PHARM CHAPT 5&6

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1. You administer an inhaled bronchodilator that is known to have adrenergic side effects on the heart. What clinical sign should you watch for?

a. bradycardia
b. tachycardia
c. bradypnea
d. tachypnea

b. tachycardia

2. On administering a dose of atropine to your patient, which of the following effects would you NOT expect to see?

a. dry mouth
b. decr mucus production
c. bronchial constriction
d. incr heart rate

c. bronchial constriction

3. As a practioner, you would expect which parts of the physical examination to be affected by a dose of atropine or other parasympatholytic agent?

a. GI examination
b. neurological examination
c. cardiac exammination
d. all of the above

d. all of the above

4. Your patient is accidentally given a lare dose of a parasympathomimetic drug. What side effects of parasymathetic overstimulation do you expect to see?

I. salivation
II. lacrimation
III. urination
IV. devecation
all of the above

all of the above

5. A direct-acting cholinergic agent often used in bronchial challenge tests to assess the degree of airway activity is:

a. adrophonium
b. methocholine
c. neostigmine
d. phospholine

b. methocholine

6. Epininephrine stimulates which of the following receptor sites?

a. alpha
b. beta1
c. beta2
d. all of the above

d. all of the above

7. The stimulation of which receptor sites produces bronchial smooth muscle relation?

a. beta1
b. beta2
c. alpha
d. beta1 and beta2

b. beta2

8. Which of the following drugs are sympathomimetic agents?

I. salmeterol
II. dopamine
III. labetalol
IV. propranolol

a. I and II
b. II and III
c. I, II, III, and IV
d. I, II and IV

a. I and II

9. You are treating a patient for bronchospasm. Albuterol (an adrenergic bronchodilator) is the only aerosolized agent being administered at this time. What other type of aerosolized drug might you recommend?

a. an anticholinergic bronchodilator
b. a sympatholytic
c. both a and b
d. neither a nor b

a. an anticholinergic bronchodilator

10. Cholinergic effect on BRONCHIAL SMOOTH MUSCLE

constriction

11. Cholinergic effect on AIRWAY MUCOUS GLANDS

increase secretion

12. Cholinergic effect on SALIVARY GLANDS

increase secretion

13. An agent causing stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system:

parasympathomimetic

14. An agent causing stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system:

sympathomimetic

15. Racemic epinephrine comes in what percent solution?

a. 0.05%
b. 1.25%
c. 2.25%
d. 5.0%

c. 2.25%

16. drug causing stimulation of a receptor for acetylcholine:

cholinergic

17. T/F
There is little or no direct sympathetic innervation of airway smooth muscle in the human lung.

T

18. T/F
Muscarinic receptors are found in skeletal muscle.

F

19. Adrenergic bronchodilators mimic the actions of:

a. norepinephrine
b. Acetylcholine
c. Penicillin
d. Epinephrine

d. Epinephrine

20. Relaxation of smooth airway muscle in the presence of reversible airflow obstruction is a general indication for the use of:

a. mucolytics
b. adrenergic bronchodilators
c. antiinfective agents
d. steroids

b. adrenergic bronchodilators

21. Disease states that could benefit from the use of adrenergic bronchodilators include which of the following?

I. asthma
II. bronchitis
III. emphysema
IV. bronchiectasis
V. pleural effusion

a. I and III only
b. II, IV, and V only
c. I, II, II, and IV only
d. I, II, III, IV, and V

c. I, II, III, and IV only

22. Your patient is diagnosed with persistent asthma. Which type of drug would you recommend for maintenance bronchodilation and control of bronchospasm?

a. short-acting adrenergic agent
b. long-acting adrenergic agent
c. alpha-adrenergic agent
d. mucolytic agent

b. long-acting adrenergic agent

23. Your patient presents with postextubation stridor. You recommend racemic epinephrine for its:

a. alpha-adrenergic vasoconstricting effect
b. short-acting B2-adrenergic effect
c. long-acting B2-adrenergic effect
d. B1-adrenergic effect

a. alpha-adrenergic vasoconstricting effect

24. Levalbuterol is:

a. the same as albuterol.
b. the single (R)-isomer of albuterol
c. an equal mixture of (R)- and (S)-isomers
d. the same as racemic epinephrine

b. the single (R)-isomer of albuterol

25. Ephinephrine stimulates which sites?
I. Alpha
II. B1
III. B2
IV. Cholinergic

a. II only
b. IV only
c. I, II, and III only
d. II, III, and IV only

c. I, II, and III only

26. Racemic epinephrine comes in what percent solution?

a. 0.05%
b. 1.25%
c. 2.25%
d. 5.0%

c. 2.25%

27. Catecholamines are inactivated by:

a. ACTH
b. COMT
c. ephinephrine
d. ATP

b. COMT

28. Catecholamines should not be given by which of the following routes:

a. inhalation
b. subcutaneous
c. oral
d. injection

c. oral

29. Albuterol is available in which of the following forms?
I. syrup
II. nebulizer solution
III. MDI
IV. oral tablets
V. DPI

a. II and III only
b. I, II, and V only
c. III, IV, and V only
d. I, II, III, IV and V

d. I, II, III, IV and V

30. Long-acting B2 agonists are indicated for:

a. acute asthma attacks
b. mucus reduction
c. treating infections
d. maintenance therapy for asthmatics

d. maintenance therapy for asthmatics

31. B1 receptor stimulation will:

a. cause vasoconstriction
b. provide upper airway decongestion
c. incr heart rate and contractile force
d. relax bronchiole smooth muscles

c. incr heart rate and contractile force

32. Smooth muscle relaxation most likely occurs as a result of:

a. a decr in intracellular cAMP
b. an incr in intracellular cAMP
c. an incr in ATP
d. a decr in ATP

b. an incr in intracellular cAMP

33. Continuous nebulization of inhaled B agonists has been used for:

a. severe asthma
b. pneumonia
c. cystic fibrosis
d. emphysema

a. severe asthma

34. The dosage recommended by NAEPP EPR 2 for continuous nebulization of adrenergic agents is:

a. 5 to 8 mg/hr
b. 8 to 12 mg/hr
c. 10-15 mg/hr
d. 20-30 mg/hr

c. 10-15 mg/hr

35. Your patient is receiving her third continuous nebulizer of albuterol (15 mg/hr). Which potential complications should you be on the look out for?
I. hypokalemia
II. cardiac arrhythmias
III. hyperglycemia
IV. PVCs
V. tremor

a. II and IV only
b. I, II, and V only
c. I, II, IV, and V only
d. I, II, III, IV, and IV

d. I, II, III, IV, and IV

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