Mel Bio Genetics Test

166 terms by melaniemagdun 

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A human cell containing 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is
A. a sperm.
B. a zygote.
C. a somatic cell of a male.
D. a somatic cell of a female.
E. an egg.

A

Which life cycle stage is found in plants but not animals?
A. zygote
B. multicellular haploid
C. unicellular diploid
D. gamete
E. multicellular diploid

B

Homologous chromosomes move toward opposite poles of a dividing cell during
A. binary fission.
B. fertilization.
C. meiosis I.
D. meiosis II.
E. mitosis.

C

Meiosis II is similar to mitosis in that
A.the chromosome number is reduced.
B. homologous chromosomes synapse.
C. DNA replicates before the division.
D. sister chromatids separate during anaphase.
E. the daughter cells are diploid.

D

If the DNA content of a diploid cell in the G1 phase of the cell cycle is x, then the DNA content of the same cell at metaphase of meiosis I would be
A. 4x.
B. 0.5x.
C. x.
D. 0.25x.
E. 2x.

E

If we continued to follow the cell lineage from question 5, then the DNA content of a single cell at metaphase of meiosis II would be
A. 0.5x.
B. 4x.
C. x.
D. 0.25x.
E. 2x.

C

How many different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes can be packaged in gametes made by an organism with a diploid number of 8 (2n = 8)?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 2
D. 4
E. 32

B

Look at the cell in the figure. Based on this figure, which of the following statements is true?
A. It is impossible to tell whether the cell is haploid or diploid.
B. This cell is haploid.
C. This cell is diploid.

C

What is the best evidence telling you whether this cell is diploid or haploid?
A. The cell is haploid because the chromosomes are not found in pairs.
B. The cell is diploid because each chromosome consists of two chromatids.
C. The cell is diploid because it contains two sets of chromosomes.

C

This chromosome has two chromatids, joined at the centromere. What process led to the formation of the two chromatids?
A. The two chromatids were formed by synapsis and the formation of a synaptonemal complex.
B. The two chromatids were formed by fertilization, bringing together maternal and paternal chromatids.
C. The two chromatids were formed by replication of the DNA within a single chromatid.

C

Select all that apply.
A. Spores
B. Gametes (sperm and eggs)
C. Multicellular adult organisms

AB

Two sister chromatids are joined at the centromere prior to meiosis. Which statement is correct?
A. The cell that contains these sister chromatids must be diploid.
B. These chromatids make up a diploid chromosome.
C. Barring mutation, the two sister chromatids must be identical.

C

Asexual reproduction _____.
A; requires both meiosis and mitosis
B. is limited to plants
C. is limited to single-cell organisms
D. leads to a loss of genetic material
E. produces offspring genetically identical to the parent

E

What number and types of chromosomes are found in a human somatic cell?
A. 22 autosomes and 1 sex chromosome
B. 21 autosomes and 2 sex chromosomes
C. n chromosomes
D. 44 autosomes and 2 sex chromosomes
E. 45 autosomes and 1 sex chromosome

D

If a horticulturist breeding gardenias succeeds in having a single plant with a particularly desirable set of traits, which of the following would be her most probable and efficient route to establishing a line of such plants?
A. Force the plant to self-pollinate to obtain an identical one.
B. Breed this plant with another plant with much weaker traits.
C. Add nitrogen to the soil of the offspring of this plant so the desired traits continue.
D. Clone the plant asexually to produce an identical one.
E. Backtrack through her previous experiments to obtain another plant with the same traits.

D

Which of the following defines a genome?
A. the complete set of an organism's genes
B. a karyotype
C. the complete set of an organism's polypeptides
D. representation of a complete set of a cell's polypeptides
E. the complete set of a species' polypeptides

A

Which is the smallest unit containing the entire human genome?
A. all of the DNA of one human
B. one human somatic cell
C. one human chromosome
D. the entire human population
E. one human gene

B

The human X and Y chromosomes
A. are called autosomes.
B. are almost entirely homologous, despite their different names.
C. are about the same size and have approximately the same number of genes.
D. are both present in every somatic cell of males and females alike.
E. include genes that determine an individual's sex.

E

For what purpose(s) might a karyotype be prepared?
A. for prenatal screening, to determine if a fetus has the correct number of chromosomes
B. to determine whether a fetus is male or female
C. to detect the possible presence of chromosomal abnormalities such as deletions, inversions, or translocations
D. The first and second answers are correct.
E. The first three answers are correct.

E

In alternation of generations, what is the diploid stage of a plant that follows fertilization called?
A. spore
B. sporophyte
C. gametophyte
D. karyotype
E. chiasmata

B

How are sister chromatids and homologous chromosomes different from each other?
A. They are not different. Homologous chromosomes and sister chromatids are both identical copies of each other.
B. Homologous chromosomes contain the same gene loci but may have different alleles of a particular gene. Sister chromatids are identical copies of each other produced during DNA replication.
C. Homologous chromosomes are identical copies of each other. One sister chromatid comes from the father, and one comes from the mother.
D. Homologous chromosomes are closely associated with each other in both mitosis and meiosis. Sister chromatids are only associated with each other during mitosis.
E. Sister chromatids are only formed during mitosis. Homologous chromosomes are formed during meiosis.

B

Which of the following is a true statement about sexual vs. asexual reproduction?
A. In asexual reproduction, offspring are produced by fertilization without meiosis.
B. Sexual reproduction requires that parents be diploid.
C. Asexual reproduction produces only haploid offspring.
D. In sexual reproduction, individuals transmit 50% of their genes to each of their offspring.
E. Asexual reproduction, but not sexual reproduction, is characteristic of plants and fungi.

D

At which stage of mitosis are chromosomes usually photographed in the preparation of a karyotype?
A. telophase
B. metaphase
C. anaphase
D. interphase
E. prophase

B

Which of the following is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n = 16?
A. During the S phase of the cell cycle there will be 32 separate chromosomes.
B. The species is diploid with 32 chromosomes per cell.
C. A gamete from this species has four chromosomes.
D. The species has 16 sets of chromosomes per cell.
E. Each cell has eight homologous pairs.

E

Which of these statements is false?
A. At sexual maturity, ovaries and testes produce diploid gametes by meiosis.
B. Sexual life cycles differ with respect to the relative timing of meiosis and fertilization.
C. In humans, each of the 22 maternal autosomes has a homologous paternal chromosome.
D. Single, haploid (n) sets of chromosomes in ovum and sperm unite during fertilization, forming a diploid (2n), single-celled zygote.
E. In humans, the 23rd pair, the sex chromosomes, determines whether the person is female (XX) or male (XY).

A

Referring to a plant's sexual life cycle, which of the following terms describes the process that leads directly to the formation of gametes?
A. sporophyte meiosis
B. gametophyte mitosis
C. sporophyte mitosis
D. gametophyte meiosis
E. alternation of generations

B

Which of the following is an example of alternation of generations?
A. A grandparent and grandchild each have dark hair, but the parent has blond hair.
B. A diploid animal produces gametes by meiosis, and the gametes undergo fertilization to produce a diploid zygote.
C. A diploid plant (sporophyte) produces, by meiosis, a spore that gives rise to a multicellular, haploid pollen grain (gametophyte).
D. A diploid cell divides by mitosis to produce two diploid daughter cells, which then fuse to produce a tetraploid cell.
E. A haploid mushroom produces gametes by mitosis, and the gametes undergo fertilization, which is immediately followed by meiosis.

C

A given organism has 46 chromosomes in its karyotype. We can therefore conclude which of the following?
A. It must be sexually reproducing.
B. It must be an animal.
C. Its gametes must have 23 chromosomes.
D. It must be a primate.
E. It must be human.

C

A triploid cell contains three sets of chromosomes. If a cell of a usually diploid species with 42 chromosomes per cell is triploid, this cell would be expected to have which of the following?
A. 63 chromosomes, each with three chromatids
B. 63 chromosomes in 21 sets of 3
C. 21 chromosome pairs and 21 unique chromosomes
D. 63 chromosomes in 31 1/2 pairs

B

Which of the following best describes a karyotype?
A. a display of each of the chromosomes of a single cell
B. a photograph of all the cells with missing or extra chromosomes
C. a pictorial representation of all the genes for a species
D. the combination of all the maternal and paternal chromosomes of a species
E. the collection of all the chromosomes in an individual organism

A

Which of the following can utilize both mitosis and meiosis in the correct circumstances?
A. any diploid animal cell
B. a haploid animal cell
C. a diploid cell from a plant stem
D. an archaebacterium
E. a plantlike protist

E

Which of the following might result in a human zygote with 45 chromosomes?
A. lack of chiasmata in prophase I
B. failure of the egg nucleus to be fertilized by the sperm
C. an error in either egg or sperm meiotic anaphase
D. an error in the alignment of chromosomes on the metaphase plate
E. fertilization of a 23 chromosome human egg by a 22 chromosome sperm of a closely related species

C

The somatic cells of a privet shrub each contain 46 chromosomes. To be as different as they are from human cells, which have the same number of chromosomes, which of the following must be true?
A. Genes on a particular privet chromosome, such as the X, must be on a different human chromosome, such as number 18.
B. Privet sex cells have chromosomes that can synapse with human chromosomes in the laboratory.
C. Genes of privet chromosomes are significantly different than those in humans.
D. Privet shrubs must be metabolically more like animals than like other shrubs.
E. Privet cells cannot reproduce sexually.

C

In a human karyotype, chromosomes are arranged in 23 pairs. If we choose one of these pairs, such as pair 14, which of the following do the two chromosomes of the pair have in common?
A. Length, centromere position, staining pattern, and traits coded for by their genes.
B. Length and position of the centromere only.
C. Length, centromere position, staining pattern, and DNA sequences.
D. Length, centromere position, and staining pattern only.
E. They have nothing in common except they are X-shaped.

A

To view and analyze human chromosomes in a dividing cell, which of the following is/are required?
A. a stain particular to human cells
B. a scanning electron microscope
C. radioactive staining
D. DNA staining and a light microscope
E. fluorescent staining and a transmission electron microscope

D

Refer to the life cycles illustrated in the figure to answer the following question.
Which of the life cycles is typical for animals?
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III

A

Refer to the life cycles illustrated in the figure to answer the following question.
Which of the life cycles is typical for most fungi and some protists?
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III

B

Refer to the life cycles illustrated in the figure to answer the following question.
In part III of the figure, the progression of events corresponds to which of the following series?
A. zygote, mitosis, gametophyte, mitosis, fertilization, zygote, mitosis
B. gametophyte, meiosis, zygote, spores, sporophyte, zygote
C. fertilization, mitosis, multicellular haploid, mitosis, spores, sporophyte
D. sporophyte, meiosis, spore, mitosis, gametophyte, mitosis, gametes, fertilization
E. meiosis, fertilization, zygote, mitosis, adult, meiosis

D

Refer to the life cycles illustrated in the figure to answer the following question.
In a life cycle such as that shown in part III of the figure, if the zygote's chromosome number is 10, which of the following will be true?
A. The sporophyte and gametophyte each have 20 chromosomes per cell.
B. The sporophyte and gametophyte each have 10 chromosomes per cell.
C. The sporophyte and gametophyte each have 5 chromosomes per cell.
D. The sporophyte's chromosome number per cell is 10 and the gametophyte's is 5.
E. The sporophyte's chromosome number per cell is 5 and the gametophyte's is 10.

D

Eukaryotic sexual life cycles show tremendous variation. Of the following elements, which do all sexual life cycles have in common?
I. Alternation of generations
II. Meiosis
III. Fertilization
IV. Gametes
V. Spores
A. II, IV, and V
B. I, II, and IV
C. I, IV, and V
D. I, II, III, IV, and V
E. II, III, and IV

E

Mitosis is commonly found in all but one of the following. Select the exception:
A. a diploid animal cell
B. a haploid plant cell
C. a haploid animal cell
D. a diploid plant cell

C

Which of these is a karyotype?
A. a display of all the cell types in an organism.
B. the appearance of an organism.
C. a display of a cell's mitotic stages.
D. organized images of a cell's chromosomes.
E. a natural cellular arrangement of chromosomes in the nucleus.

D

Which of these is a way that the sexual life cycle increases genetic variation in a species?
A. by allowing an increase in cell number
B. by decreasing mutation frequency
C. by allowing crossing over
D. by increasing gene stability
E. by conserving chromosomal gene order

C

Mitosis results in the formation of how many cells; meiosis results in the formation of how many cells?
A. two diploid cells ... two haploid cells
B. two diploid cells ... two diploid cells
C. four haploid cells ... two diploid cells
D. two diploid cells ... four haploid cells
E. four diploid cells ... four haploid cells

D

Which of the following occurs during meiosis but not during mitosis?
A.Chromosomes condense.
B. Chromosomes align at the metaphase plate.
C. A spindle apparatus forms.
D. Synapsis occurs.
E. Chromosomes migrate to opposite poles.

D

WHAT IS CROSSING OVER?
A.the movement of genetic material from one chromosome to a nonhomologous chromosome
B. the exchange of homologous portions of nonsister chromatids
C. making an RNA copy of a DNA strand
D. a direct consequence of the separation of sister chromatids
E. also referred to as the "independent assortment of chromosomes"

B

The karyotype of one species of primate has 48 chromosomes. In a particular female, cell division goes awry and she produces one of her eggs with an extra chromosome (25). The most probable source of this error would be a mistake in which of the following?
A. mitosis in her ovary
B. telophase II of one meiotic event
C. metaphase I of one meiotic event
D. telophase I of one meiotic event
E. either anaphase I or II

E

If a cell has completed the first meiotic division and is just beginning meiosis II, which of the following is an appropriate description of its contents?
A. It has one-fourth the DNA and one-half the chromosomes as the originating cell.
B. It has the same number of chromosomes but each of them has different alleles than another cell from the same meiosis.
C. It has half the amount of DNA as the cell that began meiosis.
D. It has half the chromosomes but twice the DNA of the originating cell.
E. It is identical in content to another cell from the same meiosis.

C

After telophase I of meiosis, the chromosomal makeup of each daughter cell is
A. diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids.
B. haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids.
C. tetraploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids.
D. diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid.
E. haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid.

B

How do cells at the completion of meiosis compare with cells that have replicated their DNA and are just about to begin meiosis?
A. They have half the number of chromosomes and one-fourth the amount of DNA.
B. They have twice the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of DNA.
C. They have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
D. They have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
E. They have half the amount of cytoplasm and twice the amount of DNA.

A

When does the synaptonemal complex disappear?
A.mid-prophase of meiosis I
B. during fertilization or fusion of gametes
C. late prophase of meiosis I
D. early anaphase of meiosis I
E. late metaphase of meiosis II

C

Which of the following happens at the conclusion of meiosis I?
A. Cohesins are cleaved at the centromeres.
B. Sister chromatids are separated.
C. Homologous chromosomes of a pair are separated from each other.
D. The chromosome number per cell is conserved.
E. Four daughter cells are formed.

c

Chromatids are separated from each other.
A. The statement is true for meiosis II only.
B. The statement is true for meiosis I only.
C. The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I.
D. The statement is true for mitosis only.
E. The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II.

E

Which of the following occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis?
A. synapsis of chromosomes
B. production of daughter cells
C. chromosome replication
D. condensation of chromatin
E. alignment of chromosomes at the equator

A

If an organism is diploid and a certain gene found in the organism has 18 known alleles (variants), then any given organism of that species can/must have which of the following?
A. up to, but not more than, 18 different traits
B. up to 18 genes for that trait
C. at most, 2 alleles for that gene
D. a haploid number of 9 chromosomes
E. up to 18 chromosomes with that gene

C

Experiments with cohesins have found that
A. cohesins are protected from destruction throughout meiosis I and II.
B. cohesins are protected from cleavage at the centromere during meiosis I.
C. cohesins are cleaved from chromosomes at the centromere before anaphase I.
D. a protein cleaves cohesins before metaphase I.
E. a protein that cleaves cohesins would cause cellular death.

B

When we see chiasmata under a microscope, that lets us know which of the following has occurred?
A. prophase I
B. asexual reproduction
C. meiosis II
D. anaphase II
E. separation of homologs

A

For the following question, match the key event of meiosis with the stages listed below.
I. Prophase I V. Prophase II
II. Metaphase I VI. Metaphase II
III. Anaphase I VII. Anaphase II
IV. Telophase I VIII. Telophase II
Synaptonemal complexes form or are still present.
A. II and VI only
B. I and IV only
C. I, II, III, and IV only
D. I and VIII only
E. I only

E

For the following question, match the key event of meiosis with the stages listed below.
I. Prophase I V. Prophase II
II. Metaphase I VI. Metaphase II
III. Anaphase I VII. Anaphase II
IV. Telophase I VIII. Telophase II
Centromeres of sister chromatids disjoin and chromatids separate.
A. II
B. III
C. IV
D. V
E. VII

E

The following question refers to the essential steps in meiosis described below.
1. Formation of four new nuclei, each with half the chromosomes present in the parental nucleus
2. Alignment of tetrads at the metaphase plate
3. Separation of sister chromatids
4. Separation of the homologs; no uncoupling of the centromere
5. Synapsis; chromosomes moving to the middle of the cell in pairs
Which of the steps takes place in both mitosis and meiosis?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 2 and 3 only
E. 2, 3, and 5

B

Refer to the drawings in the figure of a single pair of homologous chromosomes as they might appear during various stages of either mitosis or meiosis, and answer the following question.
Which diagram(s) represent anaphase II of meiosis?
A. II only
B. III only
C. IV only
D. V only
E. either II or V

D

You have isolated DNA from three different cell types of an organism, determined the relative DNA content for each type, and plotted the results on the graph shown in the figure. Refer to the graph to answer the following question.
Which sample of DNA might be from a nerve cell arrested in G0 of the cell cycle?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. either I or II
E. either I or III

A

You have isolated DNA from three different cell types of an organism, determined the relative DNA content for each type, and plotted the results on the graph shown in the figure. Refer to the graph to answer the following question.
Which sample might represent an animal cell in the G2 phase of the cell cycle?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. both I and II
E. either II or III

B

Refer to the following information and the figure to answer the following question.
A certain (hypothetical) organism is diploid, has either blue or orange wings as the consequence of one of its genes on chromosome 12, and has either long or short antennae as the result of a second gene on chromosome 19, as shown in the figure.
A certain female's number 12 chromosomes both have the blue gene and number 19 chromosomes both have the long gene. As cells in her ovaries undergo meiosis, her resulting eggs (ova) may have which of the following?
A. one chromosome 12 with one blue gene and one chromosome 19 with one long gene
B. either two number 12 chromosomes with blue genes or two with orange genes
C. either one blue or one orange gene in addition to either one long or one short gene
D. either two number 19 chromosomes with long genes or two with short genes

A

Refer to the following information and the figure to answer the following question.
A certain (hypothetical) organism is diploid, has either blue or orange wings as the consequence of one of its genes on chromosome 12, and has either long or short antennae as the result of a second gene on chromosome 19, as shown in the figure.
If a female of this species has one chromosome 12 with a blue gene and another chromosome 12 with an orange gene, and has both number 19 chromosomes with short genes, she will produce which of the following egg types?
A. only blue short gene eggs
B. three-fourths blue short and one-fourth orange short gene eggs
C. three-fourths blue long and one-fourth orange short gene eggs
D. one-half blue short and one-half orange short gene eggs
E. only orange short gene eggs

D

Refer to the following information and the figure to answer the following question.
A certain (hypothetical) organism is diploid, has either blue or orange wings as the consequence of one of its genes on chromosome 12, and has either long or short antennae as the result of a second gene on chromosome 19, as shown in the figure.
A female with a paternal set of one orange and one long gene chromosome and a maternal set comprised of one blue and one short gene chromosome is expected to produce which of the following types of eggs after meiosis?
A. All eggs will have maternal types of gene combinations.
B. All eggs will have paternal types of gene combinations.
C. Half the eggs will have maternal and half will have paternal combinations.
D. Each egg has a three-fourths chance of having blue long, one-fourth blue short, three-fourths orange long, or one-fourth orange short combinations.
E. Each egg has a one-fourth chance of having either blue long, blue short, orange long, or orange short combinations.

E

Whether during mitosis or meiosis, sister chromatids are held together by proteins referred to as cohesins. Such molecules must have which of the following properties?
A.They must be removed before meiosis can begin.
B. They must reattach to chromosomes during G1.
C. They must persist throughout the cell cycle.
D. They must be intact for nuclear envelope re-formation.
E. They must be removed before sister chromatids or homologous chromosomes can separate.

E

A pair of homologous chromosomes includes which of the following sets of DNA strands?
A. four sister chromatids
B. eight sister chromatids
C. two single-stranded chromosomes that have synapsed
D. two sister chromatids that have synapsed
E. four unique chromosomes

A

To visualize and identify meiotic cells at metaphase with a microscope, what would you look for?
A. individual chromosomes all at the cell's center
B. the synaptonemal complex
C. pairs of homologous chromosomes all aligned at the cell's center
D. an uninterrupted spindle array
E. sister chromatids of a replicated chromosome grouped at the poles

C

Genetic variation occurs when chromosomes are shuffled in fertilization and what other process?.
A. meiosis
B. mitosis
C. mutation
D. genetic drift
E. natural selection

A

Heritable variation is required for which of the following?
A. meiosis
B. mitosis
C. evolution
D. the production of a clone
E. asexual reproduction

C

Independent assortment of chromosomes occurs.
A. The statement is true for meiosis II only.
B. The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II.
C. The statement is true for meiosis I only.
D. The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I.
E. The statement is true for mitosis only.

C

Independent assortment of chromosomes is a result of
A. the random and independent way in which each pair of homologous chromosomes lines up at the metaphase plate during meiosis I.
B. the random nature of the fertilization of ova by sperm.
C. the relatively small degree of homology shared by the X and Y chromosomes.
D. the random and independent way in which each pair of homologous chromosomes lines up at the metaphase plate during meiosis I, the random nature of the fertilization of ova by sperm, the random distribution of the sister chromatids to the two daughter cells during anaphase II, and the relatively small degree of homology shared by the X and Y chromosomes.
E. the random distribution of the sister chromatids to the two daughter cells during anaphase II.

A

Which of the following best describes the frequency of crossing over in mammals?
A. ~50 per chromosome pair
B. at least 1-2 per chromosome pair
C. ~2 per meiotic cell
D. a very rare event among hundreds of cells
E. ~1 per pair of sister chromatids

B

Use the following information to answer the next question.
There is a group of invertebrate animals called rotifers, among which a particular group of species reproduces, as far as is known, only asexually. These rotifers, however, have survived a long evolutionary history without evidence of having been overcome by excessive mutations.
Since the rotifers develop from eggs, but asexually, what can you predict?
A. All males can produce eggs.
B. The eggs and the zygotes are all haploid.
C. While asexual, both males and females are found in nature.
D. The animals are all hermaphrodites.
E. No males can be found.

E

There is a group of invertebrate animals called rotifers, among which a particular group of species reproduces, as far as is known, only asexually. These rotifers, however, have survived a long evolutionary history without evidence of having been overcome by excessive mutations.How is natural selection related to sexual reproduction as opposed to asexual reproduction?
A. Sexual reproduction results in the most appropriate and healthiest balance of two sexes in the population.
B. Sexual reproduction allows the greatest number of offspring to be produced.
C. Sexual reproduction results in the greatest number of new mutations.
D. Sexual reproduction utilizes far less energy than asexual reproduction.
E. Sexual reproduction results in many new gene combinations, some of which will lead to differential reproduction.

E

For a species with a haploid number of 23 chromosomes, how many different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes are possible for the gametes?
A. about 8 million
B. 23
C. 46
D. 460
E. 920

A

When homologous chromosomes cross over, what occurs?
A. Two chromatids get tangled, resulting in one re-sequencing its DNA.
B. Each of the four DNA strands of a homologous pair is broken, and the pieces are mixed.
C. Specific proteins break the two strands of nonsister chromatids and re-join them.
D. Two sister chromatids exchange identical pieces of DNA.
E. Maternal alleles are "corrected" to be like paternal alleles and vice versa.

C

Quantitative characters vary in a population along a continuum. How do such characters differ from the characters investigated by Mendel in his experiments on peas?
A.Environment and genes affect quantitative characters, whereas only genes determined the pea characters studied by Mendel.
B. The nature of inheritance of quantitative characters is poorly understood, and Mendel understood the nature of inheritance for the characters he studied in his peas.
C. Quantitative characters are due to polygenic inheritance, the additive effects of two or more genes on a single phenotypic character. A single gene affected all but one of the pea characters studied by Mendel.

C

Select the correct explanation for the fact that a carrier of a recessive genetic disorder does not have the disorder.
A. Affected individuals have recessive mutations, but a carrier has a dominant mutation.
B. The dominant allele for the gene determining the disorder represses protein production from the recessive allele.
C. In a recessive disorder, only a single functioning allele is necessary to determine a normal phenotype.

C

Each chromosome in this homologous pair possesses a different allele for flower color. Which statement about this homologous pair of chromosomes is correct?
A. These homologous chromosomes are formed by DNA replication.
B. These homologous chromosomes represent a maternal and a paternal chromosome.
C. Each of these homologous chromosomes consists of a single chromatid. Therefore, they must come from a haploid cell.

B

When a dominant allele coexists with a recessive allele in a heterozygote individual, how do they interact with each other?
A.They do not interact at all.
B. The dominant allele prevents transcription of the recessive allele.
C. The dominant allele prevents expression of the recessive allele by an unknown mechanism.

A

What is the probability that Charles and Elaine will have a baby with cystic fibrosis? Express your answer as a fraction using the slash symbol and no spaces (for example, 1/16).

1/6

In his breeding experiments, Mendel first crossed true-breeding plants to produce a second generation, which were then allowed to self-pollinate to generate the offspring. How do we name these three generations?
A. P ... F1 ... F2
B. F1 ... F2 ... F3
C. F ... P1 ... P2
D. P1 ... P2 ... P3
E. P1 ... P2 ... F

A

Which of the following is true about a plant with the genotype AABbcc?
A. It has recessive alleles at three loci.
B. It is triploid.
C. It is homozygous at two loci.
D. It is heterozygous at two loci.
E. It will not express the recessive c allele.

C

What is an allele?
A. an alternative version of a gene
B. the recessive form of a gene
C. a variety of pea plant used by Mendel
D. a type of chromosome
E. the dominant form of a gene

A

What do we mean when we use the terms monohybrid cross and dihybrid cross?
A.A monohybrid cross results in a 9:3:3:1 ratio whereas a dihybrid cross gives a 3:1 ratio.
B. A monohybrid cross produces a single progeny, whereas a dihybrid cross produces two progeny.
C. A monohybrid cross involves a single parent, whereas a dihybrid cross involves two parents.
D. A monohybrid cross is performed for one generation, whereas a dihybrid cross is performed for two generations.
E. A dihybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for two characters and a monohybrid cross involves only one.

E

What was the most significant conclusion that Gregor Mendel drew from his experiments with pea plants?
A. An organism that is homozygous for many recessive traits is at a disadvantage.
B. Recessive genes occur more frequently in the F1 generation than do dominant ones.
C. Genes are composed of DNA.
D. Traits are inherited in discrete units, and are not the results of "blending."
E. There is considerable genetic variation in garden peas.

D

How many unique gametes could be produced through independent assortment by an individual with the genotype AaBbCCDdEE?

16
4
64
8
32

8

Why did Mendel continue some of his experiments to the F2 or F3 generation?
A. to obtain a larger number of offspring on which to base statistics
B. to distinguish which alleles were segregating
C. to observe whether or not the dominant trait would reappear
D. to observe whether or not a recessive trait would reappear
E. to be able to describe the frequency of recombination

D

Which of the following differentiates between independent assortment and segregation?
A.The law of segregation requires describing two or more genes relative to one another.
B. The law of segregation is accounted for by anaphase of mitosis.
C. The law of independent assortment is accounted for by observations of prophase I.
D. The law of segregation requires having two or more generations to describe.
E. The law of independent assortment requires describing two or more genes relative to one another.

E

Two plants are crossed, resulting in offspring with a 3:1 ratio for a particular trait. What does this suggest?
A. that the parents were true-breeding for contrasting traits
B. that the parents were both heterozygous for a single trait
C. that each offspring has the same alleles for each of two traits
D. that a blending of traits has occurred
E. that the trait shows incomplete dominance

B

A sexually reproducing animal has two unlinked genes, one for head shape (H) and one for tail length (T). Its genotype is HhTt. Which of the following genotypes is possible in a gamete from this organism?
HhTt
Hh
tt
HT
T

HT

Mendel accounted for the observation that traits which had disappeared in the F1 generation reappeared in the F2 generation by proposing that
A.traits can be dominant or recessive, and the recessive traits were obscured by the dominant ones in the F1.
B. the traits were lost in the F1 due to dominance of the parental traits.
C. members of the F1 generation had only one allele for each trait, but members of the F2 had two alleles for each trait.
D. the mechanism controlling the appearance of traits was different between the F1 and the F2 plants.
E. new mutations were frequently generated in the F2 progeny, "reinventing" traits that had been lost in the F1.

A

The fact that all seven of the pea plant traits studied by Mendel obeyed the principle of independent assortment most probably indicates which of the following?
A. All of the genes controlling the traits behaved as if they were on different chromosomes.
B. All of the genes controlling the traits were located on the same chromosome.
C. None of the traits obeyed the law of segregation.
D. The formation of gametes in plants occurs by mitosis only.
E. The diploid number of chromosomes in the pea plants was 7.

A

Mendel's observation of the segregation of alleles in gamete formation has its basis in which of the following phases of cell division?
A. anaphase II of meiosis
B. anaphase of mitosis
C. metaphase I of meiosis
D. anaphase I of meiosis
E. prophase I of meiosis

D

Mendel's second law of independent assortment has its basis in which of the following events of meiosis I?
A.crossing over
B. separation of cells at telophase
C. synapsis of homologous chromosomes
D. separation of homologs at anaphase
E. alignment of tetrads at the equator

E

The individual with genotype AaBbCCDdEE can make many kinds of gametes. Which of the following is the major reason?
A. different possible assortment of chromosomes into gametes
B. the tendency for dominant alleles to segregate together
C. segregation of maternal and paternal alleles
D. recurrent mutations forming new alleles
crossing over during prophase I

A

Why did the F1 offspring of Mendel's classic pea cross always look like one of the two parental varieties?
A. The traits blended together during fertilization.
B. Phenotype was not dependent on genotype.
C. One allele was dominant.
D. Each allele affected phenotypic expression.
E. No genes interacted to produce the parental phenotype.

C

Which of the following is the best statement of the use of the addition rule of probability?
A. the likelihood that a trait is due to two or more meiotic events
B. the probability of producing two or more heterozygous offspring
C. the probability that two or more independent events will both occur in the offspring of one set of parents
D. the probability that either one of two independent events will occur
E. the probability that two or more independent events will both occur

D

Which of the following calculations require that you utilize the addition rule?
A. Calculate the probability of each of four children having cystic fibrosis if the parents are both heterozygous.
B. Calculate the probability of a child having either sickle-cell anemia or cystic fibrosis if parents are each heterozygous for both.
C. Calculate the probability of children with both cystic fibrosis and polydactyly when parents are each heterozygous for both genes.
D. Calculate the probability of black offspring from the cross AaBb × AaBb, when B is the symbol for black.
E. Calculate the probability of purple flower color in a plot of 50 plants seeded from a self-fertilizing heterozygous parent plant.

B

If 1,000 F2 offspring resulted from the cross, approximately how many of them would you expect to have red, terminal flowers?

250
750
65
190
565

190

Labrador retrievers are black, brown, or yellow. In a cross of a black female with a brown male, results can be either all black puppies, 1/2 black to 1/2 brown puppies, or 3/4 black to 1/4 yellow puppies.
These results indicate which of the following?

A. Black is dominant to brown and to yellow.
B. There is incomplete dominance.
C. Brown is dominant to black.
D. Yellow is dominant to black.
E. Epistasis is involved.

E

Labrador retrievers are black, brown, or yellow. In a cross of a black female with a brown male, results can be either all black puppies, 1/2 black to 1/2 brown puppies, or 3/4 black to 1/4 yellow puppies.
How many genes must be responsible for these coat colors in Labrador retrievers?

3
5
2
4
1

2

Radish flowers may be red, purple, or white. A cross between a red-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant yields all-purple offspring. The part of the radish we eat may be oval or long, with long being the dominant trait.
In the F2 generation of the above cross, which of the following phenotypic ratios would be expected?

A. 1:1:1:1:1:1
B. 6:3:3:2:1:1
C. 1:1:1:1
D. 9:3:3:1
E. 9:4:3

B

Height in humans generally shows a normal (bell-shaped) distribution. What type of inheritance most likely determines height?
A. a combination of multiple alleles and codominance
B. a combination of polygenic inheritance and environmental factors
C. a combination of epistasis and environmental factors
D. incomplete dominance
E. a combination of complete dominance and environmental factors

B

Which of the following describes the ability of a single gene to have multiple phenotypic effects?
A. pleiotropy
B. multiple alleles
C. incomplete dominance
E. epistasis

A

Cystic fibrosis affects the lungs, the pancreas, the digestive system, and other organs, resulting in symptoms ranging from breathing difficulties to recurrent infections. Which of the following terms best describes this?
A. incomplete dominance
B. codominance
C. multiple alleles
D. epistasis
E/ pleiotropy

E

Which of the following is an example of polygenic inheritance?
A. pink flowers in snapdragons
B. white and purple flower color in peas
C. Huntington's disease in humans
D. the ABO blood group in humans
E. skin pigmentation in humans

E

Skin color in a certain species of fish is inherited via a single gene with four different alleles.How many different types of gametes would be possible in this system?

4
16
8
1
2

4

Gene S controls the sharpness of spines in a type of cactus. Cactuses with the dominant allele, S, have sharp spines, whereas homozygous recessive ss cactuses have dull spines. At the same time, a second gene, N, determines whether or not cactuses have spines. Homozygous recessive nn cactuses have no spines at all.The relationship between genes S and N is an example of
A. epistasis.
B. codominance.
C. incomplete dominance.
D. complete dominance.
E. pleiotropy.

A

Gene S controls the sharpness of spines in a type of cactus. Cactuses with the dominant allele, S, have sharp spines, whereas homozygous recessive ss cactuses have dull spines. At the same time, a second gene, N, determines whether or not cactuses have spines. Homozygous recessive nn cactuses have no spines at all.A cross between a true-breeding sharp-spined cactus and a spineless cactus would produce
A. 25% sharp-spined, 50% dull-spined, 25% spineless progeny.
B. 50% sharp-spined, 50% dull-spined progeny.
C. all sharp-spined progeny.
D. all spineless progeny.
E. It is impossible to determine the phenotypes of the progeny.

C

If doubly heterozygous SsNn cactuses were allowed to self-pollinate, the F2 would segregate in which of the following ratios?
A. 1 sharp-spined:1 dull-spined:1 spineless
B. 1 sharp-spined:2 dull-spined:1 spineless
C. 9 sharp-spined:3 dull-spined:4 spineless
D. 3 sharp-spined:1 spineless
E. 1 sharp-spined:1 dull-spined

C

Humanoids on the newly explored planet Brin (in a hypothetical galaxy in ~50 years from the present) have a gene structure similar to our own, but many very different plants and animals.One species of green plant, with frondlike leaves, a spine-coated stem, and purple cup-shaped flowers, is found to be self-pollinating. Which of the following is true of this species?
A. The species must be haploid.
B. Its reproduction is asexual.
C. All of its dominant traits are most frequent.
D. All members of the species have the same genotype.
E. Some of the seeds would have true-breeding traits.

E

Humanoids on the newly explored planet Brin (in a hypothetical galaxy in ~50 years from the present) have a gene structure similar to our own, but many very different plants and animals.If the environmental parameters, such as temperature, humidity, atmosphere, sunlight, and so on, are mostly Earthlike, which of the following do you expect of its types of leaves, stems, and flowers?
A.Such plants could be safely eaten by humans.
B. The genes for them would have originated on Earth.
C. Genes for these traits would have a common ancestor with those from Earth.
D. Phenotypes would be selected for or against by these environmental factors.
E. Genotypes for these traits would be identical to Earth plants with the same traits.

D

Which of the following provides an example of epistasis?
A. Recessive genotypes for each of two genes (aabb) results in an albino corn snake.
B. In Drosophila (fruit flies), white eyes can be due to an X-linked gene or to a combination of other genes.
C. The allele b17 produces a dominant phenotype, although b1 through b16 do not.
D. In cacti, there are several genes for the type of spines.
E. In rabbits and many other mammals, one genotype (ee) prevents any fur color from developing.

E

Radish flowers may be red, purple, or white. A cross between a red-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant yields all-purple offspring. The part of the radish we eat may be oval or long, with long being the dominant trait.The flower color trait in radishes is an example of which of the following?
A.sex linkage
B. codominance
C. a multiple allelic system
D. epistasis
E. incomplete dominance

E

Humanoids on the newly explored planet Brin (in a hypothetical galaxy in ~50 years from the present) have a gene structure similar to our own, but many very different plants and animals.One species of a small birdlike animal has an extremely variable tail length, an example of polygenic inheritance. Geneticists have come to realize that there are eight separate genes for tail length per haploid genome, with each gene having two alleles. One allele for each gene (a 1, b 1, and so on) increases the length by 1 cm, whereas the other allele (a 2, b 2, and so on) increases it by 0.5 cm. One bird was analyzed and found to have the following genotype:
a 1 a 1 b 2 b 2 c 1 c 2 d 1 d 2 e 2 e 2 f 1 f 2 g 1 g 1 h 1 h 2
What is the length of its tail?

8 cm
12 cm
6 cm
36 cm
24 cm

12

Folk singer Woody Guthrie died of Huntington's disease, an autosomal dominant disorder. Which statement below must be true?
A. His daughters will die of Huntington's disease but not his sons.
B. All of his children will develop Huntington's disease.
C. His sons will develop Huntington's disease but not his daughters.
D. It is very likely that at least one of Woody Guthrie's parents also have had the allele for Huntington's disease.
E. There is not enough information to answer the question.

D

Various procedures can be used to detect genetic disorders before birth. Among the tests discussed in this chapter, which is the least invasive (list first), and which two allow the chromosomes of the fetus to be examined?
A. ultrasound imaging ... fetoscopy... amniocentesis
B. amniocentesis ... fetoscopy ... chorionic villus sampling
C. ultrasound imaging ... chorionic villus sampling ... amniocentesis
D. amniocentesis ... ultrasound imaging ... chorionic villus sampling
E. chorionic villus sampling ... fetoscopy ... amniocentesis

C

Which of the following do you expect if an individual is heterozygous for the sickle-cell trait?
A.He or she will not develop sickle-cell disease.
B. He or she will be more apt to acquire a serious case of malaria.
C. He or she will have full-blown sickle-cell disease because the allele is dominant.
D. He or she will show some symptoms of the disease.
E. None of the above.

D

A scientist discovers a DNA-based test for one allele of a particular gene. This and only this allele, if homozygous, produces an effect that results in death at or about the time of birth. Of the following, which is the best use of this discovery?
A. Screen all newborns of an at-risk population.
B. Follow the segregation of the allele during meiosis.
C. Introduce a normal allele into deficient newborns.
D. Design a test for identifying heterozygous carriers of the allele.
E. Test school-age children for the disorder.

D

The frequency of heterozygosity for the sickle-cell anemia allele is unusually high, presumably because this reduces the frequency of malaria. Such a relationship is related to which of the following?
A. Mendel's law of segregation
B. Darwin's observations of competition
C. Darwin's explanation of natural selection
D. the malarial parasite changing the allele
E. Mendel's law of independent assortment

C

Hutchinson-Gilford progeria is an exceedingly rare human genetic disorder in which there is very early senility and death, usually from coronary artery disease, at an average age of approximately 13. Patients, who look very old even as children, do not live to reproduce. Which of the following represents the most likely assumption?

A. Successive generations of a family will continue to have more and more cases over time.
B. The disease is autosomal dominant.
C. All cases must occur in relatives; therefore, there must be only one mutant allele.
D. Each patient will have had at least one affected family member in a previous generation.
E. The disorder may be due to mutation in a single protein-coding gene.

E

In each generation of this family after generation I, the age at diagnosis is significantly lower than would be found in nonfamilial (sporadic) cases of this cancer (~ 63 years). What is the most likely reason?
A. Hereditary (or familial) cases of this cancer typically occur at earlier ages than do nonfamilial forms.
B. Affected members of this family are born with colon cancer, and it can be detected whenever they are first tested.
C. This is pure chance; it would not be expected if you were to look at a different family.
D. This cancer requires mutations in more than this one gene.
E. Members of this family know to be checked for colon cancer early in life.

A

Marfan syndrome in humans is caused by an abnormality of the connective tissue protein fibrillin. Patients are usually very tall and thin, with long spindly fingers, curvature of the spine, sometimes weakened arterial walls, and sometimes ocular problems, such as lens dislocation. Which of the following would you conclude about Marfan syndrome from this information?
A. It is epistatic.
B. It has a late age of onset (> 60).
C. It is pleiotropic.
D. It is recessive.
E. It is dominant.

C

An obstetrician knows that one of her patients is a pregnant woman whose fetus is at risk for a serious disorder that is detectable biochemically in fetal cells. The obstetrician would most reasonably offer which of the following procedures to her patient?

A. karyotyping of the woman's somatic cells
B. X-ray
C. amniocentesis or CVS
D. ultrasound imaging
E. blood transfusion

C

Imagine a human disorder that is inherited as a dominant, X-linked trait. How would the frequency of this disorder vary between males and females?
A. Males would display this disorder with greater frequency than females.
B. Males and females would display this disorder with equal frequency.
C. Females would display this disorder with greater frequency than males.

C

Select all that apply.
A. In all animals, males have the SRY gene and females lack this gene.
B. In all animals, males are XY and females are XX.
C. The mechanism of sex determination varies with different animal species.

C

Which of these descriptions of the behavior of chromosomes during meiosis explains Mendel's law of segregation?
A. The two alleles for each gene separate as homologous chromosomes move apart during anaphase I.
B. The arrangement of each pair of homologous chromosomes on the metaphase plate during metaphase I is random with respect to the arrangements of other pairs.
C. Sister chromatids separate during anaphase II.

A

Which of these descriptions of the behavior of chromosomes during meiosis explains Mendel's law of independent assortment?
A. The two alleles for each gene separate as homologous chromosomes move apart during anaphase I.
B. The arrangement of each pair of homologous chromosomes on the metaphase plate during metaphase I is random with respect to the arrangements of other pairs.
C. Sister chromatids separate during anaphase II.

B

Gregor Mendel set up a dihybrid cross with one pea plant from the parental generation (P) producing round yellow peas and the other pea plant producing wrinkled green peas. The F2 generation included 315 plants producing round yellow peas, 108 with round green peas, 101 with wrinkled yellow peas, and 32 with wrinkled green peas. How would these results have differed if pea shape and pea color had been linked genes, located close together on the same chromosome?
A. The F2 generation would have included a higher percentage of pea plants producing round, yellow peas.
B. The F2 generation would have included a higher percentage of pea plants producing yellow peas.
C. The F2 generation would have included a lower percentage of pea plants producing wrinkled, green peas.

A

A wild-type fruit fly (heterozygous for gray body color and normal wings) is mated with a black fly with vestigial wings. The offspring have the following phenotypic distribution:
wild-type 778
black-vestigial 785
black-normal 158
gray-vestigial 162

What is the recombination frequency between these genes for body color and wing size? Express your answer as a percentage.

17

What pattern of inheritance would lead a geneticist to suspect that an inherited disorder of cell metabolism is due to a defective mitochondrial gene?
A. The disorder would only affect boys.
B. The disorder would only affect girls.
C. The disorder would always be inherited from the father.
D. The disorder would always be inherited from the mother.

D

What can we observe in order to visualize Mendel's Law of Segregation?
A. homologous chromosomes separating during meiosis I
B. homologous chromosomes separating during meiosis II
C. sister chromatids separating during mitosis
D. the behavior of sex-linked genes
E. the replication of DNA

A

What name is given to the most common phenotype in a natural population?
A. autosome
B. wild type
C. locus
D. genotype
E. mutant phenotype

B

Sturtevant provided genetic evidence for the existence of four pairs of chromosomes in Drosophila in which of these ways?
A. Drosophila genes have, on average, four different alleles.
B. Drosophila genes cluster into four distinct groups of linked genes.
C. The entire Drosophila genome has approximately 400 map units.
D. The overall number of genes in Drosophila is a multiple of four.
E. There are four major functional classes of genes in Drosophila.

B

Which of the following is the meaning of the chromosome theory of inheritance as expressed in the early 20th century?
A. Individuals inherit particular chromosomes attached to genes.
B. Mendelian genes are at specific loci on the chromosome and in turn segregate during meiosis.
C. Natural selection acts on certain chromosome arrays rather than on genes.
D. Homologous chromosomes give rise to some genes and crossover chromosomes to other genes.
E. No more than a single pair of chromosomes can be found in a healthy normal cell.

B

A woman is found to have 47 chromosomes, including three X chromosomes. Which of the following describes her expected phenotype?
A. healthy female of slightly above-average height
B. enlarged genital structures
C. sterile female
D. masculine characteristics such as facial hair
E. excessive emotional instability

A

SRY is best described in which of the following ways?
A. a gene required for development, and males or females lacking the gene do not survive past early childhood
B. an autosomal gene that is required for the expression of genes on the X chromosome
C. a gene present on the X chromosome that triggers female development
D. a gene region present on the Y chromosome that triggers male development
E. an autosomal gene that is required for the expression of genes on the Y chromosome

D

Sex determination in mammals is due to the SRY region of the Y chromosome. An abnormality of this region could allow which of the following to have a male phenotype?
A. translocation of SRY to an autosome of a 46, XX individual
B. a person with an extra X chromosome
C. Down syndrome, 46, XX
D. Turner syndrome, 45, X
E. a person with one normal and one shortened (deleted) X

A

All female mammals have one active X chromosome per cell instead of two. What causes this?
A. attachment of methyl (CH3) groups to the X chromosome that will remain active
B. crossing over between the XIST gene on one X chromosome and a related gene on an autosome
C. activation of the XIST gene on the X chromosome that will become the Barr body
D. inactivation of the XIST gene on the X chromosome derived from the male parent
E. activation of the BARR gene on one X chromosome, which then becomes inactive

C

In general, the frequency with which crossing over occurs between two linked genes depends on what?
A. how far apart they are on the chromosome
B. the phase of meiosis in which the crossing over occurs
C. the characters the genes code for
D. whether the genes are on the X or some other chromosome
E. whether the genes are dominant or recessive

A

Which of the following statements is true of linkage?
A. All of the traits that Mendel studied-seed color, pod shape, flower color, and others-are due to genes linked on the same chromosome.
B. The closer two genes are on a chromosome, the lower the probability that a crossover will occur between them.
C. The observed frequency of recombination of two genes that are far apart from each other has a maximum value of 100%.
D. Crossing over occurs during prophase II of meiosis.
E. Linked genes are found on different chromosomes.

B

How would one explain a testcross involving F1 dihybrid flies in which more parental-type offspring than recombinant-type offspring are produced?
A. The testcross was improperly performed.
B. Both of the characters are controlled by more than one gene.
C. Recombination did not occur in the cell during meiosis.
D. The two genes are linked but on different chromosomes.
E. The two genes are closely linked on the same chromosome.

E

What does a frequency of recombination of 50% indicate?
A. The genes are located on sex chromosomes.
B. The two genes are likely to be located on different chromosomes.
C. Abnormal meiosis has occurred.
D. Independent assortment is hindered.
E. All of the offspring have combinations of traits that match one of the two parents

B

Recombination between linked genes comes about for what reason?
A. When genes are linked they always "travel" together at anaphase.
B. Independent assortment sometimes fails because Mendel had not calculated appropriately.
C. Crossovers between these genes result in chromosomal exchange.
D. Mutation on one homolog is different from that on the other homolog.
E. Nonrecombinant chromosomes break and then re-join with one another.

C

Which statement about recombination between linked genes is correct?
A. Recombination must occur or genes will not assort independently.
B. Without recombination there would be an insufficient number of gametes.
C. Recombination is a requirement for independent assortment.
D. The forces on the cell during meiosis II always result in recombination.
E. New allele combinations may result in differential reproductive success.

E

Map units on a linkage map cannot be relied upon to calculate physical distances on a chromosome for which of the following reasons?
A. The frequency of crossing over varies along the length of the chromosome.
B. The relationship between recombination frequency and map units is different in every individual.
C. Physical distances between genes change during the course of the cell cycle.
D. The gene order on the chromosomes is slightly different in every individual.
E. Linkage map distances are identical between males and females.

A

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