CCNA Guide to Cisco Networking Review Questions Chapters 7-14

310 terms by Juggalokingz 

Create a new folder

Advertisement Upgrade to remove ads

1) What is the administrative distance of RIP?

A) 100
B) 110
C) 120
D) 90

C. 120

2) Link-state routing protocols _________.
(Choose all that apply)

A) Use link-state advertisements to notify neighbor routers of route changes
B) Send routing tables to neighbors
C) Reach convergence faster than distance vector routing protocols
D) Determine the best path via the hop count algorithm

A. Use link-state advertisements to notify neighbor routers of route changes
C. Reach convergence faster than distance vector routing protocols.

3) RIP has a maximum hop count of ____.

A) 255
B) 16
C) 15
D) 254

C. 15

4) Which command enables RIP on a router.

A) router network RIP
B) router rip
C) router igrp
D) router ospf

B. router rip

5) Which command will show the IP routing table of a router?

A) show ip route
B) show ip protocol
C) debug ip igrp events
D) show run

A. show ip route

6) Nonroutable protocols are able to pass packets among multiple networks?

A) True
B) False

B. False

7) IGRP can use which of the following as metrics? (Choose all that apply)

A) Hop count
B) Bandwidth
C) Delay
D) Split horizon

A) Hop count
B) Bandwidth
C) Delay

8) Which of the following is a routed protocol?
(Choose all that apply)

A) NetBEUI
B) TCP/IP
C) IPX/SPX
D) RIP
E) Split horizon

B) TCP/IP
C) IPX/SPX

9) Which of the following helps to prevent routing loops?
(Choose all that apply)

A) Split horizon
B) Count-to-infinity
C) Hold-down timers
D) Split horizon with poison reverse

A) Split horizon
C) Hold-down timers
D) Split horizon with poison reverse

10) At which router prompt can you use the router rip command?

A) RouterB#
B) RouterB>
C) RouterB(config)#
D) RouterB(config-router)#

C) RouterB(config)#

11) At which router prompt can you issue the network [network #] command?

A) RouterB#
B) RouterB>
C) RouterB(config)#
D) RouterB(config-router)#

D) RouterB(config-router)#

12) The debug ip rip command can be used in user mode and privilege mode.

A) True
B) False

B. False

13) Which of the following routing protocols can route between autonomous systems?
(Choose all that apply)

A) IGRP
B) RIP
C) BGP
D) EGP

C) BGP
D) EGP

14) What type of routing protocol is used within autonomous systems?

A) Exterior Gateway Protocols
B) TCP/IP
C) NetBEUI
D) Interior Gateway Protocol

D. Interior Gateway Protocol

15) RIP and IGRP both advertise a route to a particular network. Which route will be added to the routing table?

A) The RIP route
B) The IGRP route
C) NetBEUI
D) BGP-enhanced IGRP

B. The IGRP route

16) What command is used to display RIP timers?

A) show ip route
B) show run
C) debug ip rip
D) show ip protocol

D. show ip protocol

17) What two commands are needed to configure RIP on a router?
(Choose all that apply)

A) network rip
B) router rip
C) router network rip
D) network [network #]

B) router rip
D) network [network #]

18) A metric is a variable used to determine the suitability of a route.

A) True
B) False

A. True

19) A major drawback of link-state routing protocols is:

A) Routing by rumor
B) Increased memory and processing required on routers
C) Show time to convergence
D) Inability to adapt to network topology changes

B. Increased memory and processing required on routers

20) Which of the following commands would enable a routing protocol that is only concerned with hop count?

A) router# router igrp
B) router(config)# router igrp
C) router# router rip
D) router(config)# router rip
E) router# router ospf

D. router(config)# router rip

21) Which of the following are true about administrative distance?
(Choose all that apply)

A) The higher the administrative distance, the more desirable the route
B) Administrative distances are used with static routes
C) The default administrative distance for RIP is 120
D) The default administrative distance for static routes is higher than those for dynamic routes.
E) The default administrative distance for a connected network is lower that for the default route of IGRP

B) Administrative distances are used with static routes
C) The default administrative distance for RIP is 120
E) The default administrative distance for a connected network is lower that for the default route of IGRP

22) What does the number 240 stand for in the following command?

Router(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 240

A) Number of masked bits
B) Decimal subnet mask
C) Number of hops
D) Administrative distance
E) Autonomous network number

D. Administrative distance

23) If you want to monitor real-time RIP traffic, which command would you type?

A) router> router rip
B) router# router rip
C) router# show rip
D) router(config)# show rip
E) router# debug ip rip

E. router# debug ip rip

24) Which of the following does RIP support?
(Choose all that apply)

A) Load balancing
B) Link reliability metric
C) Bandwidth metric
D) Delay metric

A. Load balancing

1) What command injects a default route into an OSPF network?

A) Passive-interface
B) Loopback default
C) Router ospf
D) Default-information originate

Default-information originate

2) Classless routing protocols carry subnet mask information in their routing table updates?

A) True
B) False

True

3) The process ID must match on all routers in an OSPF network?

A) True
B) False

False

4) What command switches RIP to version 2?

A) router rip 2
B) version 2
C) rip version 2
D) ripV2 on

version 2

5) What command turns off automatic summarization to major network boundaries in both RIPv2 and EIGRP?

A) summarization off
B) no summary
C) no auto-summary
D) no ip classless

no auto-summary

6) In what state are OSPF neighbors, when bidirectional communication has been established and adjacencies have been formed?

A) Passive
B) Up
C) DR
D) FULL

FULL

7) Which type of authentication sends only a hash across the link between two authenticating peers?

A) MD5
B) Clear text
C) Signed secret keys
D) Shared keys

MD5

8) What command places the 192.168.12.32/27 network into OSPF area 0?

A) Network 192.168.12.0 area 0
B) Network 192.168.12.32 area 0
C) Network 192.168.12.32 255.255.255.225 area 0
D) Network 192.168.12.32 0.0.0.31 area 0

Network 192.168.12.32 0.0.0.31 area 0

9) EIGRP uses the same metric as IGRP multiplied by________.

256

10) What feature of OSPF allows it to use a hierarchical design?

A) Areas
B) Auto summarization
C) Wildcard masks
D) Neighbors adjacencies

Areas

11) Cisco routers can be configured to send and receive RIPv1 updates on a per-interface basis.

A) True
B) False

True

12) What protocol is used by RIGRP to transport its routing protocol information?

A) TCP
B) UDP
C) RTP
D) DR/BDR

RTP

13) Which of the following commands enables EIGRP on a router with an autonomous system number of 101?

A) Router EIGRP
B) Router EIGRP 101
C) Router 101 EIGRP
D) As 101

Router EIGRP 101

14) What algorithm is used by OSPF for path selection?

A) DUAL
B) Open Path First
C) Shortest Path First
D) Default-information Originate

Shortest Path First

15) A backup route in EIGRP is a(n)? ______

Feasible Successor

16) OSPF timers must match for neighbors to from adjacencies.

A) True
B) False

True

17) EIGRP timers must match for neighbors to form adjacencies.

A) True
B) False

False

18) Which of the following commands would ensure that a router becomes the DR on a broadcast, multi-access network?

A) IP OSPF priority 256
B) IP OSPF DR on
C) IP OSPF priority 0
D) None of the above

None of the above

19) What command displays the successors and feasible successors for EIGRP?

A) Show IP route
B) Show IP EIGRP topology
C) Show IP OSPF topology
D) Show IP topology

Show IP EIGRP topology

20) What command displays area authentication information?

A) show ip route
B) show ip ospf
C) show ip ospf authentication
D) show authentication

show ip ospf

21) The OSPF priority range assigned to a router is _____.

D255

22) Clear text is the most secure authentication supported by OSPF.

A) True
B) False

False

23) Which of the following is used by EIGRP for path determination?

A) DUAL
B) Dijkstra's Shortest Path First Algorithm
C) Wildcard masks
D) Priority

A) DUAL

24) What is the default OSPF cost for FastEthernet (assuming the default reference bandwidth)?

A) 40
B) 255
C) 0
D) 1

1

1) What is used on routers to hide intranet addresses from the Internet?

A) PAP
B) CHAP
C) NAT
D) FRAT

NAT

2) Which flavor of NAT maps multiple internal IP addresses to a single external IP address?

A) PAP
B) CHAP
C) NAT
D) PAT

PAT

3) How does overlapping occur?

A) The network administrator does not plan for internet connectivity
B) The network administrator uses registered IP addresses without getting permission
C) Both a and b
D) None of the above

C) Both a and b

4) When would it be most appropriate to configure static NAT?

A) When you want to guarantee that a particular device is always associated with the same public IP address
B) When you do not care what public IP address is used by a device
C) When the inside-to-outside IP address mapping is not important
D) When you want every inside IP address to translate to a single public IP address

When you want to guarantee that a particular device is always associated with the same public IP address

5) What is the purpose of the ip nat inside command?

A) To tell the router to use static NAT
B) To tell the router to use dynamic NAT
C) To tell the router to enter NAT configuration mode
D) To tell the router that the current interface is the be considered the inside interface

To tell the router that the current interface is the be considered the inside interface

6) The DNS service is required in order to browse the web.

A) True
B) False

False

7) Which of the following commands statically maps a name to an IP address?

A) ip name-server
B) ip host
C) ip address
D) ip name

ip host

8) Which of the following commands disables the default DNS lookup function on a Cisco router?

A) no ip domain-lookup
B) no lookup
C) no ip-lookup
D) no ip domain-name lookup

no ip domain-lookup

9) Which of the following commands directs the router to a DNS server for IP-to-name resolution?

A) ip host
B) ip address
C) ip name
D) ip name-server

ip name-server

10) If you have disabled the lookup function on your Cisco router, you will have to re-enable it if you want to use a DNS server to resolve names on your router.

A) True
B) False

True

11) Which of the following is not a DHCP packet type?

A) DHCP OFFER
B) DHCP SYN
C) DHCP REQUEST
D) DHCP ACK
E) DHCP DISCOVER

DHCP SYN

12) What is the purpose of the service dhcp command?

A) Starts monitoring the DHCP service
B) Turns off DHCP debugging
C) Enables DHCP
D) Disables DHCP

Enables DHCP

13) Where is the DHCP database typically stored?

A) On the router
B) On the server
C) On a CD or DVD
D) The database is not stored

On the server

14) Which of the following are optional when configuring your router to be a DHCP server?

A) Default gateway
B) IP address
C) Subnet mask
D) DNS server address
E) WINS server address
F) Domain name

A) Default gateway
D) DNS server address
E) WINS server address
F) Domain name

15) Which of the following monitoring commands displays any IP addresses leased by the DHCP server and the corresponding MAC address of the host?

A) show ip dhcp pool
B) show dhcp
C) show ip dhcp binding
D) show binding

show ip dhcp binding

16) Which of the following monitoring commands displays DHCP pool specific information?

A) show ip dhcp pool
B) show dhcp
C) show ip dhcp binding
D) show binding

show ip dhcp pool

17) Cisco's SDM can be used to configure network services such as DNS and DHCP.

A) True
B) False

True

18) What is the difference between configuring dynamic NAT and PAT on a cisco router using the SDM?

A) The access list that defines the inside addresses will be different
B) You will select overload instead of dynamic in the Add Address Translation Rule dialog box
C) The direction selected for PAT will be from outside to inside rather than from inside to outside
D) You will translate to an interface rather than to a pool of addresses

You will translate to an interface rather than to a pool of addresses

19) It is easier to configure a pointer to a DNS server using the command-line interface rather than the SDM.

A) True
B) False

True

20) What is another name for a wildcard mask?

A) Inverse mask
B) Obtuse mask
C) Backwards mask
D) Flip mask

Inverse mask

1) Which wildcard mask would apply an access list line to all packets from network 172.25.0.0?

A) 255.255.255.0
B) 255.255.0.0
C) 255.254.0.0
D) 0.0.255.255

0.0.255.255

2) Standard IP access lists filter traffic based on which of the following?
(Choose all that apply)

A) Destination IP address
B) IP protocol
C) Port number
D) Source IP address

Source IP address

3) Wildcard masks use a __________ to signify which bits of an address are significant.

Zero

4) Which command shows only the IP access lists on a router?

A) show access-lists
B) show ipx access-lists
C) show ip access-lists
D) show interface

show ip access-lists

5) Which commands allow you to view the interfaces that have IP access lists applied to them?

A) show interfaces
B) show ip interface
C) show ip traffic
D) show ip conters

show ip interface

6) Which host and wildcard mask pair does the any keyword represent?

A) 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0
B) 0.0.255.255 0.0.0.0
C) 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
D) 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255

0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255

7) Which command is used to apply an IP access list to an interface?

A) ip access-group [list #] [in | out]
B) ip access-group permit 100
C) ip access-group [list #] [permit | deny]
D) show ip interface

ip access-group [list #] [in | out]

8) Access lists are .
(Choose all that apply.)

A) Used to filter traffic and control network security
B) Applied as either inbound or outbound filters
C) Sequential permit or deny statements
D) Built into the routers firmware

A) Used to filter traffic and control network security
B) Applied as either inbound or outbound filters
C) Sequential permit or deny statements

9) Standard IP access lists are represented by the number range.

A) 100 - 199
B) 1 - 99
C) 1000 - 1099
D) 200 - 299

1 - 99

12) The show access-lists command displays .

A) Access lists applied to interfaces
B) All access lists on the routers
C) Only IP access lists on the router
D) Only IPX access lists on the router

All access lists on the routers

13) At which of the following prompts would you create an access list?

A) routerC#
B) routerC>
C) routerC (config-if) #
D) routerC (config)

routerC (config)

14) At which of the following prompts would you apply an access list to an interface?

A) routerC#
B) routerC>
C) routerC (config-if) #
D) routerC (config)

routerC (config-if) #

15) Which of the following host and corresponding wildcard mask pairs represent the same value as host 172.29.2.2

A) 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255
B) 172.29.2.2 0.0.0.0
C) 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0
D) 0.0.0.0 172.29.2.2

172.29.2.2 0.0.0.0

16) A router can have one access list per protocol, per direction on each interface.

A) True
B) False

True

17) Which of the following is a benefit of using named lists?

A) The syntax is identical to using numbered lists
B) Fewer lists are allowed, so it is easier to remember them
C) You are not constrained by the 100 lists per filter type limit
D) Using named lists offers no benefits

You are not constrained by the 100 lists per filter type limit

18) What happens if a list is applied to an interface and then the list itself is removed?

A) The commands will be executed and all traffic will be denied
B) The commands will be executed and all traffic will be permitted
C) The commands will not be executed and all traffic will be permitted
D) None of the above.

The commands will be executed and all traffic will be permitted

19) What is true of the host keyword?
(Choose all that apply)

A) It can only be used with extended IP lists
B) It can be used with standard and extended IP lists.
C) It replaces the 0.0.0.255 wildcard mask
D) It replaces the 0.0.0.0 wildcard mask
E) It is placed before the IP address with which it is associated
F) It is placed after the IP address with which it is associated

B) It can be used with standard and extended IP lists.
D) It replaces the 0.0.0.0 wildcard mask
E) It is placed before the IP address with which it is associated

20) What is the purpose of the "established" parameter?

A) To establish a connection between the sender and receiver
B) To prevent any traffic into a network
C) To prevent any traffic into a network that did not originate from that network
D) To permit all TCP traffic but not IP traffic into the established network

To prevent any traffic into a network that did not originate from that network

21) All access lists presented in this chapter, except standard IP lists, should be placed where?

A) As close to the source as possible
B) As close to the destination as possible
C) As close to the serial interface as possible
D) As close to the tftp server as possible

As close to the source as possible

22) Which command links an access list to the VTY lines?

A) ip access-group
B) ip access-class
C) vty access-class
D) access-class

access-class

23) Which SDM wizard allows you to configure a DMZ?

A) Firewall configuration wizard
B) Security configuration wizard
C) Basic firewall wizard
D) Advanced firewall wizard

Advanced firewall wizard

24) List the three Basic Firewall security settings.

A) 1st
B) 2nd
C) 3rd

A) High
B) Medium
C) Low

25) The SDM cannot be used to create complex access control lists.

A) True
B) False

False

1) If you want to use CHAP authentication, which protocol would you employ?

A) Multilink
B) PAP
C) Frame Relay
D) PPP relay

PPP relay

2) What is the default encapsulation type on serial interfaces of Cisco routers?

A) PPP
B) HDLC
C) SDLC
D) Frame Relay

HDLC

3) Which of the following is an NCP?
(Choose all that apply)

A) IPXCP
B) HDLC
C) SDLC
D) ATCP
E) IPCP

A) IPXCP
D) ATCP
E) IPCP

4) PPP was derived from ________.

A) Frame Relay
B) HDLC
C) RBOC
D) ISDN

HDLC

5) What is a common reason for looping an interface?

A) To achieve greater bandwidth
B) To drop nonessential frames
C) To increase packet size
D) testing

testing

6) Which of the following is a unique number that helps devices discover looped interfaces?

A) MAC
B) LCP
C) Magic number
D) Bandwidth

Magic number

7) Which of the following employs the strongest encryption technique?

A) Plain text
B) PAP
C) CHAP
D) Clear text

CHAP

8) If you want your router to use CHAP and then PAP authentication, which of the following commands would be correct?

A) router>ppp au chap pap
B) router# ppp authentication chap pap
C) router(config-if) #ppp au pap chap
D) router (config-if) #ppp au chap pap
E) router(config) # ppp authentication chap pap

router (config-if) #ppp au chap pap

9) Which WAN protocol did PPP replace?

A) HDLC
B) SDLC
C) SLIP
D) APD

SLIP

10) Which protocol is used to automatically build the Frame Relay map along with LMI?

A) ARP
B) RARP
C) Inverse ARP
D) DLCI

Inverse ARP

11) To make DLCI number globally significant, LMI causes routers to issue that advertise the DLCI numbers.

A) unicasts
B) keepalives
C) broadcasts
D) multicasts

broadcasts

12) When negotiating a data transfer rate for Frame Relay with a telecommunications provider, the rate agreed upon is the

A) Keepalive rate
B) CIR
C) EBS
D) DDR

CIR

13) The address portion of the Frame Relay frame contains which of the following pieces of information?
(Choose all that apply)

A) DLCI
B) FECN
C) Flag
D) BECN
E) FCS

A) DLCI
B) FECN

14) The line speed of a frame relay connection is known as the _______.

A) Access rate
B) CBS
C) EBS
D) CIR

Access rate

15) ______ Numbers are locally significant in Frame Relay connections and are used to identify specific virtual circuits.

A) DLCI
B) PDN
C) ARP
D) LMI

DLCI

16) To prevent routing loops, Frame Relay uses _________.

A) Loopback attack
B) Split horizon
C) Event horizon
D) DLCI numbers

Split horizon

17) Frame relay is more efficient than older WAN encapsulation methods because error correction is handled by ________ Frame Relay communications.

A) Lower layers
B) DLCI
C) LMI
D) Upper layers

Upper layers

18) Frame relay uses ______ to combine multiple data streams on one connection.

A) Duplexing
B) Simplexing
C) Multiplexing
D) Encoding

Multiplexing

19) What is the purpose of keepalive packets?

A) To reduce data transfer rates
B) To keep PVCs active
C) To increase data transfer rates
D) To negotiate connection speed

To keep PVCs active

20) Which of the following layers do WAN specifications typically define?
(Choose all that apply)

A) Physical
B) Data Link
C) Network
D) Transport
E) Presentation

A) Physical
B) Data Link

21) In frame Relay, what would be considered the DCE?

A) Customer's router
B) Terminal adapter
C) PPP
D) Frame Relay Switch

Frame Relay Switch

22) What was formerly CITT?

A) ASCII
B) ANSI
C) ITU-T
D) EBCDIC

ITU-T

23) What is another term used to describe a Frame Relay switch?

A) FRND
B) FRAD
C) PDN
D) PSTN

FRAD

24) Which of the following would be a subinterface for Serial 1/0?

A) S0/0.1
B) S0/0.2
C) S0/1.2
D) S0/2.1

S0/1.2

25) What does LMI stand for?

A) Logical Management Interface
B) Local Management Interface
C) Logical Maintenance Interconnect
D) Logical Maintenance Interface

Local Management Interface

26) What are the three possible connection states for a DLCI?
(Choose all that apply)

A) Interactive
B) Active
C) Inactive
D) Disconnected
E) Deleted

A) Interactive
B) Active
E) Deleted

27) Which of the following does not allow broadcasts to be sent to multiple destinations through a single interface?

A) LMI
B) Subinterfaces
C) LCP
D) MBA
E) NBMA

Subinterfaces

28) Which of the following is a type of virtual circuit? (Choose all that apply)

A) MVC
B) PVC
C) SVC
D) QVC

PVC

29) Which of the following are LMI encapsulation types supported by Cisco routers? (Choose all that apply)

A) LMI 2
B) Cisco
C) Ansi
D) v923i
E) q933a

B) Cisco
C) Ansi
E) q933a

30) Which of the following is the default LMI encapsulation type for a Cisco router?

A) LMI 2
B) Cisco
C) Ansi
D) v923i
E) q933a

Cisco

31) What does the router (config-if)#encap fr command do?

A) Sets the enable mode prompt to fr
B) Enables Frame Relay on the first serial interface
C) Sets the encapsulation to Frame Relay
D) Sets the language to French

Sets the encapsulation to Frame Relay

32) Which of the following command would show statistics for a virtual circuit?

A) router>sh frame map
B) router#sh frame map
C) router#sh frame pvc
D) router(config-if) #sh frame pvc

router#sh frame pvc

33) What Frame Relay encapsulation must be configured on Cisco routers that are attached to non-Cisco routers?

A) ietf
B) cisco
C) ansi
D) q933a

ietf

34) How often are Frame Relay keepalive packets sent by default?

A) every 30 seconds
B) every 10 seconds
C) once every hour on the half-hour
D) once every hour on the hour
E) once every 30 minutes

every 10 seconds

1) What does a switch build into its table to successfully send data to that device?

A) Routing address
B) IP address
C) Bridge address
D) MAC address

MAC address

2) Which of the following types of switching methods reads the first 64 bytes of a frame before forwarding it?

A) Store and forward
B) Cut through
C) Fragment free
D) Adaptive

Fragment free

4) Which devices look at a MAC address when making their forwarding decision? (Choose all that apply)

A) Switch
B) Repeater
C) Bridge
D) Router

Switch

5) Which of the following network media provides the lowest latency?

A) STP
B) Category 3 UTP
C) Category 4 UTP
D) Category 5 UTP
E) Fiber-optic cable

Fiber-optic cable

6) Which of the following correctly describes microsegmentation?

A) Creating additional segments with passive hubs
B) Creating additional segments with routers
C) Creating additional segments wit fewer users per segment via layer 2
D) Limiting network segments to no more than 10 users

Creating additional segments wit fewer users per segment via layer 2

7) Which of the following Ethernet error describes a packet that has a bad FCS and is over 1518 bytes?
A) Runt
B) Short
C) Jabber
D) Bad FCS frame

Jabber

8) When two Ethernet stations are able to send more than 64 bytes of their data frames before detecting a collision, this is called a.

A) Jabber
B) Jam signal
C) Slot time
D) Late collision

Late collision

9) The minimum size of an Ethernet Frame should be bytes.

A) 32
B) 64
C) 512
D) 1518

64

10) Collisions and Ethernet errors typically occur with the first bytes of an Ethernet frame, which is why fragment-free switching catches most Ethernet errors.
A) 64
B) 512
C) 1024
D) 1518

A) 64

11) Which of the following describes a method of Ethernet networking that does not have collisions?

A) Fast Ethernet
B) 100-Mbps Ethernet
C) Full-duplex Ethernet
D) Half-duplex Ethernet

C) Full-duplex Ethernet

12) Which of the following switching types has the highest latency?
A) Store-and-forward
B) Cut-through
C) Adaptive
D) Fragment-free

Store-and-forward

13) If a broadcast from one computer causes multiple stations to respond with additional broadcast traffic, and the level of broadcast traffic goes above 126 broadcasts per second, the situation is deemed a(n) ___________________.

A) Broadcast storms
B) Transmission overload
C) Excessive burst
D) Jabber

A) Broadcast storms

14) Which of the following fall under the heading of Fast Ethernet?
(Choose all that apply)

A) 10BaseT
B) 100BaseT
C) 10BaseF
D) 100Base-TX
E) 100Base-T4

B) 100BaseT
D) 100Base-TX
E) 100Base-T4

15) Which IEEE standard governs Fast Ethernet?

A) 802.3a
B) 802.3u
C) 802.3g
D) 802.3b

802.3u

16) Which of the following can divide a collision domain?
(Choose all that apply)

A) Switch
B) Bridge
C) Router
D) Hub

A) Switch
B) Bridge
C) Router

17) Which of the following allows you to limit the number of MAC addresses learned by a switch port?

A) max switchport port-security 10
B) switchport port-security maximum 10
C) switch port-security maximum 10
D) switchport security maximum 10

B) switchport port-security maximum 10

18) What benefits would your network have by replacing all 10Mbps hubs with 10Mbps Catalyst switches?
(Choose all that apply)

A) Increase the number of broadcast domains
B) Decrease the number of broadcast domains
C) Increase the number of collision domains
D) Decrease the number of collision domains
E) Increase the bandwidth between stations that are directly connected to the switch
F) Allow for full-duplex operations between nodes directly connected to the switch.

C) Increase the number of collision domains
E) Increase the bandwidth between stations that are directly connected to the switch
F) Allow for full-duplex operations between nodes directly connected to the switch

19) Which statements are true about half-duplex Ethernet?

A) In half-duplex mode, CSMA/CD is turned on
B) In half-duplex mode, CSMA/CD is turned off
C) On a 10Mbps link, communicating nodes would have 10Mbps of bandwidth available to them
D) Half-duplex transmission is mandatory if nodes are directly connected to a hub that is connected to a switch
E) Half-duplex transmission is mandatory if nodes are directly connected to a switch
F) Because separate circuits are used by communicating end nodes in half-duplex, collisions will not occur

A) In half-duplex mode, CSMA/CD is turned on
D) Half-duplex transmission is mandatory if nodes are directly connected to a hub that is connected to a switch

20) Which statement is true about store and forward switching?
(Choose all that apply)

A) Only the header of a frame is read before the switch forwards the frame
B) The switch stores the frame and calculates the CRC before forwarding the frame
C) Both latency and error rates are decreased
D) Both latency and error rates are increased
E) Latency is increased while error rate is decreased

B) The switch stores the frame and calculates the CRC before forwarding the frame.
E) Latency is increased while error rate is decreased.

21) When collisions are above 5% you should consider:

A) Segmenting the LAN
B) Increasing traffic on the LAN
C) Monitoring traffic on the LAN
D) Adding hubs to the LAN

Segmenting the LAN

22) Which of the following advantages can Cisco switches can provide over hubs? (Choose all that apply)
A) Increase the number of collision domains
B) Increased bandwidth for individual users
C) Reduced latency
D) Concurrent frame forwarding

A) Increase the number of collision domains
B) Increased bandwidth for individual users
D) Concurrent frame forwarding

23) Which of the following are true of half-duplex operation on a CSMA/CD network?
(Choose all that apply)

A) The transmitting NIC loops back its transmission.
B) The NIC listens to the media before transmitting
C) The transmitting NIC compares the original frame with the looped-back frame to determine whether there was a collision
D) Collisions are not possible in a half-duplex Ethernet

A) The transmitting NIC loops back its transmission.
B) The NIC listens to the media before transmitting
C) The transmitting NIC compares the original frame with the looped-back frame to determine whether there was a collision

24) The switching method begins forwarding the incoming frame immediately after reading the destination address.

A) Cut-through
B) Store and forward
C) Adaptive
D) Fragment free

Cut-through

25) What command is used to set a port on a switch to full-duplex mode?

A) mode full-duplex
B) duplex full
C) switch full
D) port full

duplex full

See More

Please allow access to your computer’s microphone to use Voice Recording.

Having trouble? Click here for help.

We can’t access your microphone!

Click the icon above to update your browser permissions above and try again

Example:

Reload the page to try again!

Reload

Press Cmd-0 to reset your zoom

Press Ctrl-0 to reset your zoom

It looks like your browser might be zoomed in or out. Your browser needs to be zoomed to a normal size to record audio.

Please upgrade Flash or install Chrome
to use Voice Recording.

For more help, see our troubleshooting page.

Your microphone is muted

For help fixing this issue, see this FAQ.

Star this term

You can study starred terms together

NEW! Voice Recording

Create Set