of information?

Nonregulatory, but necessary for good operating practices

Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional
Aeronautical Charts?

Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue.

Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the

Airport/Facility Directory.

Detonation can be described as

fuel in the cylinders exploding instead of burning smoothly.

What is the minimum ceiling requirement for VFR operations in the airspace represented in C?

1,000 feet

(Area 3) If Redbird Tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a Common
Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?

120.3 MHz.

The turn coordinator provides a direct indication of aircraft

bank angle.

No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace at night under special VFR unless
the

airplane is equipped for instrument flight.

What two conditions normally cause an increase in lift?

Increased angle of attack and increased speed

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