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Since simulating hardware failure is risky, in case the server may never be required. T/F?
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

B - The only way you can be sure of how the backup will perform is when the crash actually happens. As a preventive maintenance task, you may set up a schedule to check for these failures at regular intervals.

Where can you obtain the RAID related messages in the server?

A. Checking event logs
B. Checking the emails
C. Backup logs
D. None of the above

A- Event logs will record all application, system and security related information of the server. This will also indicate RAID related occurrences.

1. A server is experiencing problems. Which step should the administrator NOT take to identify the problem?
A. Try to
recreate the problem.
B. Ask users to describe the issue.
C. Purchase a new server.
D. Think of a theory that explains
the issue.

C. Purchasing a new server does not identify the issue, it avoids the issue. The other methods are acceptable steps to take to identify the problem.

2. A server has one 40GB hard drive, two 50GB hard drive and two 60GB hard drive. The administrator wants to
configure all 5 drives in a RAID 5 array. How much usable disk space will this array have?
A. 160 GB
B. 180 GB
C. 200 GB
D. 240 GB

A. Since the smallest hard drive is 40GB, that is the maximum size available on each hard drive. With 5 hard drives, n = 5 and the total capacity of the RAID 5 array is 200GB. Using the formula 1 - 1/n yields 0.8, and 200GB x 0.8 = 160GB.

3. A server has three 50GB hard drives attached in a RAID array. Which RAID configuration would provide the fastest
performance?
A. RAID 6
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 1
D. RAID 0

D. RAID 0 provides the fastest performance if fault tolerance is not a requirement.

4. Users report a server cannot be found on the network. What should be done first in a bottom-up troubleshooting
approach?
A. Update the server OS.
B. Escalate the problem.
C. Call the ISP.
D. Ensure the correct cables are used.

D. Using the bottom up approach, the first stage is to check everything that is related to the physical layer of the OSI
model. Ensuring the correct cables are used is the only troubleshooting step that is done in the physical layer.

5. A user complains she can no longer access a Windows server they were working on all afternoon. What should the
administrator do first?
A. Hang up the phone.
B. Ask the user to recreate the problem.
C. Reboot the PC.
D. Reinstall Windows.

B. By asking the user to recreate the problem, an administrator can see first hand the problem and what the conditions
were that created the problem. Hanging up the phone on the user is rude and may lead to dismissal. Rebooting the PC
will not help solve the problem. Reinstalling Windows avoids the issue, and there is no guarantees it will resolve the
issue.

6. Which type of memory can RAM be?
A. EEPROM
B. DDR3
C. L1
D. Flash

B. DDR3 is a type of RAM. EEPROM is a type of ROM. L1 is cache memory located in the processor. Flash is a type
of solid state memory.

7. An administrator just installed a new printer and the printer is recognized by Windows. The printer will not print.
Which is most likely the reason for this?
A. There is no power.
B. The cable is not connected properly.
C. The print spooler is paused.
D. The print device is not installed properly.

C. Most likely the print spooler is paused. Since Windows recognizes the printer it is unlikely to be a power, cable or
installation problem.

8. What is the best way to describe server virtualization?
A. One platform on one host machine.
B. Many services on
many host machines.
C. Many logical platforms on one host machine. D. One logical platform running applications.

C. To take full advantage of server virtualization, administrators would install many logical platforms or guest OS's on
one physical host machine.

9. When downloading updated drivers for a printer, which source should be used by an administrator?
A. Printer
manufacturer website
B. Third party driver website
C. P2P client
D. Online printer forums

A. Updated drivers should be downloaded from the printer manufacturer's website. Drivers downloaded from third
party websites, on P2P clients, or from online printer forums may contain viruses or spyware.

10. Which RAID array will provide fault tolerance and at least 900GB of storage space?
A. Three 300GB drives with RAID 0
B. Four 400GB drives with RAID 1
C. Five 250GB drives with RAID 5
D. Five 250GB drives with RAID 6

C. With 5 hard drives, n = 5 and the total capacity of the RAID 5 array is 1250GB. Using the formula 1 - 1/n yields
0.8, and 1250GB x 0.8 = 1000GB which is greater than 900GB. Using RAID 0 is not fault tolerant. The RAID 1
solution only provides 800GB of storage space. The RAID 6 solution only provides 750GB of storage space.

11. What is the optimal range for humidity in a server room?
A. 0%-25%
B. 20%-80%
C. 40%-60%
D. 75%-100%

C. The optimal range for humidity is 40%-60%. The first answer leaves the server room too dry and susceptible to
electrostatic discharge. The second answer encompasses a section that is too dry and too humid. The last answer is too
humid and may allow water to condense on inside the server case.

13. Which service describes leasing addresses to host computers?
A. DHCP
B. DNS
C. VTP
D. SNMP

A. The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol is responsible for leasing out addresses to host computers. Domain Name
Service is responsible for translating domain names to IP addresses. Virtual Trunking Protocol is responsible for
propagating VLAN information to other switches in the network. Simple Network Management Protocol is used to
simplified management of the network by allowing for automated monitoring of network devices.

14. Users cannot print to any network printer managed by the print server. What should the administrator do first?
A.Power cycle all the network printers.
B. Update printer drivers on all user computers. C. Reinstall Windows on the print server.
D. Restart the spooler service.

D. The easiest thing to do is to restart the print spooler service. If that doesn't work, then the other methods are
possible. However, each of these other methods are extremely time consuming and should be implemented as a last
resort.

15. What best describes HyperThreading?
A. It is a management protocol.
B. Performs computational tasks in parallel.
C. Performs automatic host address configuration.
D. It speeds up error reporting services.

B. HyperThreading was introduced by Intel for their Pentium 4 processors. It allowed a single physical processor to act
as a multicore processor by processing multiple threads at the same time.

17. What is the difference between incremental and differential backups?
A. Incremental backups take less time to
perform than differential backups.
B. Differential backups reset the archive bit while incremental backups do not.
C. Differential backups require more backups to be restored than incremental backups.
D. Both backups are the same.
They are named differently because they are proprietary.

A. Incremental backups are faster to perform than differential backups. Incremental backups reset the archive bit while
the differential backups do not. Differential backups require less backups to be restored than incremental backups.
Because of this, restoration is faster using differential backups than incremental backups. Both backups are not the
same, and both are not proprietary.

18. An application crashed on the server. What should the administrator do first to solve the problem?
A. Look through
the event logs.
B. Restart the application.
C. Use a search engine to investigate the cause. D. Escalate the problem.

A. Looking through the event logs will help determine the cause of the application crashing. Restarting the application
will not determine the cause of the crash. Using a search engine will not help narrow the cause of the crash. Escalating
the problem is not practical as not enough information has been gathered about the problem.

20. What needs to be installed to automate network management systems? A. NNTP B. STP C. SNMP D. ICMP

C. Simple Network Management Protocol is installed to automate network management systems. Network News
Transfer Protocol is used to transfer Usenet articles. Spanning Tree Protocol is used to prevent infinite loops in a
switched network. Internet Control Messaging Protocol is used to send status or error messages.

21. Which of the following describe a server that helps send and receive emails?
A. A dedicated application server.
B. A distributed application server.
C. A print server.
D. A DHCP server.

B. A distributed application server is used by email applications to distribute email messages to end users. A dedicated
application server is a server that is dedicated to performing a single task like DHCP or DNS.

22. What is the minimum number of drives in a RAID 5 array?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

B. The minimum number of drives required in a RAID 5 array is 3. Using 2 drives, one cannot configure a RAID 5
array. While it is possible to configure a RAID 5 array with 4 or 5 drives, it is not the minimum number of drives
allowed.

23. Which RAID array is the least fault tolerant? A. RAID 0.
B. RAID 1.
C. RAID 0+1.
D. RAID 5.

A. RAID 0 has no fault tolerance at all. Therefore, it is the least fault tolerant.

27. What is an advantage of a blade server?
A. Takes up less space.
B. Allow for faster processing.
C. Can aggregate
Ethernet links.
D. Additional RAM can be installed.

A. The main advantage in installing a blade server is conservation of space. Since blade servers are confined to a small
space, they lose their ability for high processing. Aggregation of Ethernet links and additional RAM are not benefits of
blade servers.

28. To test name resolution, what command should an administrator use?
A. dig
B. ifconfig
C. ping
D. mount

A. In a Linux system, the dig command can also be used to test name resolution. The ifconfig command is used to
display IP configuration settings. The ping command is used to test for connectivity between devices. The mount
command is used to mount a hard drive in the system.

30. An uniterruptible power supply is no longer working. What is most likely the cause?
A. The cable is not connected
to the computer.
B. A new battery is needed.
C. The computer is incompatible.
D. Windows needs to be reinstalled.

B. The key here is that the UPS is no longer working which implies it used to work. Therefore, it is reasonable to
assume the cable is connected to the computer, the computer is compatible, and Windows does not need to be
reinstalled. Therefore, the only answer is that a new battery for the UPS may be needed.

33. What is the most common problem in server rooms?
A. Cold rooms.
B. Dirty floor mats.
C. Recurring floods.
D. Dust buildup.

D. The most common problem is server rooms is dust buildup. Cold rooms is not a problem, but rather encouraged.
Dirty floor mats are not a problem. Recurring floods are not a common problem, but it is a problem.

34. An administrator installs a half rack mount server in a server room. He installs eight 2U server chassis on the rack.
How many inches are left on the rack?
A. 7 inches
B. 12 inches
C. 17.5 inches
D. 21 inches

A. A half rack mount server is 20U. Eight 2U chassis equals 16U. Therefore, the amount remaining is 4U. 1U = 1.75
inches, so 4 x 1.75 = 7 inches.

35. An administrator wants to increase reliability of the email server. Which component should be installed to increase
reliability of connectivity?
A. Reinstall drivers.
B. Upgrade the RAM.
C. Install a second hard drive.
D. Install a second NIC.

D. Installing a second NIC will increase reliability of the email server by ensuring a backup network connection is
available in case one fails. Reinstalling drivers is unnecessary and will not increase reliability. Upgrading the RAM will
not increase reliability. Installing a second hard drive will not increase reliability unless a RAID array is configured.

36. Which entry method can provide security and non-repudiation?
A. Physical key.
B. PIN entry.
C. Smart card.
D. Solid door.

C. Smart cards can provide security and non-repudiation. Whenever a smart card is scanned to gain access, it can
record the user into the access log to provide non-repudiation. A physical key is secure, but it does not provide nonrepudiation
as anyone who has a key can gain access. PIN entry is secure, but it does not provide non-repudiation as
anyone who knows the PIN can gain access. A solid door is somewhat secure. However, without a lock, the door would
be useless.

37. What is the term for a component that is connected and powered, but stays offline until another component fails?
A.
Ready-to-go
B. Hot swappable
C. Hot spare
D. Reserved

C. Hot spare is the term for a component that is connected and powered, but stays offline until another component fails.

38. Which of the following is considered the most important environmental issue in a server room? A. Recycle bin in the server room.
B. Unlocked server room.
C. Sticky door handle.
D. Gum on the floor.

B. The only important environmental issue here is that the server room is unlocked. An unlocked server room is
potentially dangerous as it invites possibly theft or damage to the server equipment. The other answers are
environmental concerns, but nothing that is as important as an unlocked server room.

39. Which of the following servers can be configured to process user request to access Internet sites while limiting the
amount of bandwidth forwarded out the company WAN?
A. Web server.
B. Proxy server.
C. DHCP server.
D. File server.

B. The most common use of a proxy server in an organization occurs when clients connect to a web server. Instead of
sending the information out to the Internet each time clients want to visit the same website, the website will be cached
on the proxy server, and will send the website saved in the cache back to the clients. The use of a proxy server in this
manner saves bandwidth and limits the amount of WAN traffic that exits an organization.

40. When moving a rack mount server, what is the most important thing to do?
A. Remove all components from the
rack before transport.
B. Push as hard as you can to move the rack to the destination faster.
C. Send an email informing
others your plan to move the rack.
D. Ensure the path is extra slippery to help move the rack.

A. It is important to remove all component from a rack before transport because a rack will all the components attached
is extremely heavy and a hazard for crushing. Pushing as hard as possible will increase the likelihood of tipping the
server rack. Sending an email informing others doesn't prevent the danger of moving the heavy rack. The path should
be checked for potential hazards and not checked to ensure the path is extra slippery.

41. The company backs up data using Full backup on Sunday night at 11pm. On weekdays and Saturday, the company
backs up data using Incremental backups at 6pm. The server crashes Wednesday afternoon. How many backups are
required to fully restore the server?
A. One
B. Two

C. Three backups are required to restore the data on the server. The first backup is the full backup made on Sunday
night. The next backups are the incremental backups made on Monday and Tuesday.

43. What three basic components are in the SNMP model?

D. The three basic components in the SNMP model are the Network Management System, managed devices, and
agents (usually software based). SNMP also uses UDP to send its messages, but that is not a component.

44. Which processor level cache is the fastest? A. L0
B. L1
C. L2
D. L3

B. Currently, there are three level caches installed inside a processor. Of the three, the L1 cache is the fastest. L1 is also
the smallest of the three caches. The L3 cache is the slowest, but the largest of the three caches and the L2 cache is in
the middle of both speed and capacity.

45. The company backs up data using Full backup on Sunday night at 11pm. On weekdays and Saturday, the company
backs up data using Differential backups at 6pm. The server crashes Thursday afternoon. How many backups are
required to fully restore the server?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

B. Two backups are required to restore the data on the server. The first backup is the full backup made on Sunday
night. The next backup is the differential backups made on Tuesday.

46. Which RAID array can manage multiple drive failure?
A. RAID 0.
B. RAID 1.
C. RAID 5.
D. RAID 6.

D. RAID 6 is capable of handling multiple drive failure because it write two parity stripes on each drive in the array for
each pass. RAID 0, 1, and 5 cannot handle multiple drive failure. RAID 1 and 5 can tolerate failure in one drive. RAID
0 is not fault tolerant at all.

47. What is the minimum number of drives in a RAID 6 array?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

C. The minimum number of drives in a RAID 6 array is 4 drives. RAID 6 cannot be configured with 2 or 3 drives.
While RAID 6 can handle 5 drives, it is not the minimum number of drives it can handle.

48. The backup application running on the server reports an error. What is the most likely cause? A. The application is not working.
B. The network is down.
C. Incremental backup was selected instead of differential backup.
D. The backup tape is damaged.

D. The only possible answer is that the backup tape is damaged. Since the application is running on the server, the
application is working. The network being down has no bearing on the status of the backup application. Selecting the
incorrect backup method does not cause the backup application to report an error.

49. Which server is best suited for patch and update deployment testing?
A. Production server.
B. Mission-critical
server.
C. Virtual server.
D. Stand-alone server.

C. The server best suited to be used for patch and update deployment testing is the virtual server. The production server
and mission-critical server should not be used to test patches and updates. A stand-alone server could be used if it was
not a production server or mission-critical server.

50. When upgrading an internal file server, what is the first thing an administrator should do?
A. Call the ISP.
B. Notify
the users.
C. Reboot the server.
D. Reinstall the OS.

B. When downtime is required to upgrade a server, the users should be notified as soon as possible. Ideally, the upgrade
should be schedule during non-peak hours, however, if that is not possible users need to be notified immediately.
Calling the ISP will not help as the ISP does not care about another organization's internal network. Rebooting the
server will not help as it would mean a loss of service for users. Reinstalling the OS will not help as it too will mean a
loss of service for users.

51. Which backup types will reset the archive bit? (Choose two.)
A. Full backup
B. Incremental backup
C. Differential
backup
D. Copy backup
E. Daily backup

A, B. The two backup methods that reset the archive bit are full backup and incremental backup. Differential, copy and
daily backup do not reset the archive bit.
52. For users to access the Internet, which DHCP settings must be configured? (Choose two.) A. WINS server B.
Default gateway C. Subnet mask D. Lease time E. Domain name$$
52. B, C. For users to successfully access the Internet, the subnet mask and default gateway settings must be
configured correctly. The hosts need to be on the same network as the default gateway and the hosts need to know
where to forward packets destined for the Internet.

53. An administrator wants to configure RAID to use striping. He has three hard drives. Two has 200GB and one has
250GB of unallocated space. What will be the size of the stripe set? A. 200 GB B. 450 GB C. 600 GB D. 700 GB

B. Striping is RAID 0. When RAID is used the size used in all hard drives is the size of the smallest capacity drive. In
this question, the smallest drives are 200GB. Therefore, in the third drive, only 200GB of the 250GB are used. 3 x
200GB = 600GB.

54. How can the issue of excessive page file writes be resolved? A. Install another NIC. B. Upgrade the CPU. C. Install
another hard drive. D. Install more RAM.

D. Excessive page writes are a symptom of insufficient RAM. By installing more RAM, the number of page writes
should decrease dramatically. Installing another NIC or hard drive will not help. Upgrading the CPU will not decrease
the number of page writes.

55. Which expansion slot has the highest bandwidth? A. PCI B. AGP C. ISA D. PCI-e x16

D. The transfer speed of PCI-e x16, assuming version 1.x, is 4000 MBps. The maximum PCI transfer speed is 533
MBps. The maximum transfer speed of AGP is 2133 MBps. The transfer speed of ISA does not compare to PCI, AGP
or PCI-e.

56. During a power outage, some files were corrupted on the file server. Which is most likely the cause? A. RAID
controller battery depleted. B. Faulty RAM. C. Hard drive is malfunctioning. D. The network connection is not fault
tolerant.

A. The most like cause is the RAID controller battery being depleted. There is a cache on the RAID controller that
stores the information that is to be written on the hard drive. This cache is backed up by a battery so if an outage
occurs, the cache remains preserved. With no charge in the battery, the files become corrupted. 57. B. The Grandfather,
Father, Son backup is best described as Monthly, Weekly, and Daily.
57. An organization uses the Grandfather, Father, Son backup scheme. What best describes this backup? D. 700 GB$$
A. VLAN (Virtual Local Area Networks) are used to logically serparate subnets within a physical network. Spanning
Tree Protocols is used to prevent loops in a switched network. Domain Name Service is used to resolve domain names
to IP addresses. Simple Network Management Protocol is used to automate the management of network devices.

54. How can the issue of excessive page file writes be resolved? A. Install another NIC. B. Upgrade the CPU. C. Install
another hard drive. D. Install more RAM.

D. Excessive page writes are a symptom of insufficient RAM. By installing more RAM, the number of page writes
should decrease dramatically. Installing another NIC or hard drive will not help. Upgrading the CPU will not decrease
the number of page writes.

55. Which expansion slot has the highest bandwidth? A. PCI B. AGP C. ISA D. PCI-e x16

D. The transfer speed of PCI-e x16, assuming version 1.x, is 4000 MBps. The maximum PCI transfer speed is 533
MBps. The maximum transfer speed of AGP is 2133 MBps. The transfer speed of ISA does not compare to PCI, AGP
or PCI-e.

56. During a power outage, some files were corrupted on the file server. Which is most likely the cause? A. RAID
controller battery depleted. B. Faulty RAM. C. Hard drive is malfunctioning. D. The network connection is not fault
tolerant.

A. The most like cause is the RAID controller battery being depleted. There is a cache on the RAID controller that
stores the information that is to be written on the hard drive. This cache is backed up by a battery so if an outage
occurs, the cache remains preserved. With no charge in the battery, the files become corrupted.

57. An organization uses the Grandfather, Father, Son backup scheme. What best describes this backup? A. Grand,
Full, Short B. Monthly, Weekly, Daily C. Full, Differential, Copy D. Yearly, Daily, Hourly

57. B. The Grandfather, Father, Son backup is best described as Monthly, Weekly, and Daily.

58. What technology can logically separate many subnets within one physical network? A. VLAN B. STP C. DNS D.
SNMP.

A. VLAN (Virtual Local Area Networks) are used to logically serparate subnets within a physical network. Spanning
Tree Protocols is used to prevent loops in a switched network. Domain Name Service is used to resolve domain names
to IP addresses. Simple Network Management Protocol is used to automate the management of network devices.

59. An administrator has six equal sized hard drives. Which RAID array will yield the maximum amount of useable
disk space while keeping the array fault tolerant? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 6

C. RAID 5 will yield the maximum amount of usuable disk space while keeping the array fault tolerant. RAID 0 yields
the maximum amount of disk space, however, the array is not fault tolerant. RAID 1 yields the lowest amount of
usuable disk space.

60. Which of the following servers performs the same function as the HOSTS file? A. DHCP B. FTP C. DNS D. Print

C. The HOSTS file is used to resolve domain names to IP addresses. The purpose of a DNS server is the same.

61. Which SCSI technology has a bus width of 16 bits and a clock of 20 MHz? A. Ultra SCSI B. Ultra Wide SCSI B.
Ultra Wide SCSI has a bus width of 16 bits and a clock of 20 MHz. Anytime the word "Wide" is mentioned with SCSI,
it means the bus width is 16-bit. C. Ultra 2 Wide SCSI D. Ultra 3 SCSI$$
B. Ultra Wide SCSI has a bus width of 16 bits and a clock of 20 MHz. Anytime the word "Wide" is mentioned with
SCSI, it means the bus width is 16-bit.

62. Why is a baseline created? A. To configure RAID arrays. B. To provide for fault tolerance. C. To look at network
utilization. D. To compare against normal and abnormal behaviour.

D. A baseline is created for troubleshooting purposes. If there is a problem with the server later on, the baseline is used
as a picture of what numbers indicate the server is running optimally.

63. What is the principle behind ACLs? A. Implicit permit. B. Implicit deny. C. Explicit permit. D. Explicit deny.

B. The main principle behind access control lists is implicit deny. If the information passing through the access control
list does not match any of the conditions, access is implicitly denied. This works for permissions and filtering packets.

64. What is the transfer speed of PCI with Bus Width of 32 bit and Frequency of 66 MHz? A. 133 MBps B. 266 MBps
C. 400 MBps D. 533 MBps

B. The transfer speed of PCI with Bus Width 32-bit and Frenquency 66 MHz is 266 MBps. The base transfer speed of
PCI with Bus Width of 32-bit and Frequency 33 MHz is 133 MBps. For each time Bus Width or Frequency is double,
the transfer speed is also doubled.
65. An administrator needs to restrict the traffic leaving the network. How can this best be accomplished? A. VLANs
B. VTP C. ACLs D. DHCP$$
C. Access control lists can be used to restrict traffic leaving the network. VLANs can be used to logically segment the
network within a physical network, but it cannot restrict traffic leaving the network.

66. What is an advantage of NTFS over FAT32? A. Encryption. B. Archive bit. C. Smaller maximum file size. D.
Maximum capacity volume of 2TB.

A. One of the advantages of NTFS over FAT32 is Encryption. Other advantages include compression, file level
permissions, larger file size, and larger volume capacity.

67. Which technologies allow the sharing of processor in a safe manner for virtualization? A. VTP B. Virtual Master C.
VT D. AMD-V E. Hyper-V

C, D. VT and AMD-V allow the sharing of processor in a safe manner for virtualization. VT is Intel's implementation
and AMD-V is AMD's implementation.

68. Which term identifies a socket type that requires no force to connect the CPU into the socket? A. ZIF B. HBA C.
STP D. PBX

A. Zero Insertion Force is the term that identifies a socket type that requires no force to connect the CPU into the
socket.

69. What is the highest ID that can be assigned to a Wide SCSI bus? A. 0 B. 7 C. 15 D. 16$$
C. In a wide SCSI bus, the bus width is 16. Since SCSI IDs start from 0, the maximum ID in a wide SCSI bus is 15.

70. Which termination method uses resistors for short, low-speed single ended cables? A. Active termination B. Passive
termnination C. Congruant termination D. Static termination$$
B. The passive termination method uses resistors for short, low-speed single ended cables. Active termination adds
voltage regulators to resistors for more reliable termination. There is no such things as congruant termination or static
termination.

71. What is most important when considering a data retention plan? A. Amount of money to spend. B. Company
policy. C. Local laws and legal requirements. D. Amount of space to store backups.

C. The most important consideration for a data retention plan are the local laws and legal requirements. If there are
none, then the company policy is what dictates the data retention policy.

74. Which two are considerations in designing a HVAC system? (Choose two.) A. Temperature. B. Resistance. C.
Water flow. D. Power consumption. E. Humidity.

A, E. The two considerations when designing a HVAC (Heating, Ventilation, and Air Conditioning) system are
temperature and humidity. Resistance, water flow, and power consumption are not considerations.

75. Which of the following can be referred to as WORM media? A. CD-R B. DVD-RW C. SATA hard drive D. SD
Card

A. Write Once Read Many media is as it sounds. It can only be written to one time, and read many times. In this list,
the only WORM media is the CD-R. The other media can be erased and written to more than once.

76. Which of the following allows for the restoration of the most data? A. System restore point B. Full backup C.
Incremental backup D. Differential backup

B. The full backup allows for the restoration of the most data. The system restore point backs up only the system state.
The incremental backup only backs up files since the last full or incremental backup. The differential backup backs up
files since the last full or incremental backup.

77. Which file system is native to Windows? A. ZFS B. EXT3 C. NFS D. NTFS

D. The file system that is native to Windows is NTFS. ZFS is Java proprietary. EXT3 is a Linux file systems. NFS is a
Novell file system.

78. What is the best method to remove dust buildup inside a server case? A. Water. B. Broom. C. Can of compressed
air. D. Vacuum cleaner.

C. The best thing to use to remove dust build up in a server case is a can of compressed air. Water is not good for
electric components. Using a broom can damage the circuits inside the server. A vacuum cleaner can generate static
discharge that can severely damage

81. A fire occurs in a server room. What is the first thing that needs to be done? A. Evacuate all personnel. B. Notify
users of service disruption. C. Escalate the problem. D. Nothing. Continue working.

A. The number one priority is always the safety of personnel. In an emergency, personnel must be evacuated.

82. What is an advantage of server virtualization? A. Less servers to manage. B. More fault tolerant. C. Virtual servers
cannot be hacked. D. Less hardware to manage.

D. An advantage of server virtualization is less hardware to manage. While the number of physical servers is less, the
number servers may not change at all. Server virtualization provides a single point of failure, the physical server or the
host OS. Virtual servers can also be hacked like a physical server.

84. When installing SCSI devices in a server, what must be done? A. Terminate both ends of the chain. B. RAID must
be configured. C. Redundant power supply needs to be attached. D. Only one end needs to be terminated.

A. When installing SCSI devices in a server, both ends of the chain must be terminated. RAID does not need to be
configured. A redundant power supply does not need to be attached the the SCSI chain. Both ends of the chain must be
terminated, not just one end.

85. There is a problem with communication for the SCSI devices connected to the server. What is most likely the
problem? A. RAID is not configured correctly. B. Termination is not correct. C. More RAM is needed. D. Too much
electromagnetic interference.

B. Whenever there is a problem with communication in a SCSI chain, it usually indicates a problem with termination.
An incorrect RAID configuration will not cause a problem with communication in a SCSI chain. Adding more RAM to
the server will not improve communication.

86. Which technology is used to ensure the CPU receives the appropriate voltage? A. Flux inhibitor. B. AC adapter. C.
EEPROM. D. VRM.

D. The Voltage Regulator Module provides the processor the appropriate supply of voltage.

87. Which key allows an administrator to see advanced startup options in a Windows environment? A. Del B. Alt+F4
C. F6 D. F8

D. The F8 key allows an administrator to see advanced startup options in the Windows environment. The Del key is
used on most systems to enter the CMOS. The Alt+F4 combination is used in Windows to close windows. F6 is
pressed during Windows setup to load third party drivers.

88. Which best describes the function of RAID 5? A. Striping. B. Striping with one distributed parity. C. Striping with
two distributed parity. D. Striping and mirroring.

B. RAID 5 can be best described as striping with one distributed parity. RAID 0 is striping. RAID 6 is striping with two
distributed parity. RAID 0+1 is striping and mirroring.

89. A server cannot boot into the operating system. Which diagnostic tool is best suited for this issue? A. POST
messages. B. System logs. C. Debug logs. D. Self-sealing stem bolts.

A. Since the system cannot boot into the OS, an administrator needs to rely on the POST message. System logs and
debug logs are only available if the OS can be loaded.

90. Which server would run SQL? A. Print server. B. File server. C. Database server. D. Web server.

C. SQL is a databasing tool. Therefore, a database server would run SQL. A print server, file server or web server will
not SQL. Although, in some cases a web server can run a databasing tool, it would still be considered a web server.

91. An administrator needs to maintain 2TB of useable storage space for a server. Which RAID configuration should be
used? A. RAID 0 with four 500GB hard drives. B. RAID 1 with six 500GB hard drives. C. RAID 5 with four 500GB
hard drives. D. RAID 6 with five 500GB hard drives.

A. The only configuration that yields 2TB of useable storage space for the server is the RAID 0 configuration. The
RAID 1, 5, and 6 configurations will only yield 1.5TB of useable space.
92. Which RAID solution will provide performance and fault tolerance without the use of parity? A. RAID 0 B. RAID
10 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 6$$
B. The only RAID solution listed that provides fault tolerance without using parity is RAID 10. RAID 0 does not use
parity, but it is not fault tolerant. RAID 5 and 6 both use parity.

93. After upgrading a driver for a hard drive in Windows, the server does not boot into the OS. Which of the following
is the best way to resolve the issue? A. Reinstall Windows. B. Remove the hard drive. C. Restore the latest backup. D.
Boot the server, press F8 and select Last Known Good Configuration.

D. To resolve the issue, boot the server, press F8 and select Last Known Good Configuration. The computer will load
the last configuration that booted successfully before the driver update.

95. Which storage system can be connected to many network servers through an iSCSI connection? A. SATA B. SAS
C. NAS D. SAN

D. The SAN storage system can be connected to many network servers through an iSCSI connection. Storage Area
Network is a specialized network and can be connected through the Internet. iSCSI sends SCSI commands through
TCP/IP.

96. Users can access network resources but cannot access the Internet. Which command line interface command can be
used to identify the point of failure on the network? A. ipconfig B. nslookup C. tracert D. route

C. Using tracert can help determine if the problem is isolated on an organization's network or if the problem is outside
the organization.

97. What is the correct term for a virtual machine? A. Host OS B. Guest OS C. Hyper-V D. VTP

B. The correct term for a virtual machine is a guest OS. Host OS is the term for the OS that is used to run the virtual
machines. Hyper-V is a feature in Windows Server 2008 64bit to run virtual machines.

98. What happens if the maximum rated load on a UPS is exceeded during an outage? A. Nothing. B. The UPS will
reboot the server until more power is available. C. The UPS will explode. D. The runtime of the UPS will be minimal.

D. During an outage, the amount of power required to run the server equipment will be drawn more quickly. As a
result, the runtime of the UPS will be minimal.

100. Which of the following memory types is the fastest? A. DDR3 B. DDR2 C. SODIMM D. SDRAM.

A. DDR3 is the fastest type of memory on this list. DDR is twice as fast as SDRAM. DDR2 is twice as fast as DDR
and DDR3 is twice as fast as DDR2. Therefore, DDR3 is eight times as fast as SDRAM. SODIMM is RAM for
notebook and netbook computers.

79. What connector is used to provide power to a PATA drive? A. Berg connector. B. Molex connector. C. 15-pin
connector. D. Word connector. $$

B The connector used to power a PATA drive is the Molex connector. The Berg connector is used to power floppy
drives. The 15 pin connector is used to power SATA drives. There is no such thing as a word connector.

80. Which site provides the least amount of downtime when services need to be transferred from the main site? A. Cold
site. B. Hot site. C. Warm site. D. Hybrid site. $$
B. The site that provides the least downtime when services need to be transferred from the main site is the hot site.

A
cold site is a site with the bare minimum. A warm site and hybrid site are the same and is a combination of a hot site
and a cold site.

99. Which of the following is an SLA? A. A statement that documents the baseline B. A protocol used to send emails
C. A legal document detailing the laws that must be followed D. A contract that details amount of service provided. $$

D. A service level agreement is a contract that details the amount of service that will be provided. It is not a statement
that documents a baseline or a legal document that details the laws that must be followed. The protocol used to send
emails is SMTP.

94. Which of the following can reduce mistakes in cabling? A. Proper labeling and documentation. B. Use different
colour cables. C. Maintain an up to date journal. D. Contact the vendor for recommendations. $$

A. By labeling and documenting the cables as they are being installed will reduce mistakes in cabling. Using different
colour cables will not help in a large organization. Maintaining an up-to-date journal will not help with labels. Contact
the vendor is a waste of time.

12. When installing an external SCSI daisy chain, where is termination needed? (Choose two.) A. On every device. B.
On the last device. C. On the first device. D. On the SCSI adapter. E. On the motherboard. $$

B, D. Termination is required on the last device. Since there is no internal SCSI daisy chain, the other end of
termination is handled by the SCSI adapter automatically. Termination is handled only on the last device. If termination
occured on every device or on the first device, the other devices after the first device would be unable to participate in
the SCSI chain.

19. The hard drive on the server is extremely busy all the time. What could the administrator do to resolve the problem?
(Choose two.) A. Replace the hard drive. B. Add more RAM. C. Reinstall Windows. D. Install more fans. E.
Defragment the hard drive. $$

B, E. The hard drive undergoing excessive loads indicates one of three things. Either there is not enough RAM on the
server, the hard drive on the server is severely fragmented, or there is an excessive amount of requests to read and write
to the hard drive. Replacing the hard drive will not correct the underlying cause. Reinstalling Windows doesn't make
much sense as it would result in down time for the users. Installing more fans doesn't make sense as there is no
indication this is a cooling problem.

24. What must be done after performing a test backup? A. Store the backup in an offsite location. B. Place the backup
in a fireproof safe. C. Give the backup to management. D. Perform a test restore to ensure the backup is good. $$

D. After performing a succesful test backup, it is necessary to perform a test restore to ensure the backup process is
good. Storing the backup in an offsite location is a good idea, however, without testing the backup it could be difficult
to find out the backup is useless when restoration of the data is required. Putting the backup in a fireproof safe is also a
good idea, but not without testing the backup first. Giving the backup to management is also not a good idea as in an
emergency, it may be difficult to locate when a restoration is required.

25. What does the ping command do? A. Enable name resolution. B. Display a list of routes. C. Test connectivity
between devices. D. Display IP address configuration. $$

C. The command ping tests connectivity between devices. It does not enable name resolution. The nslookup command
does that. It does not display a list of routes from the local routing table. The route command does that. It does not
display IP address configuration information. The ipconfig command does that.

26. Which expansion card is installed for a iSCSI SAN connection? A. MAC B. NIC C. AGP D. TACACS+$$

B. iSCSI can be accessed over TCP/IP, therefore, a NIC card is installed to access a SAN through an iSCSI connection.
MAC is the physical address of a NIC card or any devices that access a network. AGP is a graphics expansion port.
TACACS+ is a proprietary authentication system.

83. What is a likely cause of power supply fan failure? A. Bad odours. B. Extremely low temperatures. C. Excessive
dust. D. Fault tolerant NICs.

C. Excessive dust can caust power supply fan failure. While bad odours are unpleasant, they will cont cause power
supply fan failure. Power supplies run better at low temperatures. Fault tolerant NICs do not cause power supply fan
failures.

72. Which technology allows a single physical processor to do the work of many processors? A. Symmetric multiprocessing
B. HyperThreading C. Clustering D. Multicore$$

D. Multicore processors allow a single physical processor to do the work of many processors. Symmetric multiprocessing
refers to a system that uses at most 16 physical processors. HyperThreading is a single processor capable of
processing multiple threads at the same time. While HyperThreading simulates a Multicore processor, some Multicore
processors are HyperThreading capable.

73. Which RAM type can detect and fix single bit errors? A. SCSI B. SRAM C. Non-Registered D. ECC

D. Error Correction Code RAM can detect single bit errors and correct them. SCSI is not a type of RAM. While SRAM
could have capabilities to correct errors, generically, they cannot. Non-Registered RAM cannot correct errors.

31. What is the transmission speed for standard IEEE 1394? A. 200 Mbps B. 300 Mbps C. 400 Mbps D. 500 Mbps

C. The transmission speed for standard IEEE 1394 is 400 Mbps.

32. What is the bandwidth of Ultra2 Wide SCSI? A. 40 MBps B. 80 MBps C. 160 MBps D. 320 MBps

B. The bandwidth of Ultra2 Wide SCSI is 80 MBps.

29. What port does DNS use for zone transfers? A. TCP 53 B. UDP 53 C. TCP 23 D. UDP 123

A. DNS uses both TCP and UDP ports 53. However, DNS uses TCP port 53 for zone transfer and UDP port for
queries. TCP port 53 is used to ensure delivery of zone transfer information. TCP port 23 is used for Telnet and UDP
port 123 is used for Network Time Protocol.

16. An administrator needs to replace a failed hard drive without turning off the server. What does this require? A. A
SATA cable. B. An Uninterruptible Power Supply. C. A hot-swappable drive. D. A SCSI adapter.

C. Hot swapping is the ability to replace a component without the need to power down the server. Therefore, a hotswappable
drive is required.

1. A technician needs to install a server that will automatically assign IP addresses to devices when they connect to the network. What type of server is required?
A. DNS server
B. WINS server
C. Firewall server
D. DHCP server

D. A DHCP server will automatically assign addresses to devices connecting to the network. Answer A is incorrect because a DNS server resolves Internet domain names to IP addresses. Answer B is incorrect because a WINS server
resolves NetBIOS names to Internet domain names. Answer C is incorrect because a firewall is used to protect internal networks from Internet traffic. For more information, see the "Installation Strategy" section.

2. A new firewall server has just been delivered. Among the peripheral cards that came with the server were three network interface cards. Why did the server come with so many NIC cards?
A. To enable the firewall to connect the Internet, the local LAN, and a DMZ
B. The extra NIC cards were shipping errors
C. To create redundancy
D. To increase the total amount of network throughput

A. The firewall needs a network card to connect each of the three networks together. Answer B is incorrect because a firewall needs at least two NIC cards to function properly, and a third if you use a DMZ network. Answer C is incorrect because the NIC cards are needed to connect the other networks. Answer D is incorrect because the cards are not being joined together as a team, they are operating separately to connect different networks. For more information,
see the "Installation Strategy" section.

3. A technician is looking for the most recent information to verify a new server's hardware compatibility with the OS. What is the best resource for the information?
A. The OS CD-ROM
B. The readme.txt file
C. The OS vendor's Web site
D. The server's installation documentation

C. The OS vendor's website will always have the most recent information on hardware compatibility. Answer A is incorrect because the OS CD-ROM will only have information that was available at the time of release. Answer B is incorrect because a readme.txt file will only have minor installation information, and will be outdated. Answer D is incorrect because your server hardware documentation will not have OS compatibility information. For more information, see the "Verifying OS Hardware Compatibility" section.

4. A technician is installing four new servers into a 42U rack but does not have the manufacturer's specifications on how to load the rack. The servers are a 4U Web server, a 4U FTP server, a 12U file server, and an 8U database server,
which is quite heavy due to the amount of disk drives installed. Starting from the bottom, in what order should the servers be placed in the rack?
A. File, Web, FTP, database
B. Web, database, FTP, file
C. FTP, file, database, Web
D. Database, file, Web, FTP

D. The heaviest piece of equipment should always be installed at the bottom of the rack to aid in stabilization. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because they will make the rack top-heavy, and more likely to tip over. For more information, see the "Verifying Rack Space" section.

5. To save on network installation costs, a company wants to use the phone system's UTP cabling already installed in the building, for use in a 10MB local area network. What is the minimum category of twisted-pair cabling that should be used to support networking?
A. Category 5
B. Category 3
C. Category 1
D. Category 2

B. To support 10MB networking, the cable should be minimum Category 5 UTP cabling. Answer A is incorrect because Category 5 cabling is the minimum for 100MB capacity. Answer C is incorrect because Category 1 cabling is
used for phone lines, and is not suitable for networking. Answer D is incorrect because Category 2 cabling can only support speeds of 1MB, and is not suitable for networks. For more information, see the "Network Cabling and Connectors" section.

6. A customer is complaining that none of the users on the network can connect to an outside Web site. The connection to the Internet seems to be working fine, and the users can connect to the internal intranet Web site. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The external router is not working properly.
B. The firewall is blocking FTP access to the Internet.
C. The proxy server is not working.
D. The DHCP server is not functioning.

C. If the proxy server is not working, clients will be unable to contact external Web sites, as the proxy server is responsible for forwarding the requests. Answer A is incorrect because the connection to the Internet is still working. Answer B is incorrect because the clients are using the HTTP protocol to connect to Web sites, not FTP. Answer D is incorrect because DHCP servers are used to assign IP addresses to network devices. For more information, see the "Installation Strategy" section.

7. A technician is testing a UPS on a new server. When power is disconnected from the UPS, the server runs from the UPS battery for approximately 15 minutes, and then the server is abruptly shut down. The UPS was configured to shut down the server automatically when power is disconnected. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The UPS software is not configured properly.
B. The parallel cable between the UPS and the server is missing.
C. The UPS battery has not been properly charged.
D. The serial cable between the server and the UPS is missing.

D. The serial cable connecting the UPS to the server was not connected. Without it, there is no way for the UPS to communicate with the server. Answer A is incorrect because the server software was configured correctly. Answer B is incorrect because a serial cable is used for the connection, not a parallel cable. Answer C is incorrect because the battery operated normally when the power failed. For more information, see the "Verifying Power Sources and UPS Installation" section.

8. A server rack is being moved to a new air-conditioned server room on the second floor of the building. What is the best way to transport the rack to its new location?
A. Remove the servers, move the rack, and then put the servers back in the rack.
B. Place the rack on a dolly and roll it carefully to the new location.
C. Remove the servers, take apart the rack, move the parts, and reassemble the rack in the new location.
D. Get as many people as possible to help carry the rack to the new location.

A. All equipment should be removed from the rack before moving. This prevents tipping, and also makes it easier to move, because it will be lighter. Answer B is incorrect because the server could tip over because of the weight. Answer C is incorrect because taking apart the rack is unnecessary. Answer D is incorrect because it is easier to remove the equipment to make the rack lighter to transport. For more information, see the "Verifying Rack Space" section.

9. Two floors of a building are being connected together by a fiber-optic cable. A special fiber-enabled switch is located on each floor. After they are connected together, there does not seem to be any network activity between the floors.
What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The fiber cable is multimode.
B. The cable is defective.
C. The transmit and receive cables are reversed.
D. The fiber cable is only single mode fiber.

C. Most likely, the transmit and receive cables were accidentally reversed. Answer A is incorrect because the mode of the fiber in this question was not discussed. Answer B is incorrect because it is rare for a fiber cable to be defective. Answer D is incorrect because the mode of the fiber in this question was not discussed. For more information, see the "Network Cabling and Connectors" section.

10. A customer would like to provide access to their new SNA mainframe from their current Windows workstations. What device will be needed to allow connectivity?
A. bridge
B. gateway server
C. router
D. DNS server

B. A gateway server will be needed to allow the Windows machines access to SNA services. Answer A is incorrect because a bridge will only connect two different networks, it will not provide gateway services. Answer C is incorrect
because a router will only route packets between two networks. Answer D is incorrect because a DNS server is used to resolve Internet domain names to IP addresses. For more information, see the "Installation Strategy" section.

11. A technician is reviewing the hardware compatibility list for the network OS that is being installed on a server. The vendor's Web site lists the current hardware as compatible, but the documentation that came with the OS says
the hardware is not compatible. What is the cause of the discrepancy?
A. The information on the Web site is newer than the documentation.
B. The readme.txt file on the OS CD-ROM is the most reliable
C. The Web site contains an error.
D. The information on the Web site is older than the documentation.

A. The vendor's Web site will always have the most recent information on hardware compatibility. Answer B is incorrect because the readme.txt file will not contain the most recent information. Answer C is incorrect because the Web site should have the most recent, accurate information. Answer D is incorrect because the Web site will be more up-to-date than the documentation. For more information, see the "Verifying OS Hardware Compatibility" section.

12. A new server is being installed to enable Windows machines to resolve NetBIOS names to Internet domain addresses. What type of server is required?
A. WINS server
B. DNS server
C. DHCP server
D. firewall server

A. A WINS server will resolve NetBIOS names to Internet domain names. Answer B is incorrect because a DNS resolves Internet domain names to IP addresses. Answer C is incorrect because a DHCP server assigns IP addresses
to the device on the network. Answer D is incorrect because a firewall server is used to protect the internal LAN from external Internet traffic. For more information, see the "Installation Strategy" section.

13. A new Ethernet LAN network is being added to a current LAN that is running Token Ring. What type of server or device should be used to connect the two networks?
A. hub
B. bridge
C. firewall
D. LAN adapter

B. A bridge connects two different types of networks together. Answer A is incorrect because a hub can only connect two networks of the same types. Answer C is incorrect because a firewall is used to protect the internal LAN
from external Internet traffic. Answer D is incorrect because there is no such thing as a LAN adapter. For more information, see the "Installation Strategy" section.

14. When installing a server, which of the following is the most important when verifying a power source?
A. proper grounding
B. proximity to UPS
C. sufficient VA rating
D. dual voltage capability

A. Proper grounding is important in preventing short circuits from harming the equipment. Answer B is incorrect because the proximity to the UPS is not relevant. Answer C is incorrect because the VA refers to the size and capability of the UPS. Answer D is incorrect because dual voltage capabilities are irrelevant in this case. For more information, see the "Verifying Power Sources and UPS Installation" section.

15. A technician is replacing an internal Web server with a new server containing a more powerful CPU and memory. The location of the new server has been verified for proper environmental and power requirements. Which of the following is the next aspect of the server's location to verify before installation?
A. UPS size
B. network availability
C. proxy connections
D. firewall rules

B. Network availability is the next most important concern. Answer A is incorrect because the UPS size should be already decided. Answer C is incorrect because there is no need for a proxy for an internal Web server. Answer D is incorrect because firewall rules are irrelevant at this stage of the installation. For more information, see the "Network Cabling and Connectors" section.

16. A new RAS server has just been delivered. Parts that came with the server include a 9GB hard drive, video card, network card, and RS-232 cable. The technician notices immediately that a part is missing. What is most likely the
missing item?
A. SCSI card
B. CD-ROM
C. Sound card
D. Modem

D. A modem is needed for users to dial in to the Remote Access Server. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because these devices are not needed for this type of server. For more information, see the "Installation Strategy" section.

17. A firewall server has been configured to allow only inbound HTTP Web access to an internal Web server, while HTTP, FTP have been enabled for outgoing connections from the internal LAN to the Internet. To prevent inbound HTTP
connections from reaching other local LAN devices, what else should be configured?
A. Proxy
B. DMZ
C. DNS
D. DHCP

B. A DMZ should be used to isolate the Web servers from the internal user network. Answer A is incorrect because a proxy server forwards HTTP requests from internal clients to external Websites. Answer C is incorrect because a DNS server resolves Internet Domain names to IP addresses. Answer D is incorrect because a DHCP server assigns IP addresses to devices on the network. For more information, see the "Installation Strategy" section.

18. A 10Base2 network is suffering from frequent network problems. There are 30 workstations hooked together in a bus topology. The server's network card was replaced a week before, as it was deemed to be faulty. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The new server network card only supports 100 MB/s.
B. The terminator on the server is loose.
C. One of the workstations is configured for UTP.
D. A client workstation is configured for token-ring.

B. A loose terminator on a bus topology network will result in connectivity problems for the entire network. Answer A is incorrect because the network speed is not an issue. Answer C is incorrect because there should be no UTP devices on a coaxial network. Answer D is incorrect because the network is specifically a 10Base2 Ethernet network, not token ring. For more information, see the " Network Cabling and Connectors" section.

19. A new server has just arrived, which is to be configured as a router. A technician notices that a part is missing from the server. Without it, the server will not perform its proper function. Which of the following is the mostly likely part missing?
A. ultra SCSI card
B. second Network card
C. routing cable
D. BNC connector

B. A router server needs at least two network cards to be able to route between two networks. Answer A is incorrect because a SCSI card is not needed for this configuration. Answer C is incorrect because a routing table is a software-based component. Answer D is incorrect because network termination is irrelevant to the routing function. For more information, see the "Installation Strategy" section.

20. A new backup server has just been delivered. It comes with an Ultra2 SCSI card, a DLT7000 tape drive, 40 DAT backup tapes, and an Ultra2 SCSI cable and terminator. Which of these items have been ordered in error?
A. SCSI card
B. Terminator
C. DAT tapes
D. SCSI cable

C. The backup tapes ordered should have been DLT tapes. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because these items were required. For more information, see the "Verifying Components" section.

1. A customer needs a server solution so that they can serve Web pages, and host an FTP site for the external world, while securing their internal LAN from any outside intrusion. For security purposes, the Web server and FTP services must be installed on their own separate machines. How many servers will be needed, and for what roles should they be configured?

You will need three servers to set up the required environment. To provide Web and FTP services, a server will be needed to perform each function. To secure the internal LAN from the outside world, a firewall server will have to be set up. To fully secure the internal LAN, a DMZ network should be set up, to separate the Web and FTP server on their own LAN. The firewall should have three network cards, one to connect to the outside world, one to connect to the DMZ, and one connected to the internal LAN.

2. Three new servers are being installed into a new server room. What aspects of the server room should be verified before installing the new equipment?

The server room should contain adequate air conditioning and ventilation. The power source should be verified to ensure good quality power, and that there are enough outlets to handle the amount of equipment. Network connectivity will have to be verified, including cabling location and cable types.

3. A UPS is being connected to a rack containing up to four servers. What considerations must be made when purchasing and installing the UPS?

The VA rating of the servers and other equipment that will be connected to the UPS should be calculated, so that the right size of UPS can be purchased. The UPS should come with enough serial cables to be able to attach to all four servers. The network OS of the servers should be configured to automatically shut down in case of a power failure. The UPS should then have its battery fully charged, and then tested to make sure that the battery will take over when power is disconnected, and that the auto-shutdown of the servers works properly

1. A technician is creating a cable that will connect a standard network switch port to a network router. What type of cable will be needed to complete the connection?
A. Straight-through cable
B. Uplink sable
C. Crossover cable
D. Rollover cable

C. A crossover cable will be needed to complete the connection. Answer A is incorrect because a straight-through cable would only be used to connect the standard switch port to a network device. Answer B is incorrect because an uplink cable does not exist. Answer D is incorrect because a rollover cable is used for connecting to console ports. For more information, see the "Crossover cable" section.

2. A server rack is being moved to a new location on the other side of the building, where a new server room has been constructed. The rack currently holds three servers, but two of them are not used anymore. What is the best process for moving the rack to its new location?
A. Remove all the servers, move the rack to the new location, and install only the server being used back into the rack.
B. Remove all the servers, move the rack to the new location, and install all the servers back into the rack.
C. Put the entire rack onto a dolly and roll it slowly to its new location. Servers are secured so that they will not fall out.
D. Remove the unused servers. Put the rack onto a dolly, and roll it slowly to its new location.

A. All servers should be removed from the rack before moving it. The two unused servers should not be reinstalled. Answer B is incorrect because the unused servers should not be put back into the rack. Answer C is incorrect because the rack should not be transported with equipment still mounted in it. Answer D is incorrect because the rack should not be transported with equipment still mounted in it, even if it is only one server. For more information, see the "Installing equipment in the rack" section.

3. A technician is extending a rack-mounted server that is located near the top of the rack. When the server is fully extended, the rack begins to tip over. What is the most likely cause of the imbalance in the rack?
A. The rack is too close to the wall.
B. The rack has no stabilizer feet attached
C. The server should be located lower on the rack.
D. The rack is on wheels.

B. The stabilizer feet will prevent the rack from tipping over when a server is extended. Answer A is incorrect because this will not cause the rack to tip over. Answer C is incorrect because the cause is the lack of stabilizer feet.
Heavier equipment should be located lower in the rack, but stabilizers will prevent this if they are located higher. Answer D is incorrect because the wheels alone would not cause the imbalance, but they should be retracted when the rack is not being moved. For more information, see the "Preparing the rack for installation" section.

4. A technician wants to connect the uplink port on an existing 24-port hub to a new expansion 12-port hub. Which of the following cable and port combinations should be used to properly connect the devices?
A. Rollover cable from the uplink port of the 24-port hub to the uplink port of the 12-port hub
B. Crossover cable from the uplink port of the 24-port hub to a standard port on the 12-port hub
C. Straight-through cable from the uplink port of the 24-port hub to a standard port on the 12-port hub
D. Uplink cable from the uplink port of the 24-port hub to the uplink port on the 12-port hub

C. The uplink port on the current hub already crosses the cable, so it only needs a standard straight cable to a standard port on the new hub. Answer A is incorrect because a rollover cable is used to connect to a device console port. Answer B is incorrect because there is no need to use a crossover cable on an uplink port. Answer D is incorrect because there is no such thing as an
uplink cable. For more information, see the "Twisted pair" section.

5. A technician is installing four servers with a combined VA rating of 1200. What VA rating should the UPS have to be able to provide battery backup to the servers?
A. 1500
B. 1200
C. 600
D. 3000

A. The VA rating of the UPS should be greater than the combined VA rating of the devices to adequately power them from battery in the event of a power failure. Answer B is incorrect because the load will be equal to the UPS load capability, and it may not be able to power the servers in the event of a power failure. Answer C is incorrect because this load rating is too low. Answer D is incorrect because this load rating will work, but is not needed for this amount of servers. For more information, see the "Installing the UPS" section.

6. A technician is installing four servers into a rack. In what order should the components be mounted into the rack?
A. Heaviest servers on the top
B. Heaviest servers on the bottom
C. Server weight distributed evenly over the rack
D. According to the rack vendor's documented specifications

D. The documentation for the rack should be consulted for specifications on installing equipment. Answer A is incorrect because a top-heavy rack will tip over too easily. Answer B is incorrect because the documentation should be checked first, but putting the heaviest items on the bottom is safest. Answer C is incorrect because this configuration might not be to the rack's specifications. For more information, see the "Installing equipment in the rack" section.

7. A server is being connected to a network switch. What type of network cable will be needed to make the connection?
A. Crossover cable
B. Straight-through cable
C. Rollover cable
D. UTP cable

B. A standard straight cable is used to connect a device to a standard network port. Answer A is incorrect because a crossover cable is not needed in this case. Answer C is incorrect because a rollover cable is used for connecting to a device's console port. Answer D is incorrect because it does not specify what type of UTP cable. For more information, see the "Twisted pair" section.

8. A new server has been connected to a UPS system. The UPS battery has been fully charged and tested. Two weeks later, a power failure caused the UPS to switch over to battery for 20 minutes before the battery ran out and the server lost power. What is the mostly likely cause of the abrupt server shutdown?
A. The UPS load was too high.
B. The UPS battery was not charged properly.
C. The UPS software was not configured.
D. The server is not compatible with the UPS.

C. The UPS software was not configured to automatically shut down the server in the event of a power outage. Answer A is incorrect because one server will not overload the UPS. Answer B is incorrect because the battery was working properly. Answer D is incorrect because compatibility is not an issue. For more information, see the "Configuring the UPS software" section.

9. A 1500VA-rated UPS is connected to a server and monitor with a combined VA rating of 700. The server needs to print reports on an hourly basis, and a laser printer has been installed beside it. The VA rating of the printer is 400. When
the technician plugs the printer into the UPS and turns the printer on, the UPS indicates an overload failure. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The laser printer is causing an abnormal load on the UPS.
B. The VA rating of the combined devices is too high for the UPS.
C. The UPS battery has not been charged.
D. The printer is incompatible with the UPS.

A. You should never connect a laser printer to a UPS, because it draws a considerable load when first started up and could damage the UPS. Answer B is incorrect because the VA rating of the combined devices is below the rating of
the UPS. Answer C is incorrect because there is nothing wrong with the battery the UPS is overloaded. Answer D is incorrect because there are no compatibility issues. For more information, see the "Testing the UPS" section.

10. Two network hubs have to be connected together, but neither of them have an uplink port on them. How can the two hubs be connected?
A. Rollover cable
B. Straight-through cable
C. Crossover cable
D. Uplink cable

C. A crossover cable can be used between any standard ports on the two hubs. Answer A is incorrect because a rollover cable is used to connect to device console ports. Answer B is incorrect because a straight cable will not work without an uplink port on one of the hubs. Answer D is incorrect because there is no such thing as an uplink cable. For more information, see
the "Crossover cable" section.

11. A technician wants to properly stabilize a server rack. There are currently five servers mounted on the rack. What can be done to make sure the rack will not move or tip over?
A. Move the heaviest servers to the top of the rack.
B. Add stabilizer plates to all six sides of the rack.
C. Add stabilizer plates to the front and back sides of the rack.
D. Bolt the rack into the floor.

B. Stabilizer plates can be mounted on all sides of the rack, which prevents it from tipping over. Answer A is incorrect because the heaviest servers should be located on the bottom of the rack. Answer C is incorrect because having stabilizer plates only on the front and back will not prevent the rack from tipping sideways. Answer D is incorrect because bolting the rack to the floor is
inefficient and not necessary. For more information, see the "Twisted pair" section.

12. A server has just been connected to a new UPS. When the technician pulls the power plug to test the UPS, both the UPS and the server abruptly shut down. What is the most likely cause of the UPS not running from battery?
A. The server BIOS was not updated.
B. The UPS software was not installed.
C. The serial cable to the server was disconnected.
D. The UPS internal battery cable was not connected.

D. When a UPS is first installed, its internal battery must be connected. It is disconnected for shipping safety reasons. Answer A is incorrect because the server BIOS is irrelevant in this issue. Answer B is incorrect because the issue was with the UPS battery. Answer C is incorrect because the serial cable would not have prevented the battery problem. For more information, see the "Charging the UPS battery" section.

13. A server with a coaxial Thinnet network card has just been installed. How should the server be connected to the network?
A. The coaxial cable should be plugged into the coaxial adapter on the network card.
B. A BNC T-connector should be installed on the network card connector,
with one end connected to the network and the other end terminated.
C. The network cable should be pierced with a vampire tap.
D. A BNC barrel connector should be connected to the server, with the
other end connected to the network.

B. A BNC T-connector is needed to connect the server to the network and terminate the connection. Answer A is incorrect because the network cable needs to be terminated. Answer C is incorrect because a vampire tap is typically used for older Thicknet installations. Answer D is incorrect because a barrel connector will not terminate the network connection. For more information, see the "Coaxial" section.

14. A technician is using a cable tester to test a UTP network cable that is connecting two hubs together . The tester indicates a fault with wires 1, 3, 2, and 6. When the cable is connected to the hubs, it seems to work fine. What is the
mostly likely cause of the discrepancy?
A. The cable was not crimped properly.
B. The cable is a straight-through cable, and the tester is set for a crossover cable.
C. The cable is a crossover cable, and the tester is set for a straightthrough cable.
D. The tester should be set to test coaxial cable.

C. The tester is set to test for a straight-through cable, but the cable is a crossover, which is why it shows a fault with the crossed transmit and receive wires. Answer A is incorrect because the cable is working properly. Answer B
is incorrect because the cable is a crossover cable. Answer D is incorrect because the tester should be set to test UTP cable. For more information, please see the "Twisted pair" section.
15. A technician has just installed a new UPS to protect two servers from power failure. The battery cable was connected internally, and the serial cables connected to both servers to facilitate auto-shutdown. When the UPS is first turned on, the technician disconnects the power plug to test the UPS. The UPS and servers abruptly shut down. What is the most likely cause of the UPS failure?
A. The UPS is not compatible with the server OS.
B. The UPS battery was not charged.
C. The UPS software has not been installed.
D. The UPS was not properly grounded.$$
B. A new UPS needs time to have its battery charged. Answer A is incorrect because the UPS software compatibility is not relevant to the condition of the battery. Answer C is incorrect because the UPS software is relevant to the condition of the battery. Answer D is incorrect because the problem is with the condition of the battery. For more information, see the "Charging the UPS battery" section.

1. A technician is expanding a 10BaseT LAN by adding two new servers: a mail server and a file server. There is only one unused standard port on the current 24-port server room hub, so a new 24-port hub has been purchased to be added on to the first hub. The new hub does not have an uplink port. How many UTP cables will be needed to connect all of the new devices, and what type of cables should they be?

The technician should make three cables, two straight-through cables, and one crossover cable. The straight-through cables are to connect the two servers to the new hub. The crossover cable will be used to connect the two hubs together using a standard network port. A crossover is needed, as the transmit and receive wires on the hub ports are already reversed.

2. The two new servers in the Scenario #1 have necessitated an upgrade to the UPS, which currently will not handle the load of the extra servers. A new UPS with sufficient capacity for all the servers has been purchased and is ready to
be installed. What steps must be taken to properly install and test the new UPS?

Because the new UPS will handle the load of all of the servers combined, the old one can be removed. Disconnect the serial cables connecting the old UPS to the servers, and remove any special UPS software that was installed on the server's network OS. Before connecting the new UPS, (1) open it up and reconnect the battery connector, which was disabled during shipping. (2) Plug the UPS into a power socket, and let it charge for 8 to 10 hours until it is fully charged. Now you can (3) plug the servers into the new UPS and reconnect the serial cables to all of the servers. Next, you must (4)install and configure UPS software on each server, to set up how it will behave in the event of a power failure. Each server should be set to automatically shut down gracefully if it is running on battery power. Once the servers have been configured, you should now (5) test the UPS. First, pull the UPS power plug from the wall socket, and examine the UPS to make sure it is running on battery power. The UPS should sound an audible alarm to warn you that it is running on battery. Next you should examine the servers to see if auto-shutdown has been initiated after a few minutes.

3. A technician needs to create a crossover cable to connect two servers together through their network ports. Which wires of a standard UTP cable
need to be crossed over to make the cable?

The pin out requirements for a crossover cable are detailed in Figure 2-4. Wires 1 and 3 are crossed over, as are wires 2 and 6. Wires 4, 5, 7, and 8 stay the same.

1. A server has just finished its POST routine. There were no errors during the POST, but when it was finished, the message "No Operating System Found" appeared on the monitor screen, and the server halted. What is the most
likely cause of the problem?
A. The CMOS battery has failed.
B. There is a RAM error.
C. The network OS has not been installed.
D. The server's BIOS is missing.

C. The network operating system has not yet been installed. Answer A is incorrect because the POST routine would not have gotten this far if there was a problem with CMOS. Answer B is incorrect because an error with system
RAM would have been detected before this point, and the POST would halt. Answer D is incorrect because the BIOS was present to perform the POST routine. For more information, see the "Monitoring the Power-On Sequence"
section.

2. A technician is using a KVM switch to access each server in a server rack. On one of the servers, the keyboard and mouse do not seem to be working. What should the technician do first to try to fix the problem?
A. Press the right mouse button.
B. Reset the KVM switch.
C. Reboot the server.
D. Press the Escape key on the keyboard.

B. Resetting the KVM switch should restore functionality to the keyboard and mouse. Answer A is incorrect because pressing the right-mouse button will not do anything. Answer C is incorrect because rebooting the server might
not initially be necessary. Answer D is incorrect because pressing the Escape key will not help if the keyboard is not functioning. For more information, see the "Installing external devices" section.

3. Additional memory has just been installed in a server. When the server is turned on, the POST routine reports that the keyboard is missing. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The technician accidentally knocked the keyboard cable loose when replacing the server cover.
B. The new memory is conflicting with the keyboard.
C. There is no keyboard needed for this server.
D. The BIOS must be flashed.

A. The keyboard cable was most likely knocked loose during the installation. Answer B is incorrect because the memory would not conflict with a keyboard. Answer C is incorrect because all servers should have a keyboard installed. Answer D is incorrect because the BIOS does not need to be flashed n this case. For more information, see the "Monitoring the Power-On Sequence" section.

4. A technician has just removed a NIC card from a server to install a faster one. To prevent the old card from being damaged, what should the technician do to protect the card?
A. Leave the card on a workbench with anti-static padding.
B. The card should have been left in an extra slot in the server.
C. Attach the anti-static wrist strap to the NIC faceplate.
D. Put the card in an anti-static bag and store in a cabinet.

D. The card should be put into an anti-static bag to protect it from ESD, and stored safely away. Answer A is incorrect because leaving the card out on a bench leaves it open to physical damage. Answer B is incorrect because the network card should not be left in the server. Answer C is incorrect because the wrist strap is attached to the technician, and the other end attached to ground. For more information, see the "Installing internal devices" section.

5. When a server has finished its POST routine, what is the next step in the server startup sequence?
A. The server will check the RAM.
B. The server will start the network operating system.
C. The NIC card BIOS will be checked.
D. The power supply will be checked.

B. The server will start the network operating system once all the POST tests have finished. Answer A is incorrect because the RAM has already been checked during the POST routine. Answer C is incorrect because a NIC does not usually contain a BIOS. Answer D is incorrect because the power supply is checked at the beginning of POST testing. For more information, see the "Monitoring the Power-On Sequence" section.

6. A SCSI host adapter came factory-installed with a SCSI ID of 1. What SCSI ID should the technician set the host adapter to?
A. 1
B. 7
C. 0
D. 2

B. The host adapter should be set to ID 7 to give it the highest priority on the SCSI bus. Answer A is incorrect because some other device other than the boot device should have this ID. Answer C is incorrect because ID 0 should be used for the boot device on the SCSI bus. Answer D is incorrect because device 2 should belong to another peripheral on the SCSI bus. For more information, see the "Verifying SCSI IDs and Termination" section.

7. A technician is installing additional memory into a server. The technician did not perform any proper grounding and ESD prevention measures, and during the installation, a static shock visibly came into contact with the memory. When the server is started, the POST reports a parity error with the memory. What should be done to fix the memory problem?
A. The memory should be grounded.
B. The memory should be replaced.
C. The memory should be reinstalled while the technician is wearing an anti-static wrist strap.
D. Nothing, the memory is non-parity RAM.

B. The memory was damaged by the static shock and should be replaced. Answer A is incorrect because the memory cannot be fixed once it has been damaged by an electrostatic discharge. Answer C is incorrect because the memory is already damaged, and reinstalling it will not repair it. Answer D is incorrect because the message indicates an error and is not relaying information. For more information, see the "Installing internal devices" section.

8. Which is not a way to prevent electrostatic discharge?
A. Anti-static floor mats
B. Anti-static wrist strap
C. Server room air conditioning
D. Anti-static component bags

C. A server room air conditioning will not help prevent ESD. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because these are all excellent ways of preventing ESD damage. For more information, see the "Installing internal devices" section.
9. During a server's POST routine, the server beeps twice, and then displays an error code with the front LED's. No information was displayed on the monitor screen. What is the best way to troubleshoot the problem?
A. Check the manufacturer's documentation for the error code.
B. Check the readme file on the network OS CD-ROM.
C. Run a memory test using diagnostic software.
D. Reboot the server and see if the problem persists. $$

A. You need to check the manufacturer's documentation for the error code. Answer B is incorrect because the network OS CD-ROM will not have hardware related information. Answer C is incorrect because the POST routine did
not get as far as the memory check test. Answer D is incorrect because the error code is indicating a problem with the server. For more information, see the "Monitoring the Power-On Sequence" section.

10. A server's POST routine halts half-way through the memory check. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. Only one of the memory modules is bad.
B. The server BIOS does not recognize the memory.
C. The keyboard is not connected.
D. One or both memory modules are bad.

D. This indicates there is a problem with some or all of the RAM modules. Answer A is incorrect because there could be more than one failed memory module. Answer B is incorrect because the memory check had already started, indicating that the memory was recognized by the server. Answer C is incorrect because the POST routine failed during the memory check stage and did not indicate a keyboard error. For more information, see the "Monitoring the Power-On Sequence" section.

11. A technician has just turned on a server. The server does not respond and there are no lights on the server. It is plugged into a UPS, which seems to be functioning normally, and the server power supply is showing a green light. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The UPS is malfunctioning.
B. The LEDs are burnt out.
C. The power button does not work.
D. The power supply has failed.

C. The power button is not working properly. Answer A is incorrect because the UPS was said to be functioning normally. Answer B is incorrect because the server would still start up even though the LED's were not functioning.
Answer D is incorrect because the power supply light was showing that it was working properly. For more information, see the "Monitoring the Power-On Sequence" section.
12. An external SCSI tape drive has just been connected to a server. When the server is started, the SCSI BIOS reports a resource conflict error. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The tape drive's SCSI ID is the same as a currently installed device.
B. The SCSI BIOS does not recognize the tape drive.
C. The end of the SCSI bus was not terminated.
D. The SCSI cable has exceeded the accepted length. $$

A. The tape drive has been assigned a SCSI ID that already exists. Answer B is incorrect because the rest of the SCSI devices would have been properly identified. Answer C is incorrect because improper termination would not result in a resource conflict. Answer D is incorrect because the SCSI cable length would not result in a resource conflict. For more information, see the "Verifying SCSI IDs and Termination" section.

13. During a server's POST routine, a fault was found in the server's memory. The server still finishes the POST process and boots the network operating system. What should the technician do next?
A. Nothing, as the server still boots up.
B. The server memory should be replaced.
C. The server should be rebooted.
D. The BIOS should be flashed, and then the POST should be run again.

B. The memory should be replaced, as it is showing a fault in the POST process. Answer A is incorrect because there is still a problem with the RAM that could affect the network OS performance. Answer C is incorrect because rebooting the server will not fix the problem. Answer D is incorrect because flashing the BIOS will not repair the memory fault. For more information, see the "Monitoring the Power-On Sequence" section.

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