Nutrition - Final

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Nutrition Bio 280 Dr. Fitzgerald Scc

What is the major carrier of the fat-soluble vitamins from the intestinal epithelial cell to the circulation...

a. Albumin
b. Cholesterol
c. Chylomicrons
d. Liposoluble binding proteins

Chylomicrons

Which of the following food substances can be converted to vitamin A in the body...

a. Tryptophan
b. Chlorophyll
c. Xanthophyll
d. Beta-carotene

Beta-carotene

Which of the following is the name of the vitamin A compound that is active in the visual response...

a. Opsin
b. Keratin
c. Retinal
d. Carotene

Retinal

What tissue contains the majority of the body's store of vitamin A...

a. Liver
b. Adipose
c. Retinal cells
d. Intestinal mucosal cells

Liver

How many micrograms of dietary beta-carotene are equivalent to 1 retinol activity equivalent (RAE)...

a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 12

12

On average, one retinol activity equivalent (RAE) is equal to about how many international units (IU)...

a. 3
b. 5
c. 8
d. 10

3

Which of the following foods is a very good source of vitamin A...

a. Corn
b. Pumpkin pie
c. Baked potato
d. Whole-grain bread

Pumpkin pie

Vitamin A does not play an important role in which of the following processes...
a. Blood clotting
b. Growth of bones and teeth
c. Synthesis of visual pigment
d. Maintaining mucous membranes

Blood clotting

An example of a symptom of Vitamin A deficiency is...

a. night- blindness
b. extended bleeding time
c. rickets
d. gums bleeding

night- blindness

Which of the following is the most likely side effect for a person who regularly consumes large quantities of carrots or carrot juice...


a. Bone pain
b. Dermatitis
c. Skin yellowing
d. Vitamin A toxicity

Skin yellowing

n which of the following individuals would vitamin A toxicity be most likely to occur...


a. Adolescent women
b. Overweight adults
c. Those taking vitamin A supplements
d. Those consuming more than 100 g of carrots daily

Those taking vitamin A supplements

The adult RDA for vitamin A is approximately...


a. 400 mg.
b. 1,000 mg.
c. 800 retinol activity equivalents (RAE)
d. 5,000 retinol activity equivalents (RAE)

800 retinol activity equivalents (RAE)

Your sister Ellen has just joined the Peace Corps and will be working on ways to improve the nutritional status of children in Indonesia. .......


a. Sweet potato
b. Orange juice
c. Peanut butter
d. Powdered skim milk

Sweet potato

All of the following organs are required for the complete synthesis of activated vitamin D except the...

a. skin
b. liver
c. kidney
d. intestines

intestines

Which of the following compounds serves as the major precursor for the body's synthesis of vitamin D...

a. Cholesterol
b. Tryptophan
c. Beta-carotene
d. Eicosapentanoic acid

Cholesterol

What is/are the main function(s) of vitamin D...
a. Promotes secretion of calcitonin
b. Promotes synthesis of 7-dehydrocholesterol
c. Promotes synthesis of carotenoids and controls absorption of fat-soluble vitamins
d. Promotes calcium and phosphorus absorption and promotes calcium mobilization from bone

Promotes calcium and phosphorus absorption and promotes calcium mobilization from bone

All of the following are characteristics of vitamin D nutrition except...
a. deficient intake may lead to altered bone composition
b. excessive intake may lead to mineral deposits in the kidneys
c. fortified milk is the major dietary source in the U.S. population
d. the requirement is increased in most people who are exposed to the sun

the requirement is increased in most people who are exposed to the sun

Which of the following symptoms would indicate a vitamin D deficiency...

a. Bowed legs
b. Rupture of red blood cells
c. Frequent respiratory infections
d. Abnormally high blood calcium level

Bowed legs

Which of the following is not known to promote vitamin D deficiency in the elderly...

a. Consumption of little or no milk
b. Excessive use of hypertension medications
c. Wearing protective clothing and using sunscreen while outdoors
d. Diminished capacity of liver and kidney synthesis of activated vitamin D

Excessive use of hypertension medications

Which of the following may result from excessive intakes of vitamin D by adults...

a. Increased bone density
b. Increased bone calcification
c. Deformity of leg bones, ribs, and skull
d. Mineral deposits in soft tissues such as the kidney

Mineral deposits in soft tissues such as the kidney

hich of the following enables much of the world's population to maintain adequate vitamin D status...

a. Outdoor exposure of the skin to sunlight
b. Wide availability of low-cost fish products
c. Wide availability of food assistance programs
d. World Health Organization distribution of vitamin D capsules

Outdoor exposure of the skin to sunlight

Which of the following is a naturally occurring food source of vitamin D...

a. Egg yolks
b. Red meats
c. Tomato juice
d. Whole-wheat bread

Egg yolks

Which of the following is not a feature of vitamin D nutrition...

a. A dietary source is oily fish
b. The DRI fails to account for skin synthesis of vitamin D
c. Excessive exposure to the sun increases risk for vitamin D toxicity
d. People who are not outdoors are advised to drink at least 2 cups of vitamin D-fortified milk daily

Excessive exposure to the sun increases risk for vitamin D toxicity

The main function of vitamin E in the body is to act as a(n)...

a. peroxide
b. coenzyme
c. antioxidant
d. free radical

antioxidant

How is vitamin E thought to play a role in reducing the risk of heart disease...

a. It inhibits absorption of dietary cholesterol
b. It slows oxidation of low-density lipoproteins
c. It interferes with cholesterol synthesis by the liver
d. It speeds removal of blood cholesterol by the liver

It slows oxidation of low-density lipoproteins

Which of the following disorders may result from vitamin E deficiency in people...

a. Rickets
b. Xerophthalmia
c. Muscular dystrophy
d. Erythrocyte hemolysis

Erythrocyte hemolysis

Which of the following are major sources of vitamin E in the diet...

a. Meats
b. Citrus fruits
c. Vegetable oils
d. Milk and dairy products

Vegetable oils

In what chief capacity does vitamin K function...

a. Blood clotting
b. Energy metabolism
c. Calcium utilization
d. Epithelial tissue renewal

Blood clotting

Which of the following is a feature of vitamin K...

a. A deficiency increases the risk for hemophilia
b. A deficiency leads to keratinization of the cornea
c. Bacteria in the intestines synthesize bioavailable vitamin K
d. There are multiple forms in the diet of which menadione is the naturally occurring form

Bacteria in the intestines synthesize bioavailable vitamin K

What type of foods should be controlled in individuals taking anticoagulant medicines...

a. Cold water fish
b. Processed soups
c. Enriched breads
d. Green leafy vegetables

Green leafy vegetables

Approximately what percentage of the body's store of vitamin K is derived from GI tract bacterial synthesis...

a. Less than 5
b. 25
c. 50
d. 85

50

Approximately how much water (lbs) is found in a 134-lb person?

a. 34
b. 65
c. 80
d. 105

80

Which of the following is not a function of water in the body...

a. Lubricant
b. Source of energy
c. Maintains protein structure
d. Participant in chemical reactions

Source of energy

In the body, water that resides between cells is known as...

a. diuretic fluid.
b. interstitial fluid.
c. edematous fluid.
d. intravascular fluid.

interstitial fluid

All of the following are mild symptoms of dehydration except...

a. thirst
b. fatigue
c. weakness
d. spastic muscles

spastic muscles

Which of the following body structures helps to regulate thirst...


a. Brain stem
b. Cerebellum
c. Optic nerve
d. Hypothalamus

Hypothalamus

Which of the following is a feature of water and nutrition...

a. Water intoxication is rare but can result in death
b. Water losses from the body are highest through the feces
c. Chronic high intakes increase the risk for bladder cancer
d. Soft water has significant concentrations of magnesium and calcium

Water intoxication is rare but can result in death

The average daily loss of water via the kidneys, lungs, feces, and skin is approximately....

a. 0 to 0.5 liters
b. 0.5 to 1.5 liters
c. 1.5 to 2.5 liters
d. 3.0 to 4.0 liters

1.5 to 2.5 liters

Approximately how many mL of water/day are produced by metabolism...

a. 100
b. 250
c. 500
d. 750

250

Which of the following types of drinking water contains the lowest amount of minerals...

a. Soft water
b. Hard water
c. Natural water
d. Distilled water

Distilled water

What organ provides the major control for homeostasis of body fluids...

a. Liver
b. Heart
c. Kidneys
d. Skeletal muscle

Kidneys

How does antidiuretic hormone function...

a. It activates renin
b. It activates angiotensin
c. It stimulates water reabsorption by the kidneys
d. It stimulates sodium reabsorption by the kidneys

It stimulates water reabsorption by the kidneys

Which of the following describes a way to make an electrolyte solution...

a. Dissolve a teaspoon of salt in a glass of water
b. Vigorously shake a mixture of corn oil and water
c. Dissolve a pinch of corn starch in a glass of water
d. Vigorously shake a pinch of table sugar in warm water

Dissolve a teaspoon of salt in a glass of water

What is the major extracellular cation...

a. Na+
b. Phosphate
c. Sulfate
d. Cl -

Na+

What is the major intracellular cation...

a. Protein
b. Na+
c. K+
d. HCO3-

K+

What is the term for the pressure that develops when two solutions of varying concentrations of solutes are separated by a semi- permeable membrane...

a. Hypotension
b. Hypertension
c. Osmotic pressure
d. Hypertonic pressure

Osmotic pressure

The normal blood pH range is approximately...

a. 6.80-7.15
b. 6.98-7.12
c. 7.35-7.45
d. 7.55-8.55

7.35-7.45

All of the following play important roles in acid-base balance except...

a. the gall bladder
b. the lungs
c. the kidneys
d. blood buffers

the gall bladder

What cardiovascular condition occurs most often in persons who consume too much sodium...


a. hypertension
b. hypotension
c. hyponatremia
d. dehydration

hypertension

Which of the following does not have sodium...


a. baking soda
b. kosher salt
c. MSG or Accent™ (found in a lot of Chinese food)
d. high fructose corn syrup

high fructose corn syrup

How much sodium is contained in a fast-food deluxe hamburger that lists a salt content of 2.5 g? Hint:40% of NaCl (salt) is sodium. Hint: 1 gram= 1000mg

a. 100 mg
b. 125 mg
c. 1,000 mg
d. 2,500 mg

1,000 mg

Which of the following is a major function of chloride...


a. Participates in wound healing
b. Helps maintain gastric acidity
c. Acts as principal intracellular electrolyte
d. Protects bone structures against degeneration

Helps maintain gastric acidity

All of the following are characteristics of chloride in nutrition except...

a. deficiencies are extremely rare.
b. intake is related, in large part, to sodium intake.
c. it is necessary for maintaining electrolyte balance of body fluids.
d. the recommended intake has recently been set at 10 mg/kg body weight.

the recommended intake has recently been set at 10 mg/kg body weight

Which of the following is the primary function of potassium...

a. Participates in wound healing
b. Helps maintain gastric acidity
c. Acts as principal intracellular electrolyte
d. Protects bone structures against degeneration

Acts as principal intracellular electrolyte

Which of the following is not a feature of potassium...

a. It leads to hyperglycemia
b. It leads to higher blood pressure
c. It can be prevented by consumption of potatoes with skins
d. It is common due to availability of only a few good food sources

It is common due to availability of only a few good food sources

Which of the following is a symptom of potassium deficiency...


a. Extreme thirst
b. Muscle weakness
c. Profound sweating
d. Lowered blood pressure

Muscle weakness

Which of the following is a poor source of potassium? Hint


a. baked potato with skins
b. avocados
c. white rice
d. bananas

white rice

All of the following are features of potassium in nutrition except...

a. processed foods are a major source
b. high intakes may protect against stroke
c. per serving size, legumes are a rich source
d. per serving size, bananas are a rich source

processed foods are a major source

As far as is known, which of the following is not a process that directly involves calcium...

a. pH regulation
b. Blood clotting
c. Nerve transmission
d. Maintenance of heart beat

pH regulation

Which of the following regulates the level of calcium in the blood...


a. Dietary intake of calcium
b. Glucagon and epinephrine
c. Dietary intake of phosphorus
d. Parathyroid hormone and calcitonin hormone

Parathyroid hormone and calcitonin hormone

Which of the following are good sources of dietary calcium...

a. Fruits
b. Breads
c. Enriched grains
d. Certain green vegetables

Certain green vegetables

Which of the following shows the highest bioavailability for calcium...

a. Milk
b. Spinach
c. Broccoli
d. Pinto beans

Broccoli

A measure of the amount at which a nutrient is absorbed and used by the body is termed...

a. net utilization.
b. bioavailability.
c. biological value.
d. utilization efficiency

bioavailability

Which of the following is not a trace element...

a. iron
b. calcium
c. iodine
d. zinc

calcium

Which of the following is a protein that carries iron through the circulation to the tissues...


a. Albumin
b. Transferrin
c. Hemosiderin
d. Metallothionein

Transferrin

Which of the following is a characteristic of iron absorption...

a. MPF in plant foods enhances overall iron absorption
b. Ferritin in red meat interferes with ferrous iron absorption
c. Absorption of heme iron is about 50% higher than nonheme iron
d. Transferrin released from pancreatic juice regulates iron uptake from mucosal cells

Absorption of heme iron is about 50% higher than nonheme iron

How does vitamin C enhance iron absorption when consumed in the same meal...

a. It activates transferrin
b. It keeps iron in the reduced ferrous form
c. It releases iron from the proteins in the stomach
d. It complexes with iron and promotes mucosal transport

It keeps iron in the reduced ferrous form

Which of the following foods provides iron in the most absorbable form...

a. Rice
b. Spinach
c. Chicken
d. Orange juice

Chicken

Which of the following nutrients enhances iron absorption from the intestinal tract...

a. Biotin
b. Calcium
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin C

Vitamin C

Which of the following population groups is least susceptible to iron-deficiency anemia...

a. Older infants
b. Children 2-10 years of age
c. Women of childbearing age
d. Men 20-45 years of age

Men 20-45 years of age

The most common tests to diagnose iron deficiency include all of the following measures except...

a. size of red blood cells
b. number of red blood cells
c. DNA content of red blood cells
d. hemoglobin content of red blood cells

DNA content of red blood cells

In the United States, iron is currently added to which of the following foods...

a. Milk and cheese
b. Breads and cereals
c. Peanut butter and jellies
d. Orange juice and tomato juice

Breads and cereals

All of the following are considered heavy metals except...

a. iron
b. lead
c. mercury
d. cadmium

iron

Approximately how much iodized salt must be consumed to meet but not exceed the RDA for iodine...

a. 1 mg
b. 1/2 teaspoon
c. 1 teaspoon
d. 1 tablespoon

1/2 teaspoon

Which of the following foods has the riches source of iodine...

a. corn
b. salmon
c. lake trout
d. orange juice

salmon

The RDA for iodine is...

a. 150 mg
b. 150 micrograms
c. 150 grams
d. 1.5 units

150 micrograms

In the United States what is added to salt...

a. iron
b. iodine
c. fluoride
d. selenium

iodine

Simple goiter is caused by a dietary deficiency of...

a. iodine
b. sodium chloride
c. selenium
d. zinc

iodine

Cretinism is caused by a deficiency of...

a. iron
b. zinc
c. iodine
d. selenium

iodine

A classical sign of zinc deficiency is...

a. anemia
b. goiter
c. mottled teeth
d. growth retardation

growth retardation

The rare genetic disorders Menkes disease and Wilson's disease result from abnormal utilization of...

a. iron.
b. zinc.
c. copper.
d. manganese.

copper

Which of the following is a feature of copper nutrition...

a. Absorption efficiency is similar to that of iron
b. It is involved in collagen synthesis and wound healing
c. Soft water may provide significant amounts in the diet
d. Deficiency is common in children of Middle East countries

It is involved in collagen synthesis and wound healing

Which of the following meats would be the best source of copper...

a. Chicken
b. Shellfish
c. Beefsteak
d. Hamburger

Shellfish

Fluoride deficiency is best known to lead to...

a. dental decay
b. osteoporosis
c. discoloration of teeth
d. nutritional muscular dystrophy

dental decay

Naturally occurring food sources of fluoride include all of the following except...

a. teas
b. tuna
c. milk
d. shrimp

milk

Which of the following is known to cause discolored enamel of the teeth...

a. Excessive fluoride in the water
b. Insufficient fluoride in the water
c. Excessive intake of simple sugars
d. Inability of the body to absorb fluoride

Excessive fluoride in the water

What trace mineral enhances insulin activity...

a. zinc
b. iodine
c. chromium
d. magnesium

chromium

One of the chief functions of chromium is participation in the metabolism of...

a. iron
b. proteins
c. carbohydrates
d. metallothionein

carbohydrates

Chromium deficiency is characterized by...

a. hypertension.
b. hyperglycemia.
c. enlargement of the liver.
d. enlargement of the thyroid gland

hyperglycemia

Which of the following is a characteristic of chromium in nutrition...

a. A deficiency leads to hypothyroidism
b. Supplements are known to be helpful
c. Whole grains represent an excellent source
d. In the body, it enhances the action of ceruloplasmin

Whole grains represent an excellent source

What trace mineral is part of vitamin B12...

a. Copper
b. Cobalt
c. Nickel
d. Vanadium

Cobalt

Which of the following trace minerals is known to be involved in bone development...

a. Tin
b. Cobalt
c. Silicon
d. Barium

Silicon

The components of fitness include all of the following except...

a. strength
b. flexibility
c. bone fragility
d. cardiovascular endurance

bone fragility

Substantial health benefits may be achieved by engaging in a moderately intense level of exercise at a frequency of at least...

a. 10 minutes/day
b. 20 minutes/day
c. 2.5 hours/week
d. 5 hours/week

2.5 hours/week

Which of the following is not
derived directly from cardiorespiratory conditioning...

a. Increased flexibility
b. Slowed resting pulse
c. Increased breathing efficiency
d. Increased blood volume and oxygen delivery

Increased flexibility

For maximum benefits, cardiorespiratory endurance episodes should be sustained for at least...

a. 20 minutes
b. 40 minutes
c. 1 hour
d. 2 hours

20 minutes

In weight training, muscle endurance can best be emphasized by combining a...

a. low number of repetitions with heavy weight
b. low number of repetitions with lighter weight
c. high number of repetitions with heavy weight
d. high number of repetitions with lighter weight

high number of repetitions with lighter weight

What high-energy compound acts as a reservoir of energy for the maintenance of a steady supply of ATP...

a. Glycerol
b. Glycogen
c. Fatty acids
d. Creatine phosphate

Creatine phosphate

What substance contains the chemical energy that drives immediate muscle contraction...

a. ATP
b. NAD
c. glucose
d. fatty acids

ATP

What is the usual fate of muscle glycogen during exercise...

a. Utilized as a fuel within the muscle cells only
b. Released into the bloodstream to provide fuel for brain cells
c. Released into the bloodstream to replenish liver glycogen as needed
d. Utilized to support lung and heart function under conditions of intense physical performance

Utilized as a fuel within the muscle cells only

What dietary nutrients are most effective at raising muscle glycogen concentration...

a. Fats
b. Proteins
c. Carbohydrates
d. Chromium and iron

Carbohydrates

A tissue deprived of an oxygen supply (anaerobic) during exercise would develop an accumulation of...

a. ATP
b. lactate (lactic acid)
c. glucose-1-phosphate
d. TCA cycle intermediates

lactate (lactic acid)

What is the name of the biochemical pathway describing the conversion of lactate to glucose...

a. Cori cycle
b. Krebs cycle
c. Beta-oxidation
d. Reverse glycolysis

Cori cycle

When a marathon runner experiences the phenomenon known as "hitting the wall," what nutrient is most likely depleted...

a. Water
b. Protein
c. Glucose
d. Fatty acids

Glucose

What type of meal and time of its ingestion promotes the most rapid restoration of glycogen stores after physical activity...

a. Mixed meal taken within 4 hours
b. Mixed meal taken within 30 minutes
c. High-carbohydrate meal taken within 2 hours
d. High-carbohydrate meal taken within 15 minutes

High-carbohydrate meal taken within 15 minutes

What cellular organelles are responsible for producing ATP aerobically...

a. Ribosomes
b. Golgi bodies
c. Mitochondria
d. Cell membranes

Mitochondria

Which of the following describes fat utilization during physical activity...

a. Fat that is stored closest to the exercising muscle is oxidized first
b. Fat represents the major fuel source during sustained, moderate activity
c. Fat oxidization makes more of a contribution as the intensity of the exercise increases
d. Fat is burned in higher quantities during short, high-intensity exercises than prolonged, low-intensity exercises

Fat represents the major fuel source during sustained, moderate activity

Which of the following is a feature of iron nutrition in athletes...

a. Iron in sweat represents the major route of iron loss from the body
b. Iron losses occur from accelerated destruction of fragile, older blood cells
c. Iron deficiency affects a higher percentage of male athletes than female athletes
d. Sports anemia is successfully treated by increasing dietary iron to levels 2-3 times the RDA

Iron losses occur from accelerated destruction of fragile, older blood cells

Physical performance is noticeably affected when body water loss first reaches...

a. 2%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 12%

2%

All of the following are characteristics of heat stroke except...

a. it is rarely fatal.
b. it is due, in part, to dehydration.
c. it is caused by heat buildup in the body.
d. its symptoms include headache, nausea, and mental changes.

it is rarely fatal.

Hyponatremia refers to low blood levels of...

a. water.
b. sodium.
c. glucose.
d. potassium.

sodium

Which of the following should be a component of a healthy diet for athletes...

a. Salt tablets
b. Protein powders
c. Nutrient-dense foods
d. Vitamin and mineral supplements

Nutrient-dense foods

All of the following are characteristics of nutrition and pregnancy except...

a. underweight has little, if any, effect on fertility.
b. overweight men have low sperm counts that reduce fertility.
c. excess body fat in women interferes with the regular cycles of menstruation.
d. the woman's nutritional status is more important than the man's for the developing fetus.

underweight has little, if any, effect on fertility

Which of the following describes the capacity of a man to produce sperm and a woman to periodically produce a normal egg...

a. Zygote
b. Fertility
c. Conception
d. Implantation zone

Fertility

What is the placenta...

a. An organ from which the infant receives nourishment from the mother
b. A muscular organ within which the infant develops before birth
c. The developing infant from the eighth week after conception until birth
d. The developing infant during its second through eighth week after conception

An organ from which the infant receives nourishment from the mother

A newly fertilized egg is known as a(n)...

a. fetus
b. ovum
c. zygote
d. embryo

zygote

What is the term given to the developing infant from the eighth week after conception until birth...

a. Fetus
b. Ovum
c. Zygote
d. Embryo

Fetus

Gestation is generally divided into equal periods of...

a. 4 weeks, called quarters
b. 9 weeks, called quartiles
c. 4 months, called semesters
d. 3 months, called trimesters

3 months, called trimesters

All of the following statements are specific to the critical periods of cell division except...

a. malnutrition during pregnancy can affect fetal cell division
b. malnutrition during critical periods can have irreversible effects
c. high-nutrient-density food fed after the critical period can remedy a growth deficit
d. whatever nutrients are needed during a critical period must be supplied at that time

high-nutrient-density food fed after the critical period can remedy a growth deficit

Which of the following is a characteristic of neural tube defects...

a. They are found in about 1,000 newborns in the United States each year
b. They include common disorders such as liver and kidney disease
c. They can be prevented by supplementation of the pregnant woman's diet with vitamin B12
d. They can be prevented by supplementation of the pregnant woman's diet with vitamins A and E

They are found in about 1,000 newborns in the United States each year

Which of the following nutrients taken as a prenatal supplement has been found to be associated with a lower incidence of neural tube defects...

a. Iron
b. Folate
c. Calcium
d. Cobalamin

Folate

What is the most reliable indicator of an infant's future health status...

a. Infant's birth weight
b. Mother's weight before pregnancy
c. Mother's weight gain during pregnancy
d. Mother's nutrition status prior to pregnancy

Infant's birth weight

What is the recommended range of weight gain during pregnancy for a normal-weight woman...

a. 10-18 lbs
b. 19-24 lbs
c. 25-35 lbs
d. 38-44 lbs

25-35 lbs

All of the following are normal body responses to pregnancy except...

a. breast size increases
b. blood volume increases
c. body water level decreases
d. joints become more flexible

body water level decreases

To maintain physical fitness during pregnancy, all of the following activities are considered acceptable except...

a. saunas
b. swimming
c. playing singles tennis
d. 45-minute balanced exercise sessions 3 times/week

saunas

What is the recommended increase in daily energy intake for the third trimester of pregnancy...

a. 200 kcal
b. 300 kcal
c. 450 kcal
d. 540 kcal

450 kcal

Which of the following nutrients are required in higher amounts during pregnancy due to their roles in the synthesis of red blood cells...

a. Protein and chromium
b. Folate and vitamin B12
c. Calcium and vitamin A
d. Vitamin E and vitamin C

Folate and vitamin B12

According to the recommended food intake for pregnancy, which of the following food groups is the only one that is provided in sufficient amounts by this menu...

a. Milk
b. Meats
c. Vegetables
d. Bread/cereal

Meats

All of the following reflect a state of iron nutrition in pregnancy except...

a. the mineral is conserved during this period.
b. absorption of the mineral increases due to higher blood transferrin.
c. most women enter pregnancy with adequate stores of the mineral.
d. stores of the mineral are transferred to the fetus even with low dietary intake

most women enter pregnancy with adequate stores of the mineral.

During pregnancy, which of the following nutrients show a dramatic increase in absorption...

a. Salt and sugar
b. Protein and fat
c. Calcium and iron
d. Thiamin and ascorbic acid

Calcium and iron

The common problems of pregnancy include all of the following except...

a. nausea
b. heartburn
c. constipation
d. low blood pressure

low blood pressure

Which of the following is the standard classification for a low-birth weight infant...

a. 3 lbs or less
b. 4 lbs or less
c. 5 lbs or less
d. 6 lbs or less

5 lbs or less

What is the name of the condition characterized by high blood pressure, edema, and protein in the urine of a pregnant woman...

a. preeclampsia
b. gestational diabetes
c. teratogenic hypertension
c. pregnancy-induced blood pressure crisis

preeclampsia

What is gestational diabetes...

a. A severe form of type 1 diabetes in newborns
b. Abnormal blood glucose maintenance during pregnancy
c. Reactive hypoglycemia expressed during the third trimester of pregnancy
d. A temporary loss of insulin secretion during the first trimester of pregnancy

Abnormal blood glucose maintenance during pregnancy

Which of the following is a characteristic of gestational diabetes...


a. It predicts risk of diabetes for the infant
b. It occurs in over one-half of normal weight women
c. It leads to adult-onset diabetes in about a third of the women
d. It occurs more often in women with a history of having premature births

It leads to adult-onset diabetes in about a third of the women

With few exceptions, all of the following substances or practices should be totally eliminated during pregnancy except...

a. cigarette smoking
b. weight-loss dieting
c. artificial sweeteners
d. alcohol consumption

artificial sweeteners

What is the risk of giving birth to a child with Down syndrome for a woman who is 40 years old compared with a 20 year old....


a. One-half as much
b. About the same
c. much higher

much higher

What is fetal alcohol syndrome...


a. congenital defects including brain and facial deformation that occur in the fetus when the mother drinks alcohol during the pregnancy
b. Trisomy 21 genetic disease that occurs more frequently with advanced maternal age
c. incomplete closure of neural tube due to mutations or dietary deficiencies in first trimester

congenital defects including brain and facial deformation that occur in the fetus when the mother drinks alcohol during the pregnancy

Which of the following recommendations for pregnant women and alcohol intake has been issued by the U.S. Surgeon General...

a. They should drink absolutely no alcohol
b. They should refrain from drinking hard liquor only
c. They are permitted to ingest no more than 2 drinks per day
d. They are permitted to ingest small amounts of alcohol during the first 3 months but none thereafter

They should drink absolutely no alcohol

All of the following are effects of tobacco use in pregnancy except...

a. an increased risk for SIDS.
b. an increased risk for fetal death.
c. an increased risk for macrosomia.
d. an increased risk for vaginal bleeding.

an increased risk for macrosomia

The number of extra kcalories per day needed to produce a normal supply of milk during the first six months of lactation is approximately...

a. 100.
b. 250.
c. 500.
d. 1000

500

Which of the following is a function of prolactin...

a. It reverses the effects of certain mutagens
b. It reverses the effects of certain teratogens
c. It acts on mammary glands to stimulate milk release
d. It acts on mammary glands to promote milk production

It acts on mammary glands to promote milk production

A positive relationship exists between sudden infant death syndrome and which of the following behaviors during pregnancy...

a. Lack of exercise
b. High fish intake
c. Cigarette smoking
d. Vitamin C supplements

Cigarette smoking

What would be a normal body weight after 1 year for a healthy infant with a birth weight of 8 lbs...

a. 12 lbs
b. 16 lbs
c. 24 lbs
d. 35 lbs

24 lbs

What is the approximate energy requirement of infants, in kcalories per kilogram body weight...

a. 25
b. 35
c. 75
d. 100

100

What organ in the infant uses more than half of the day's total energy intake...

a. Liver
b. Brain
c. Kidney
d. Skeletal muscle

Brain

Breast milk as the sole source of nutrition, up to the first 6 months in healthy infants, is satisfactory for all nutrients except...

a. sodium.
b. vitamin D.
c. iron and folate.
d. zinc and vitamin A.

vitamin D

Which of the following represents a good age to introduce solid foods to infants...

a. Two weeks
b. Two months
c. Five months
d. One year

Five months

Which of the following nutrients need to be supplied first by solid foods in a baby's diet...

a. Vitamin C and iron
b. Vitamin A and zinc
c. Vitamin B12 and fluoride
d. Vitamin E and magnesium

Vitamin C and iron

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