Tower 1 - Test 3

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Notes for test 3 of tower 1 class in ATC

Landing information contained in the ATIS broadcast may be omitted if the pilot states __________.

the appropriate ATIS code

Between sunrise and sunset, if you can determine distances by reference to suitable 'landmarks and the first aircraft (CAT I) has landed, the second aircraft (CAT II) may land if the first aircraft is at least ______ feet from the landing threshold.

4,500

While applying Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO), the phraseology to instruct a landing aircraft to hold short of an intersecting runway being used by a departing aircraft is "_______________."

RUNWAY THREE SIX CLEARED TO LAND, HOLD SHORT OF RUNWAY THREE THREE, TRAFFIC, BOEING SEVEN. THIRTY-SEVEN, DEPARTING RUNWAY THREE THREE

Separate IFRNFR aircraft landing behind a departing heavy jetlB757 on a crossing runway if the arrival will fly through the airborne path of the departure by a minimum of ______ minutes or the appropriate radar separation minima.

2

The phraseology to direct an inbound aircraft to a right base is "_____________."

ENTER RIGHT BASE

Information issued to arriving aircraft that will conduct an overhead (in standard direction) maneuver includes _________.

request for report on initial approach

Phraseology to issue a landing clearance to an arriving aircraft reporting a position where he/she should be seen and has NOT been visually observed is "______________."

NOT IN SIGHT, RUNWAY (number) CLEARED TO LAND

Altitude restricted low approaches are NOT authorized below _______ feet above ____.

500; the airport

The phraseology to clear an aircraft for takeoff is "___________."

CLEARED FOR TAKEOFF

What is the appropriate phraseology to instruct an aircraft to turn off the runway?

TURN RIGHI' NEXT TAXIWAY

Consider an aircraft cleared for touch-and-go as an arriving aircraft until it ____________.

touches down

Simultaneous opposite direction operations on parallel runways may ONLY be conducted __________.

when weather conditions are VFR

Ceiling and visibility requirements for LAHSO for air carriers landing on a runway that is NOT equipped with PAPI or VASI are ceiling _____ feet and visibility ____ miles.

1,500; 5

In order to conduct LAHSO, the runway Available Landing Distance (ALD) must be ________.

dry

When LAHSO operations are expected to be utilized, it shall be included on the ______.

ATIS

An aircraft weighing 12,500 pounds or less with propeller-driven twin engines is considered _________.

Category II

During overhead Simulated Flameout (SFO) approaches, ___________ should be issued to the aircraft at low key.

low approach clearance or alternate instructions

Between sunrise and sunset if you can determine distances by reference to suitable landmarks, what is the minimum distance required from the landing runway threshold when a Category I aircraft is landing behind a Category I aircraft?

3,000 feet

Between sunset and sunrise, what is the minimum distance required from the landing runway threshold when a Category II aircraft is landing behind a landing Category I aircraft?

Clear of the runway

Runways 28R and 28L are active. Lear 102KM (Category III) has landed on Runway 28R but has NOT turned off of the runway. Baron 6CD (Category II) is requesting takeoff clearance at the approach end of Runway 28R. If there is NO other traffic, the phraseology for Baron 6CD would be ___________.

"BARON SIX CHARLIE DELTA, RUNWAY TWO EIGHT RIGHT, POSITION AND HOLD"

The phraseology to authorize an aircraft to take off is ________"

"(ACID), RUNWAY (number), CLEARED FOR TAKEOFF"

An aircraft has been cleared for takeoff when the preceding departure aborts on the same runway. The phraseology to cancel the succeeding aircraft's takeoff clearance is ___________.

"(ACID), CANCEL TAKEOFF CLEARANCE"

If suitable landmarks are NOT available to determine distances on the same runway, a departing aircraft must NOT begin takeoff roll until the preceding departure has become airborne and crossed the runway end or _________.

has turned to avert conflict

Minimum distance separation can be applied between two departing Category III aircraft if distances can be determined by reference to suitable landmarks, provided that the preceding aircraft is _________.

airborne

A departing Piper Colt (Category \) is airborne. The earliest time you may clear a succeeding Cherokee (Category I) for takeoff from the same runway using minimum prescribed separation is __________.

when 3,000 feet exists between the two aircraft

The minimum distance required for a Category I departing behind a Category III on the same runway is ______ feet.

6,000

A B744 is executing a low approach on Runway 18, and a King Air is ready for takeoff on Runway 36 (opposite direction). The minimum separation required to clear the King Air for takeoff is ____ minutes.

3

What is the phraseology for issuing an intersection departure?

"(ACID), RUNWAY THREE. SIX AT CHARLIE, CLEARED FOR TAKEOFF"

A B727 (Category III) is departing on an 8,000-foot runway. An Aztec (Category II) is ready for takeoff from an intersection 1,500 feet from the threshold of the same runway. The earliest you may clear the Aztec for takeoff is _________.

3 minutes after the 8727 departs

An LJ25 is rolling on Runway 28R. A Cessna 310 requests takeoff clearance from an intersection on Runway 28R. The Cessna 310 can depart _________.

3 minutes after the LJ25 takes off

When a pilot is ready for an intersection takeoff and his/her request for takeoff includes a request to deviate from the 3-minute interval, you shall __________.

issue a wake turbulence advisory before clearing the aircraft for takeoff

The phraseology in response to a helicopter request for takeoff from an area off the airport is _________.

"(ACID), DEPARTURE FROM (requested location) WILL BE AT YOUR OWN RISK"

Helicopters are authorized to conduct simultaneous takeoffs if the __________.

distance between takeoff points is at least 200 feet

When applying initial separation to successive departing aircraft consider known _________.

aircraft performance characteristics

Departing aircraft that will be vectored immediately after takeoff must be assigned initial headings _________.

before departure

In a radar environment, separate aircraft departing from the same airport/heliport provided that radar identification is established within 1 mile of the takeoff runway and courses diverge by at least ______ degrees.

15

In a radar environment, aircraft departing in the same direction from parallel runways may be released simultaneously if courses diverge by 15 degrees or more immediately after departure and the runway centerlines are separated by at least _______ feet.

2,500

In a radar environment, arrivals can be separated from departures by a minimum of 2 miles when the separation will increase to a minimum of 3 miles within 1 minute after takeoff. The 2-mile minimum separation is determined when the __________.

departing aircraft begins takeoff roll

In a radar environment, when separating a helicopter departure from another aircraft utilizing course divergence, consider _________ as the runway centerline for the helicopter.

the helicopter takeoff course

In a nonradar environment, for two departures that will diverge by 45° or more immediately after takeoff, how many minute(s) of nonradar separation is required until courses diverge?

1

In a nonradar environment, for two departures on the same runway whose courses diverge by 45° or more within 5 minutes after takeoff, how many minute(s) of separation is required until courses diverge?

2

In a nonradar environment, authorize simultaneous departures from parallel runways' when the centerlines are separated by at least 3,500 feet and the courses diverge by at least ____ degrees immediately after takeoff.

45

In a nonradar environment, authorize takeoff of a succeeding aircraft from an intersecting runway when the preceding aircraft has ________, the runways diverge by 30 degrees or more, and the courses will diverge by 45° or more.

passed the point of runway intersection

In a nonradar environment, when the takeoff direction differs by at least 450 from the reciprocal of the final approach course, separate a departure from an arrival by ensuring that the departure takes off before the arrival leaves a fix inbound NOT less than ____ mile(s) from the airport.

4

In a nonradar environment, when there is an absence of an appropriate fix and there is NO approach control, allow a departure to take off _____minute(s) before an arriving aircraft is estimated at the airport when the takeoff direction differs by at least 45° from the reciprocal of the final approach course.

3

An approach conducted by an aircraft on an IFR flight plan that authorizes the pilot to proceed visually and clear of clouds to the airport is a(n) _________ approach.

visual

What must be ensured both before and after the application of visual separation?

Other approved separation

Aircraft performance, wake turbulence, weather, and __________ must be considered to ensure that other separation will be maintained after the application of visual separation.

route of flight

When applying visual separation, the controller __________.

tells the pilot about the other aircraft's position, direction, and intentions

When operating in VFR conditions with an A TC authorization to maintain VFR-on-top, aircraft must _________.

fly an appropriate VFR altitiude for the direction of flight

A pilot executing a visual approach must have the _________ or the preceding aircraft in sight at all times.

airport

In order to be cleared for a visual approach, overtaking aircraft must be advised of the ______ and ________ of the preceding aircraft.

distance; speed difference

If an aircraft sees the airport or runway but NOT the preceding aircraft, the aircraft may be cleared for a visual approach if _______ separation or ________ separation is maintained.

radar; visual

Unless published differently on the procedure, the weather minima for a Charted Visual Flight Procedure (CVFP) approach are a reported ceiling of at least _____ feet above MVA and visibility of at least _____ mile(s).

500; 3

SVFR operations in weather less than VFR minima are authorized when __________.

requested by the pilot

What is the minimum ground visibility required for fixed-wing SVFR operations (excluding scheduled air carriers)?

1 SM

An approach conducted while operating on an I FR flight plan that authorizes a pilot to proceed visually and clear of clouds to the airport via visual landmarks and other information is a(n) ________ approach.

CVFP

Because of the cloud clearance criteria, SVFR aircraft are NOT assigned ________ altitudes.

fixed

What is the minimum reported ground visibility for a contact approach?

1 SM

Specific traffic pattern entry information may be omitted if the aircraft is to circle the airport to the _________.

left

Controllers may authorize simultaneous opposite direction operations on parallel runways only when _________.

operations are conducted in VFR conditions

The minimum distance required from the landing runway threshold when a Category I aircraft is landing behind a Category I aircraft is _____ feet.

3,000

The minimum distance required when a Category I aircraft is landing behind a Category II aircraft is _____ feet.

3,000

Between sunset and sunrise, what is the minimum distance required from the landing runway threshold when a Category II aircraft is landing behind a landing Category I aircraft?

Clear of the runway

Consider an aircraft cleared for touch-and-go as an arriving aircraft until it _________.

touches down

Except over an aircraft in takeoff position or a departure aircraft, a low approach may be authorized with an altitude restriction of NOT less than _________ feet.

500

A Simulated Flameout approach pattern consists of _________.

high key, low key, base key, flare, and rollout

Ceiling and visibility requirements for non-air carrier LAHSO are ceiling ______ feet and visibility _____ miles.

1,000; 3

Each landing aircraft with a LAHSO clearance shall be required to read back the clearance and will be given _____.

traffic information

All conditions specified in LAHSO shall be issued in sufficient time for pilots of the aircraft involved to take other action, if desired, and _____.

no later than the time landing clearance is issued

LAHSO shall only be conducted in VFR conditions.

True

During LAHSO operations, the aircraft that is cleared to land and hold short must have _____.

a dry runway

N71GL has landed and is taxiing on Runway 34, the only active runway. N56CD is requesting takeoff clearance on Runway 34. Phraseology for N56CD is _______.

"NOVEMBER FIVE SIX CHARLIE DELTA, POSITION AND HOLD"

DAL 201, an MD88, is departing Runway 10L. Baron 2WK requests a takeoff clearance on Runway 16. What is the phraseology for Baron 2WK?

"BARON TWO WHISKEY KILO, RUNWAY ONE SIX, POSITION AND HOLD. TRAFFIC, M-D EIGHTY-EIGHT DEPARTING RUNWAY ONE ZERO LEFT."

When canceling a previously issued takeoff clearance, you should _______.

inform the pilot of the reason if circumstances require

What is the phraseology to authorize an aircraft to take off on Runway 16?

"(ACID), RUNWAY ONE SIX, CLEARED FOR TAKEOFF."

What is the minimum separation, in time, for a BE35 to depart behind a DC10?

2 min

Separate an IFR/VFR aircraft departing behind a heavy departure by ________ minute(s) if projected flight paths will cross.

2

An aircraft departing behind a B757, on the same runway or parallel runways separated by less than 2,500 feet, requires ________ separation.

2 minutes wake turbulence

A B727 is departing Runway 28R. A Tomahawk is holding short of Runway 34, requesting takeoff. When is the earliest the Tomahawk may depart?

As soon as the B727 has passed through the intersection.

A Sabreliner is departing Runway 28R. A Bonanza is holding short of the runway at Intersection C, requesting takeoff. When is the earliest the Bonanza may begin takeoff roll?

3 minutes from the time the Saberliner rotates

A Cessna 310 is 1,000 feet down the runway on takeoff roll. A Cherokee is holding short of the runway, requesting takeoff. Can takeoff clearance now be issued?

Yes, if there is resonable assurance that separation will exist when the cherokee begins takeoff roll

If radar is available, what is the minimum radar separation, in miles, for a BE35 to depart behind a DC10?

5 miles

If a helicopter is requesting departure from an area NOT visible from the tower, the phraseology should be _________.

"(ACID), DEPARTURE FROM (location) WILL BE AT YOUR OWN RISK"

Separate a departing helicopter from an arriving helicopter by ensuring that the departure does NOT take off until the arrival has _________.

arrived and taxied off the landing area

Separate aircraft departing from the same or adjacent airports/heliports in accordance with the prescribed minima provided that radar identification is established within 1 mile of the takeoff runway end/helipad and courses will diverge by________ degrees or more.

15

Separate by ______ mile(s) aircraft departing the same runway/helipad or parallel runways/helicopter takeoff courses separated by less than 2500 feet if courses diverge by 15 degrees or more immediately after departure.

1

Authorize simultaneous takeoffs for aircraft departing nonintersecting runways if runways diverge by _______ degrees or more.

15

When conducting simultaneous operations between a departure and arrival on parallel runways, the departure course must diverge immediately from the missed approach course by at least ______ degrees until separation is applied.

30

What is the weather criterion for an aircraft to be cleared for a visual approach?

VFR conditions

What must be resolved prior to clearing an aircraft for a visual approach?

Conflicts with other aircraft

What is the minimum ground visibility required at the destination airport to clear an aircraft for a contact approach?

1 SM

TRUE/FALSE: Pilots may request or controllers may suggest a contact approach.

False, controllers may not suggest a contact approach.

What official ground visibility is required to clear fixed-wing aircraft for SVFR operations (excluding scheduled air carriers)?

1 mile

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