Brooker Biology Exam 5-7 test bank

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Booker Biology, Chapters 5-7

1. Which of the following organisms is likely to contain biomembranes?
A. plants
B. animals
C. prokaryotes
D. plants and animals
E. All living organisms contain biomembranes.

E

2. Cellular membranes are
A. fluid.
B. solely composed of lipids.
C. composed of a single layer of amphipathic molecules.
D. selective to the transport of gases and small molecules only.
E. characteristic of eukaryotes, but not prokaryotes.

A

3. Which of the following is the major lipid found in membranes?
A. steroids
B. cholesterol
C. triglycerides
D. phospholipids
E. saturated fatty acids

D

4. Which of the following is NOT true of the plasma membrane?
A. It is composed of an extracellular and intracellular layer of phospholipids.
B. The extracellular and intracellular layers or leaflets are highly symmetrical.
C. The membrane contains peripheral proteins.
D. Integral proteins span through the membrane.
E. The membrane contains glycolipids and glycoproteins.

B

5. Which of the following statements about plasma membranes is INCORRECT?
A. They are composed of phospholipids.
B. They have both integral and peripheral proteins.
C. They are relatively rigid structures.
D. They are composed of two leaflets of phospholipids.
E. They function to separate the extracellular and intracellular environment.

B

6. Scientists unearth a Wooly Mammoth from the Siberian Ice Sheath and discover that a eukaryotic "amoeba"-like cell is still alive. Which component of the cell membrane might contribute to maintaining the fluidity of plasma membranes under freezing conditions?
A. peripheral proteins
B. high levels of long fatty acyl tails within the lipid bilayer
C. high levels of unsaturated fatty acyl tails within the lipid bilayer
D. absence of cholesterol
E. high levels of saturated fatty acyl tails within the lipid bilayer

C

7. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about biomembranes?
A. The phospholipid tails interact with water.
B. The phospholipid head groups are repelled by water.
C. Electron microscopy indicates the membrane looks like train tracks with two light lines of lipids separated by a dark line containing proteins.
D. The membrane is composed of two protein layers separated by a lipid layer.
E. Membrane proteins are globular, and some span the phospholipid bilayer and project from both sides of the membrane.

E

8. A scientist produces an artificial membrane from phospholipids and notices that oxygen, but not glucose readily moves through the membrane. What might account for the inability of glucose to move through the artificial membrane?
A. The artificial membrane lacked a protein needed for glucose transport.
B. The artificial membrane lacked the appropriate types of phospholipids for glucose transport.
C. Oxygen readily passes through the membrane, so glucose should have as well.
D. The membrane lacked an adequate amount of amphipathic molecules for glucose transport.
E. Thermodynamics does not allow glucose to pass through membranes produced either artificially or from living organisms.

A

9. Which of the following is NOT a component of plasma membranes?
A. glycosylated proteins
B. phospholipids
C. glycolipids
D. glycosylated nucleic acids
E. cholesterol

D

10. Around what percentage of all genes encode membrane proteins?
A. 0%
B. 10%
C. 25%
D. 50%
E. 75%

C

11. Which of the following is NOT a function of cellular membranes?
A. selective uptake and export of ions and molecules
B. cell compartmentalization
C. cell signaling
D. maintenance of cell shape
E. cell adhesion

D

12. Which of the following statements is TRUE of membrane phospholipids?
A. The hydrophilic head groups face the interior portion of the membrane.
B. The hydrophobic tail groups face the exterior portion of the membrane.
C. They spontaneously flip-flop from one side of the membrane to the other.
D. They freely move laterally within the membrane.
E. They rarely flip-flop across or move laterally within the membrane.

D

13. Phospholipids and ________ are the major components of cell membranes.
A. glycolipids
B. cholesterol
C. glucose transporters
D. glycocalyx
E. proteins

E

14. Cell surface molecules are labeled with a fluorescent tag and then a portion of them are bleached with a laser beam. What would one observe after the cell is incubated for a few minutes?
A. The bleached molecules would disappear into the cell.
B. The bleached molecules would diffuse laterally through the membrane and intermix with unbleached molecules.
C. The bleached molecules would remain in the spot where bleaching occurred.
D. All the bleached molecules would flip-flop across the cell membrane.
E. All of the choices are correct.

B

15. The following affect membrane fluidity EXCEPT
A. glycoprotein composition.
B. cholesterol.
C. phospholipid composition.
D. the length of the phospholipid fatty acyl tail.
E. the relative amounts of phospholipids containing saturated or unsaturated fatty acyl tails.

E

16. Which of the following is TRUE of phospholipids that flip-flop across the lipid bilayer?
A. The process requires energy.
B. The process occurs spontaneously, requiring no energy.
C. The process requires an enzyme called flippase.
D. The process requires energy and the flippase enzyme.
E. The process occurs spontaneously and requires the flippase enzyme.

D

17. Cellular membranes are mosaic and
A. fluid.
B. rigid.
C. symmetrical.
D. highly permeable to large molecules.
E. All of the choices are correct.

A

18. How might a plant cell compensate for the excessive membrane fluidity that occurs during prolonged exposures to elevated temperature?
A. Reduce membrane cholesterol content.
B. Alter the lipid composition to have longer fatty acyl tails and fewer double bonds.
C. Alter the lipid composition to have shorter fatty acyl tails and more double bonds.
D. Alter the lipid composition to have shorter and more unsaturated fatty acyl tails.
E. Reduce cholesterol content and alter the lipid composition to have shorter fatty acyl tails.

B

19. Glycosylated proteins and lipids within the plasma membrane are important for
A. cell recognition.
B. cell protection.
C. cell energy storage.
D. cell recognition and protection.
E. cell protection and energy storage.

D

20. Which of the following is important for allowing large, charged molecules to pass through the membrane?
A. peripheral proteins
B. cholesterol
C. glycosylated lipids
D. transmembrane proteins
E. carbohydrate channels

D

21. Placing celery sticks in fresh water will make them more turgid and harder. This is because
A. the celery is hypotonic to fresh water.
B. the celery is hypertonic to fresh water.
C. the celery is isotonic to fresh water.
D. water moves from the celery sticks into fresh water.
E. None of the choices are correct.

B

22. Of the following molecules, which passes through a lipid bilayer most readily?
A. carbon dioxide
B. glucose
C. K+
D. arginine
E. RNA

A

23. Which of the following molecules would you predict moves through a lipid bilayer most rapidly?
A. C6H12O6
B. CH3OH
C. C2H5OH
D. C4H10
E. NH2SO2CH3

24. Animal cells are permeable to water and urea but NOT to sucrose. The inside of a cell contains 1 M sucrose and 1 M urea and the outside 1 M sucrose and 2 M urea. The solution inside with respect to outside the cell is
A. hypotonic.
B. turgid.
C. isotonic.
D. saturated.
E. hypertonic.

DA

25. Animal cells are permeable to water and urea but NOT to sucrose. Initially, the inside of a cell contains 1 M sucrose and 1 M urea and the outside 1 M sucrose and 2 M urea. After the system reaches equilibrium, what changes are observed?
A. The molarity of urea would be higher outside than inside the cell.
B. The molarity of sucrose would be similar inside and outside the cell.
C. Water would move out of the cell causing the cell to shrivel.
D. The molarity of urea would be higher outside the cell and the molarity of sucrose would be similar inside and outside the cell.
E. The molarity of sucrose would be similar inside and outside the cell and water would move out of the cell causing the cell to shrivel.

E

26. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about active transport?
A. It requires energy.
B. It is an active process in which molecules move from a region of lower concentration to one of higher concentration.
C. It requires integral proteins.
D. It is necessary to maintain solute gradients across a membrane.
E. All of the choices are correct.

E

27. Which of the following is NOT true of passive diffusion?
A. Passive diffusion is the process by which molecules move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration.
B. Passive diffusion is a spontaneous process.
C. Passive diffusion requires the presence of a transmembrane protein.
D. Passive diffusion will occur so long as the membrane is freely permeable to the solute.
E. Passive diffusion requires no energy.

C

28. Following a meal glucose must move from the gut lumen where there is a high glucose concentration into the intestinal cell where there is a relatively low level of glucose. This movement is called
A. passive diffusion.
B. facilitated diffusion.
C. active transport.
D. endocytosis.
E. exocytosis.

B

29. The pressure required to stop water from moving across the membrane by osmosis is called
A. transport pressure.
B. crenation pressure.
C. atmospheric pressure.
D. osmotic pressure.
E. mechanical pressure.

D

30. Water diffuses through certain organs such as the kidneys and bladder much faster than would occur by passive diffusion through a lipid bilayer alone. What accounts for this more rapid rate of water transport in these organs?
A. The composition of lipids changes to promote water transport.
B. Presence of aquaporin channels for facilitated diffusion of water.
C. Presence of a water pump.
D. Presence of an ATP-driven enzyme for water transport.
E. The presence of molecules that bind water and change its membrane permeability properties.

B

31. The movement of sucrose and H+ into the cell by a common membrane protein reflects transport through a
A. voltage-gated channel.
B. mechanosensitive channel.
C. uniporter.
D. symporter.
E. antiporter.

D

32. The statements about transport of Ca2+ from the cytosol (low Ca2+ concentration) into the endoplasmic reticulum (high Ca2+ concentration) are true EXCEPT which of the following?
A. Calcium movement involves the use of a pump.
B. Calcium movement involves active transport.
C. Calcium movement occurs by facilitated diffusion using a transporter protein.
D. Calcium movement requires energy.
E. Calcium movement occurs through a transmembrane protein.

C

33. Acetylcholine binds this membrane protein, which subsequently opens to allow sodium to enter the cell. Acetylcholine exerts its effect on what type of transport protein?
A. ligand-gated channel
B. voltage-gated channel
C. mechanosensitive-gated channels
D. regulatory protein-gated channels
E. stretch-sensitive gated channels

A

34. Sodium concentrations are higher outside and glucose concentrations are higher inside the cell. Using the same membrane protein for Na+ and glucose transport, what is it called when a Na+ electrochemical gradient is used to drive glucose transport into the cell against its concentration gradient?
A. primary active transport
B. secondary active transport
C. primary facilitated diffusion
D. secondary facilitated diffusion
E. passive diffusion

b

35. ________ bind two or more ions or molecules and transport them in opposite directions across a membrane.
A. uniporters
B. symporters
C. antiporters
D. dual transporters
E. channel pumps

c

36. Which of the following statement about the plasma membrane Na+/K+-ATPase pump is INCORRECT?
A. It is used to generate sodium and potassium gradients across the membrane.
B. It is an electrogenic pump.
C. It is a pump for active transport of K+ out of the cell and Na+ into the cell.
D. It is a pump for active transport of K+ into the cell and Na+ out of the cell.
E. It is a pump that utilizes energy from ATP.

c

36. Which of the following statement about the plasma membrane Na+/K+-ATPase pump is INCORRECT?
A. It is used to generate sodium and potassium gradients across the membrane.
B. It is an electrogenic pump.
C. It is a pump for active transport of K+ out of the cell and Na+ into the cell.
D. It is a pump for active transport of K+ into the cell and Na+ out of the cell.
E. It is a pump that utilizes energy from ATP.

c

37. The release of insulin from pancreatic cells occurs by
A. endocytosis.
B. pinocytosis.
C. phagocytosis.
D. exocytosis.
E. receptor-mediated endocytosis.

d

38. Which of the following best describes the selective uptake of a specific cargo molecule into the cell through receptor binding and aggregation?
A. pinocytosis
B. receptor-mediated endocytosis
C. autophagocytosis
D. phagocytosis
E. receptor-mediated exocytosis

b

39. Which of the following represents two general factors that determine the fate of a chemical reaction in living cells?
A. its enzyme and rate
B. its enzyme and direction
C. its direction and rate
D. its rate and product
E. its enzyme and products

c

40. Water held behind a dam would best reflect ______.
A. potential energy
B. kinetic energy
C. chemical energy
D. heat energy
E. mechanical energy

a

41. All of the following have potential energy EXCEPT
A. ATP.
B. nitrogen.
C. an electrical/ion gradient.
D. concentration gradient.
E. NADH

b

42. According to the first law of thermodynamics
A. the transfer of energy increases the disorder of a system.
B. the transfer of energy increases entropy.
C. energy cannot be created or destroyed.
D. once energy is created it can be destroyed.
E. kinetic energy is based on location.

c

43. The amount of available energy that can be used to promote change do work is called
A. enthalpy.
B. entropy.
C. free energy.
D. kinetic energy.
E. heat.

c

44. Which of the following is TRUE for a reaction that has a ΔG 0?
A. The reaction will require energy.
B. The reaction will yield energy.
C. The reaction is spontaneous.
D. The reaction will require energy and is spontaneous.
E. The reaction will yield energy and is spontaneous.

e

45. Which is True of the following reaction: Pi + ADP -> ATP?
A. It has a change in free energy that is less than 0.
B. It has a change in free energy that is greater than 0.
C. It can be used to drive endergonic reactions.
D. It yields energy.
E. It has a change in free energy that is greater than 0, and hence can be used to drive endergonic reactions.

b

46. Which of the following reactions would require the hydrolysis of at least two ATP molecules (ΔG = -14.6 kCal) for it to occur?
A. A reaction that has a ΔG = -8 kCal.
B. A reaction that has a ΔG = +8 kCal.
C. A reaction that has a ΔG = -16 kCal.
D. A reaction that has a ΔG = +16 kCal.
E. A reaction that has a ΔG = -14.6 kCal.

b

47. A chemical reaction that has a positive ΔG is correctly described as
A. endergonic.
B. endothermic.
C. enthalpic.
D. spontaneous
E. exothermic.

a

48. Which of the following is TRUE for ALL exergonic reactions?
A. The products have more total energy than the reactants.
B. The reaction proceeds with a net release of free energy.
C. Some reactants will be converted to products.
D. A net input of energy from the surroundings is required for the reactions to proceed.
E. The reactions are nonspontaneous.

b

49. Which of the following statements is a logical consequence of the second law of thermodynamics?
A. If the entropy of a system increases, there must be a corresponding decrease in the entropy of the universe.
B. If there is an increase in the energy of a system, there must be a corresponding decrease in the energy of the rest of the universe.
C. Every energy transfer requires activation energy from the environment.
D. Every chemical reaction must increase the total entropy of the universe.
E. Energy can be transferred or transformed, but it cannot be created or destroyed.

d

50. Which of the following statements about enzymes is FALSE?
A. The active site of the enzyme is where the chemical reaction takes place.
B. The substrate binds to the enzyme with low affinity.
C. The enzyme undergoes a conformational change that brings substrates closer together in an induced fit.
D. The optimal activity of an enzyme occurs over a narrow temperature range.
E. The optimal activity of an enzyme occurs within a narrow pH range.

b

51. How does an enzyme work to catalyze a reaction?
A. It supplies the energy to speed up a reaction.
B. It lowers the energy barrier needed for reactants to achieve the transition state.
C. It lowers the energy of activation of a reaction
D. It supplies the energy to speed up a reaction and lowers the energy barrier needed for reactants to achieve the transition state.
E. It lowers the energy barrier needed for reactants to achieve the transition state or lowers the energy of activation of a reaction.

e

52. If one were to double the amount of enzyme in a reaction with an initial ΔG of -5 kcal/mole, what would the ΔG be?
A. -5 kcal/mole
B. -10 kcal/mole
C. -20 kcal/mole
D. +5 kcal/mole
E. +10 kcal/mole

a

53. Altering the three-dimensional structure of an enzyme might
A. change the amount of energy needed for a reaction.
B. prevent the substrate from binding the enzyme's active site.
C. change the type of substrate that binds the enzyme's active site.
D. change the type of product produced in the reaction.
E. allow the reaction to occur at a faster rate.

b

54. The primary function of an enzyme or any biological catalyst is to
A. reduce the energy of activation of a reaction.
B. increase the rate of a reaction.
C. change the direction of a reaction.
D. reduced the energy of activation and increase the rate of a reaction.
E. increase the rate of a reaction and change the direction of a reaction.

d

55. How can one increase the rate of a chemical reaction?
A. Increase the activation energy needed.
B. Cool the reactants.
C. Decrease the concentration of the reactants.
D. Add a catalyst.
E. Increase the entropy of the reactants.

d

56. Which of the following statements regarding enzymes is true?
A. Enzymes decrease the free energy change of a reaction.
B. Enzymes increase the rate of a reaction.
C. Enzymes change the direction of chemical reactions.
D. Enzymes are permanently altered by the reactions they catalyze.
E. Enzymes prevent changes in substrate concentrations.

b

57. Which of the following would best reflect the general steps of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction?
A. enzyme undergoes conformational changes → substrates bind to enzyme → substrates are converted to products → products are released.
B. substrates bind to enzyme →substrates are converted to products → enzyme undergoes conformational changes → products are released
C. substrates bind to enzyme → enzyme undergoes conformational changes → substrates are converted to products → products are released
D. enzyme undergoes conformational changes →substrates are converted to products → substrates bind to enzyme → products are released
E. substrates bind to enzyme → substrates are converted to products → products are released → enzyme undergoes conformational changes

c

58. Which term most precisely describes the process of building larger molecules from smaller ones?
A. exergonic
B. catabolism
C. metabolism
D. hydrolysis
E. anabolism

e

59. Which of the following is NOT true for ATP?
A. It is produced from ATP synthase.
B. It is produced by a rotary machine.
C. Its production requires an exergonic reaction.
D. Its hydrolysis yields energy.
E. Its hydrolysis can drive endergonic reactions.

c

60. Which of the following statements about catabolic reactions is FALSE?
A. They recycle organic building blocks.
B. They produce energy like ATP.
C. They produce energy in the form of energy intermediates like NADH.
D. They occur through the oxidation of substrates.
E. They usually require an input of energy.

e

61. Which of the statements in INCORRECT about the following reaction? Phosphoenolpyruvate + ADP → Pyruvate + ATP (ΔG = -7.5 kcal/mole)
A. It is anabolic.
B. It is catabolic.
C. It can be used to drive an endergonic reaction.
D. The synthesis of ATP occurs by substrate-level phosphorylation.
E. It is a reaction that yields energy.

a

62. For the generalized equation Ae- +B →A + Be-, where e represents an electron. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Molecule A is reduced.
B. Molecule B is oxidzied.
C. Molecule A is oxidized.
D. Molecule B is reduced.
E. Both molecule A is oxidized and molecule B is reduced.

e

63. Which term most precisely describes the cellular process of breaking down large molecules into smaller ones?
A. catalysis
B. metabolism
C. anabolism
D. dehydration
E. catabolism

e

64. Which of the following statements about feedback inhibition in metabolic pathways is most CORRECT?
A. The product of the pathway inhibits its own production by binding reactants in the metabolic pathway.
B. The product of the pathway inhibits its own production by competitively inhibiting the binding of a substrate to the active site of an enzyme within the metabolic pathway.
C. The product of the pathway inhibits its own production by noncompetitively inhibiting the binding of a substrate to the active site of an enyzme within the metabolic pathway.
D. The product of the pathway inhibits its own production by noncompetitively binding to reactants.
E. All of the choices are correct.

c

65. In the biochemical regulation of metabolic pathways, how would one overcome the effects of a competitive inhibitor on enzyme activity?
A. Increase the amount of substrate for the enzyme.
B. Increase the amount of competitive inhibitor.
C. Increase the temperature of the reaction.
D. Decrease the amount of enzyme.
E. Add a noncompetitive inhibitor of the enzyme.

a

66. Which of the following structures or molecular machines is important for protein degradation in eukaryotes?
A. cytoskeleton
B. flagellum
C. ribosome
D. ATP synthase
E. proteasome

e

67. Which of the following statements about ubiquitin is TRUE?
A. Ubiquitin recognizes improperly folded proteins.
B. Ubiquitin targets proteins for degradation.
C. Ubiquitin targets proteins for post-translational processing.
D. Ubiquitin recognizes improperly folded proteins and targets them for degradation.
E. Ubiquitin targets proteins for degradation and post-translational processing.

d

68. Which is the correct sequence of events for protein degradation in eukaryotes?
A. ubiquitin binds target protein → protein unfolds and enters proteasome → protein directed to proteasome → protein digested → amino acids are released and recycled
B. ubiquitin binds target protein → protein directed to proteasome → protein unfolds and enters proteasome → protein digested → amino acids are released and recycled
C. protein directed to proteasome → ubiquitin binds target protein → protein unfolds and enters proteasome → protein digested → amino acids are released and recycled
D. protein directed to proteasome → protein unfolds and enters proteasome → ubiquitin binds target protein → protein digested → amino acids are released and recycled
E. protein directed to proteasome → protein unfolds and enters proteasome → protein digested → ubiquitin binds target protein → amino acids are released and recycled

b

69. Which two are primary complexes for protein synthesis and degradation in eukaryotes?
A. ribosomes and proteasomes
B. ribosomes and lysosomes
C. proteases and lysosomes
D. proteases and proteasomes
E. ribosomes and mRNA

a

70. The equation, C6H12O6 + 6O2 →6CO2 + 6H2O (ATP + Heat), describes a reaction that
A. is endergonic.
B. requires energy.
C. occurs in plants only.
D. is exergonic.
E. is anabolic.

d

71. The equation, C6H12O6 + 6O2 →6CO2 + 6H2O (ATP + Heat), describes which of the following processes?
A. photosynthesis
B. cell respiration
C. cell fermentation
D. glycolysis
E. anaerobic metabolism

b

72. Which of the following are the final by-products of glucose oxidation during aerobic cell respiration?
A. ATP only
B. heat only
C. carbon dioxide only
D. both ATP and heat only
E. ATP, heat, and carbon dioxide

e

73. Which of the following processes will occur in the presence or absence of oxygen?
A. glycolysis
B. electron transport chain
C. oxidative phosphorylation
D. cellular respiration
E. citric acid cycle

a

74. Where does glycolysis takes place?
A. mitochondrial matrix
B. mitochondrial membrane
C. mitochondrial inner membrane
D. mitochondrial intermembrane space
E. cytosol

e

75. Which of the following is NOT a process of aerobic respiration?
A. citric acid cycle
B. glycolysis
C. acetyl CoA formation
D. oxidative phosphorylation
E. lactate fermentation

e

76. Which of the following is TRUE of the citric acid cycle?
A. It yields most of the NAD+ in cell respiration.
B. It produces oxygen.
C. It yields ATP, NADH, and FADH2 as energy intermediates.
D. It occurs on the inner membrane of the mitochondria.
E. It produces ATP as the primary energy intermediate.

c

77. Which of the following function: location relationship is INCORRECT?
A. acetyl CoA formation; cytosol
B. citric acid cycle; mitochondria matrix
C. oxidative phosphorylation; mitochondria inner membrane
D. glycolysis; cytosol
E. electron transport chain and ATP synthase; mitochondria inner membrane

a

78. Which compound has the highest free energy and produces the most ATP when oxidized?
A. acetyl CoA
B. glucose
C. pyruvate
D. carbon
E. both pyruvate and carbon

b

79. Cellular respiration produces the most chemical in the form of ATP from which of the following?
A. the electron transport chain
B. the citric acid cycle
C. substrate-level phosphorylation
D. glycolysis
E. oxidative phosphorylation

e

80. How many ATP and NADH molecules are produced from each molecule of glucose in the citric acid cycle only?
A. 4 ATP, 2 NADH
B. 3 ATP, 4 NADH
C. 2 ATP, 6 NADH
D. 1 ATP, 2 NADH
E. 0 ATP, 6 NADH

c

81. How many net ATP and NADH molecules are produced from one molecule of glucose during glycolysis?
A. 4 ATP, 2 NADH
B. 3 ATP, 4 NADH
C. 2 ATP, 6 NADH
D. 2 ATP, 2 NADH
E. 0 ATP, 6 NADH

d

82. High-energy electrons from molecules of NADH and FADH2 are transferred to a chain of proteins within the electron transport chain. What is the final electron acceptor of the electron transport chain?
A. carbon dioxide
B. oxygen
C. cytochrome c
D. ubiquinone
E. NAD+

c

83. Which of the following statements is TRUE of both aerobic and anaerobic respiration?
A. Both use glycolysis to oxidize glucose to pyruvate.
B. Both produce NADH as high-energy intermediates.
C. Both produce either lactic acid or enthanol as a bioproduct.
D. Both use glycolysis to oxidize glucose to pyruvate and both produce NADH as high-energy intermediates.
E. Both produce NADH as high-energy intermediates and both produce either lactic acid or enthanol as a bioproduct.

d

84. Which would be TRUE if a metabolic poison were to completely inhibit the function of mitochondrial ATP synthase?
A. The pH difference across the inner mitochondrial membrane would decrease.
B. The pH difference across the inner mitochondrial membrane would increase.
C. ATP synthesis would increase.
D. Oxygen consumption would decrease.
E. The accumulation of NADH would increase.

b

85. Which of the following is most directly responsible for driving ATP synthase and the production of ATP in cellular respiration?
A. The electron transport chain pumping H+ from the mitochondrial matrix into the intermembrane space.
B. The flow of electrons down the electron transport chain.
C. The loss in free energy that occurs as an electron moves down the transport chain.
D. The H+ electrochemical gradient across the inner mitochondria membrane.
E. The ability of oxygen to rapidly capture an electron and energize ATP synthase.

e

86. Which of the following statements about the electron transport chain in cell respiration is CORRECT?
A. Electrons move from NADH to a chain of proteins with lower electronegativities.
B. The electron transport chain of proteins uses ATP to pump H+ across the inner mitochondria membrane against its electrochemical gradient.
C. The loss in free energy of the electron initially donated by NADH is used to transport H+ across the inner mitochondrial membrane against its electrochemical gradient.
D. The electron transport chain of proteins contains pores that are leaky to H+.
E. The ATP synthase pump generates a H+ gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane.

c

87. Assuming a fat molecule can be oxidized into 2 glycerol molecules, which are immediately converted to glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate, in intermediate glycolysis, how many ATP can be produced from a fat molecule?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 24
D. 36
E. 60

d

88. Where are the protein complexes associated with the electron transport chain located?
A. mitochondrial matrix
B. mitochondrial membrane
C. mitochondrial inner membrane
D. mitochondrial intermembrane space
E. cytosol

c

89. During glycolysis, glucose is broken down into
A. acetyl CoA.
B. NADH.
C. pyruvate.
D. oxygen.
E. ATP.

c

90. The ATP made during glycolysis is generated by
A. substrate-level phosphorylation.
B. electron transport.
C. photophosphorylation.
D. chemisosmosis.
E. oxidation of NADH to NAD+

a

91. During the cleavage stage of glycolysis, fructose-1, 6 biphosphate is broken down into
A. citric acid.
B. two molecules of pyruvate.
C. two molecules of ATP.
D. two molecules of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate.
E. glucose.

d

92. In addition to ATP, what are the end products of glycolysis?
A. CO2 and NADH
B. CO2 and pyruvate
C. H2O, NADH, and citrate
D. NADH and pyruvate
E. CO2 and H2O

d

93. In the citric acid cycle, the acetyl group is removed from acetyl CoA and attached to oxaloacetate to form
A. fumarate.
B. succinate.
C. citrate.
D. malate.
E. oxaloacetate.

c

94. In the citric acid cycle, succinate is oxidized to form
A. fumarate.
B. succinate.
C. citrate.
D. malate.
E. oxaloacetate.

a

95. In the citric acid cycle, malate is oxidized to form
A. fumarate.
B. succinate.
C. citrate.
D. malate.
E. oxaloacetate.

e

96. The enzyme responsible for oxidizing pyruvate once it enters the mitochondrial matrix is
A. pyruvate oxidase
B. pyruvate dehydrogenase.
C. hexokinase
D. ATP synthase.
E. peptidase.

b

97. Which pathway shows the correct path of electron transfer from a molecule of NADH?
A. NADH hydrogenase → ubiquinone → cytochrome oxidase → cytochrome b-c1 → cytochrome c → O2
B. NADH hydrogenase → ubiquinone → cytochrome c → cytochrome b-c1→ cytochrome oxidase → O2
C. ubiquinone → cytochrome b-c1→ cytochrome c → cytochrome oxidase → NADH hydrogenase → O2
D. NADH hydrogenase → ubiquinone → cytochrome b-c1→ cytochrome c → cytochrome oxidase → O2
E. ubiquinone → cytochrome b-c1→ cytochrome c → NADH hydrogenase → cytochrome oxidase → O2

d

98. Which pathway shows the correct path of electron transfer from a molecule of FADH2?
A. succinate reductase → ubiquinone → cytochrome oxidase → cytochrome b-c1 → cytochrome c → O2
B. succinate reductase → ubiquinone → cytochrome b-c1→ cytochrome c → cytochrome oxidase → O2
C. ubiquinone → cytochrome b-c1→ cytochrome c → cytochrome oxidase → NADH hydrogenase → O2
D. succinate reductase → ubiquinone → cytochrome b-c1→ cytochrome c → cytochrome oxidase → O2
E. ubiquinone → cytochrome b-c1→ cytochrome c → NADH hydrogenase → cytochrome oxidase → O2

b,d

99. Energy released by the electron transport chain is used to pump H+ ions into which location?
A. cytosol
B. mitochondrial outer membrane
C. mitochondrial inner membrane
D. mitochondrial intermembrane space
E. mitochondrial matrix

d

100. Sports physiologists at an Olympic training center wanted to monitor athletes to determine at what point their muscles were functioning anaerobically. They could do this by checking for the buildup of which molecule?
A. ATP
B. lactate
C. carbon dioxide
D. ADP
E. oxygen

b

101. Which of the following is INCORRECT for ethanol fermentation?
A. A source of organic sugar is required, for instance from malt.
B. Results in a net production of NADH.
C. Glucose is oxidized to pyruvate as one of the steps.
D. Carbon dioxide and ATP are produced.
E. NADH is used to reduce acetaldehyde to ethanol.

b

102. Which of the following does NOT occur during yeast fermentation?
A. Acetylaldehyde is reduced to make ethanol.
B. Decrease in NADH.
C. Lactate is produced.
D. Pyruvate is broken down into CO2 and acetylaldehyde.
E. NADH is oxidized to NAD+

c

103. When muscles cells are deprived of oxygen, the heart still pumps. What must the heart cells be able to do?
A. derive sufficient energy from fermentation
B. continue aerobic metabolism when skeletal muscle cannot
C. transform lactate to pyruvate again
D. remove lactate from the blood
E. remove oxygen from lactate

a

104. Which of the following is NOT considered a secondary metabolite?
A. glucose
B. flavonoids
C. terpenoids
D. alkoloids
E. polyketides

a

105. Vanillin is to flavonoids as atropine is to
A. flavonoids.
B. terpenoids.
C. polyketides.
D. alkoloids.
E. B-carotenes.

d

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