BSC 1005 Exam 3

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1) DNA is found in structures called ______.
A) chiasma
B) centromeres
C) histones
D) chromosomes
E) centrosomes

D) chromosomes

2) Chromatin consists of ______.
A) protein only
B) DNA and protein
C) RNA only
D) RNA and protein
E) DNA only

B) DNA and protein

3) Sister chromatids are joined at the ______.
A) centromere
B) centrosome
C) chromatin
D) centriole
E) spindle

A) centromere

4) Which of the following occurs during interphase?
A) Sister chromatids separate.
B) The mitotic spindle forms.
C) Chromosome duplication.
D) Chromatin becomes tightly coiled.
E) Cytokinesis occurs.

C) Chromosome duplication.

5) During metaphase ______.
A) cytokinesis occurs
B) chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell
C) centromeres divide
D) sister chromatids separate
E) the nuclear envelope breaks up

B) chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell

6) The correct sequence of stages of mitosis is
______.
A) metaphase, prophase, anaphase,
telophase
B) prophase, metaphase, anaphase,
telophase
C) interphase, prophase,metaphase,
anaphase, telophase
D) telophase, prophase, interphase,
anaphase, metaphase
E) anaphase, interphase, prophase,
metaphase, telophase

B) prophase, metaphase, anaphase,
telophase

7) Which of these events occurs during anaphase?
A) Chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell.
B) Cytokinesis occurs.
C) Sister chromatids separate.
D) The nuclear envelope reappears.
E) The nuclear envelope breaks up.

C) Sister chromatids separate.

8) Cytokinesis typically occurs during the ______ stage of mitosis.
A) interphase
B) telophase
C) prophase
D) metaphase
E) anaphase

B) telophase

9) Homologous chromosomes ______.
A) separate during interphase
B) include only the autosomes
C) are a set of chromosomes that the cell received from one parent
D) include only the sex chromosomes
E) carry the same genes

E) carry the same genes

10) Chromosomes that do not determine the sex
of an individual are called ______.
A) centromeres
B) autosomes
C) transposons
D) polysomes
E) sister chromatids

B) autosomes

11) Upon completion of telophase I and cytokinesis, there is(are) ______ cell(s).
A) one diploid
B) four diploid
C) four haploid
D) two diploid
E) two haploid

E) two haploid

12) Which of the following is a characteristic seen
in prophase I that does not occur in prophase
II?
A) Chromosomes move to the middle of the cell.
B) Crossing over occurs.
C) Chromosomes have been duplicated.
D) Cytokinesis occurs.
E) Spindle formation occurs.

B) Crossing over occurs.

13) Alleles are described as ______.
A) homologous chromosomes
B) Punnett squares
C) alternate versions of a gene
D) environmental factors that affect gene expression
E) alternate phenotypes

C) alternate versions of a gene

14) A true-breeding plant that produces yellow seeds is crossed with a true-breeding plant
that produces green seeds. The F1 plants have yellow seeds. What is the expected phenotypic ratio of seed color of the offspring of an F1 × F1 cross?
A) 1:2:1
B) 3:1
C) 1:1
D) 2:1
E) 9:3:3:1

B) 3:1

15) What name is given to the specific location of a gene on a chromosome?
A) genotype
B) phenotype
C) allele
D) locus
E) chromaddress

D) locus

16) In humans, the presence or absence of dimples is a trait controlled by a single gene. What is the genotype of an individual who is
heterozygous for dimples?
A) dimples
B) DI
C) dd
D)DD
E)Dd

E)Dd

17) Mendel crossed true-breeding
purple-flowered plants with true-breeding white-flowered plants, and all of the resulting offspring produced purple flowers. The allele for purple flowers is ______.
A) recessive
B) independent
C) monohybrid
D) segregated
E) dominant

E) dominant

18) One difference between mitosis and meiosis is ______.
A) mitosis produces more daughter cells than meiosis
B) meiosis is needed for growth and
tissue repair, but mitosis is not
C) mitosis requires only one parent cell, but meiosis requires two parent cells
D) mitosis produces haploid cells, but meiosis produces diploid cells
E) mitosis produces cells genetically
identical to the parent cell, but meiosis does not

E) mitosis produces cells genetically
identical to the parent cell, but meiosis does not

19) An individual with the genotype AaBb produces four different gametes in equal proportions. This is a demonstration of ______.
A) Mendel's law of independent
assortment
B) crossing over
C) the chromosomal theory of inheritance
D) Mendel's principle of segregation
E) linkage

A) Mendel's law of independent
assortment

20) A ______ describes a site of crossing over.
A) chromatid
B) synapse
C) histone
D) chiasma
E) centromeres

D) chiasma

21) What is the key to the recognition of incomplete dominance?
A) The trait exhibits a continuous
distribution.
B) The alleles affect more than one trait.
C) The heterozygote expresses the
phenotype of both homozygotes.
D) The phenotype of the heterozygote falls between the phenotypes of the homozygotes.
E) The dominant allele is always
expressed.

D) The phenotype of the heterozygote falls between the phenotypes of the homozygotes.

22) An individual who is homozygous ______.
A) carries two different alleles for a gene
B) expresses the recessive trait
C) carries two copies of the same allele for a gene
D) is a carrier of a genetic disorder
E) expresses the dominant trait

C) carries two copies of the same allele for a gene

23) During metaphase I, ______.
A) sister chromatids separate and migrate
to opposite poles
B) the nuclear envelope breaks up
C) centrosomes migrate to opposite poles
D) homologous chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell
E) crossing over occurs

D) homologous chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell

24) Crossing over during prophase I results in ______.
A) translocation
B) genetic recombination
C) nondisjunction
D) reciprocal translocation
E) duplication

B) genetic recombination

25) According to Mendel's law of segregation,
______.
A) gametes have one copy of each allele
B) two alleles segregate into each gamete
C) gametes are diploid
D) homologous chromosomes move to the same gamete
E) more gametes carrying the dominant allele are produced than gametes carrying the recessive allele

A) gametes have one copy of each allele

26) To determine the phenotype of an individual who expresses a dominant trait, you would cross that individual with an individual who
______.
A) expresses the dominant trait
B) is heterozygous for that trait
C) has the genotype Aa
D) is homozygous dominant for that trait
E) is homozygous recessive for that trait

E) is homozygous recessive for that trait

27) The main function of salivary amylase is to ______.
A) store food
B) moisten food
C) catalyze the formation of vitamins
D) digest food
E) absorb nutrients

D) digest food

28) Which of the following choices lists the organs of the alimentary canal in the correct order?
A) esophagus, pharynx, stomach, small intestine, large intestine
B) oral cavity, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine
C) oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus,
stomach, small intestine, large intestine
D) pharynx, oral cavity, esophagus,
stomach, large intestine
E) esophagus, pharynx, stomach, large intestine, small intestine

C) oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus,
stomach, small intestine, large intestine

29) Muscular action propels food through the alimentary canal by a process called ______.
A) peristalsis
B) progurgitation
C) circular contractions
D) active transport
E) diffusion

A) peristalsis

30) The four stages of food processing are, in order:
A) elimination, absorption, digestion,
ingestion
B) ingestion, digestion, absorption,
elimination
C) ingestion, elimination, digestion,
absorption
D) digestion, absorption, ingestion,
elimination
E) ingestion, absorption, elimination,
digestion

B) ingestion, digestion, absorption,
elimination

31) The stomach's gastric glands secrete ______.
A) mucus only
B) digestive enzymes only
C) digestive enzymes and hydrochloric acid
D) mucus, digestive enzymes, and
hydrochloric acid
E) hydrochloric acid only

D) mucus, digestive enzymes, and
hydrochloric acid

32) How many chromosomes does an individual with Turner syndrome have?
A) n + 1
B) 4n
C) n - 1
D) 2n - 1
E) 2n + 1

D) 2n - 1

33) Absorption of water is one major function of which of the following structures?
A) colon
B) appendix
C) esophagus
D) cecum
E) rectum

A) colon

34) Vitamins are ______.
A) organic molecules that are required in the diet in very small amounts
B) nutrients that we can synthesize from simpler molecules
C) required to synthesize most amino acids
D) only required by children
E) none of the above

A) organic molecules that are required in the diet in very small amounts

35) Bile from the liver is stored in the ______ before entering the intestine.
A) gallbladder
B) pancreas
C) bile duct
D) blood
E) intestinal wall

A) gallbladder

36) How does Helicobacter pylori cause gastric ulcers in humans?
A) It causes the production of excess acid in the stomach.
B) H. pylori does not cause gastric ulcers.
C) It neutralizes the acids of the stomach.
D) It damages the stomach's mucus coat.
E) None of the choices are correct.

D) It damages the stomach's mucus coat.

37) What is the epiglottis?
A) a flap that flips down to cover the entry to the trachea during swallowing
B) a muscular sphincter that closes off the entry to the trachea during swallowing
C) a flap of skin that covers the entry to the trachea except during breathing
D) a muscle that moves the trachea out of line with the pharynx during
swallowing
E) a muscle that moves the esophagus into line with the pharynx during swallowing

A) a flap that flips down to cover the entry to the trachea during swallowing

38) A true-breeding plant that produces yellow seeds is crossed with a true-breeding plant that produces green seeds. The seeds of all of the offspring are yellow. Why?
A) All of the offspring are homozygous yellow.
B) Yellow is an easier color to produce.
C) The alleles are codominant.
D) The yellow allele is dominant to the green allele.
E) The yellow allele is recessive to the green allele.

D) The yellow allele is dominant to the green allele.

39) ______ the direct source of energy for cells.
A) Glucose is
B) Amino acids are
C) Vitamins are
D) Fats are
E) ATP is

E) ATP is

40) Which of the following nutrients begins undergoing digestion only when it reaches the small intestine?
A) complex carbohydrate
B) protein
C) polypeptide
D) fat
E) starch

D) fat

41) What is the main digestive function of the pancreas?
A) It secretes mucus into the small
intestine.
B) It produces digestive enzymes and bile.
C) It aids in the control of cholesterol.
D) It produces bile.
E) It produces digestive enzymes and neutralizes stomach acids.

E) It produces digestive enzymes and neutralizes stomach acids.

42) The epithelial cells lining the intestine have surface projections that increase the area for absorption. These projections are called ______.
A) microvilli
B) flagella
C) cilia
D) rugae
E) villi

A) microvilli

43) Which of the following is the usual cause of heartburn?
A) backflow of chyme from the stomach into the esophagus
B) retention of food at the bottom of the esophagus by a sphincter that is
reluctant to open
C) irritation of the lower esophagus by substances in spicy food
D) compression of the lower esophagus by an overfilled stomach
E) secretion of acid by the lining of the lower esophagus

A) backflow of chyme from the stomach into the esophagus

44) Most nutrient absorption occurs in which part of the digestive system?
A) small intestine
B) stomach
C) large intestine
D) liver
E) pancreas

A) small intestine

45) The stomach mixes the food with the secretions of the stomach wall to form ______.
A) gastric juice
B) acid gastrin
C) chyme
D) a food ball
E) gastrin

C) chyme

46) The esophagus and trachea are both open to the ______.
A) pharynx
B) epiglottis
C) larynx
D) posterior oral cavity
E) posterior nasal cavity

A) pharynx

47) Which structure stores feces until they can be eliminated?
A) appendix
B) rectum
C) anus
D) small intestine
E) none of the above

B) rectum

48) Digestion begins in the ______.
A) tongue
B) pharynx
C) oral cavity
D) stomach
E) esophagus

C) oral cavity

49) The tongue does all of the following except ______.
A) taste food
B) shape food into a ball
C) manipulate food
D) push food into the pharynx
E) secrete saliva

E) secrete saliva

50) Movement of chyme from the stomach to the small intestine is regulated by ______.
A) a sphincter
B) the pharynx
C) reverse peristalsis
D) peristalsis
E) the epiglottis

A) a sphincter

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