Mel Bio 20

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Genetically engineered plants
A. are underway, but traditional plant breeding programs remain the only method used currently to develop new plants.
B. are able to produce herbicides.
C. include transgenic rice plants that can grow in water of high salinity.
D. are more difficult to develop than genetically engineered animals.
E. are banned throughout the world.

C

Genetic engineering is being used by the pharmaceutical industry. Which of the following is not currently one of the uses?
A. production of tissue plasminogen activator to dissolve blood clots after a heart attack
B. synthesis of antithrombin to prevent the formation of blood clots
C. design and synthesis of products that will remove poisons from the human body
D. production of human insulin to treat diabetes
E. production of human growth hormone to treat dwarfism

C

Use the following information to answer the question.

A eukaryotic gene has "sticky ends" produced by the restriction endonuclease EcoRI. The gene is added to a mixture containing EcoRI and a bacterial plasmid that carries two genes conferring resistance to ampicillin and tetracycline. The plasmid has one recognition site for EcoRI located in the tetracycline resistance gene. This mixture is incubated for several hours, exposed to DNA ligase, and then added to bacteria growing in nutrient broth. The bacteria are allowed to grow overnight and are streaked on a plate using a technique that produces isolated colonies that are clones of the original. Samples of these colonies are then grown in four different media: nutrient broth plus ampicillin, nutrient broth plus tetracycline, nutrient broth plus ampicillin and tetracycline, and nutrient broth without antibiotics.


Bacteria that contain the plasmid, but not the eukaryotic gene, would grow
A. in the nutrient broth without antibiotics only.
B. only in the broth containing both antibiotics.
C. in the nutrient broth plus ampicillin, but not in the broth containing tetracycline.
D. in all four types of broth.
E. in the broth containing tetracycline, but not in the broth containing ampicillin.

D

DNA technology has many medical applications. Which of the following is not done routinely at present?
A. production of microbes that can metabolize toxins
B. genetic testing for carriers of harmful alleles
C. introduction of genetically engineered genes into human gametes
D. production of hormones for treating diabetes and dwarfism
E. prenatal identification of genetic disease alleles

C

Which of the following is one of the technical reasons why gene therapy is problematic?
A. Cells with transferred genes are unlikely to replicate.
B. Most cells with an engineered gene do not produce gene product.
C. Transferred genes may not have appropriately controlled activity.
D. mRNA from transferred genes cannot be translated.
E. Most cells with engineered genes overwhelm other cells in a tissue.

C

Archaeologists unearthed a human skull with a small dried fragment of the scalp still attached. They extracted a tiny amount of DNA from the scalp tissue. How could they obtain sufficient DNA for an analysis of the ancient human's genes?
A. Subject the specimen to amniocentesis.
B. Subject the DNA to restriction enzymes.
C. Use a nucleic acid probe.
D. Subject the DNA to electrophoresis.
E. Use the polymerase chain reaction.

E

Use the figure to answer the following question. The DNA profiles that follow represent four different individuals.Which of the following statements is consistent with the results?
A. B is the child of A and C.
B. C is the child of A and B.
C. A is the child of C and D.
D. A is the child of B and C.
E. D is the child of B and C.

B

The first cloned cat, called Carbon Copy, was a calico, but she looked significantly different from her female parent. Why?
A. Fur color genes in cats are influenced by differential acetylation patterns.
B.The environment, as well as genetics, affects phenotypic variation.
C. X inactivation in the embryo is random and produces different patterns.
D. Cloned animals have been found to have a higher frequency of transposon activation
E. The telomeres of the parent's chromosomes were shorter than those of an embryo.

C

Use the following information to answer the question.

A group of six students has taken samples of their own cheek cells, purified the DNA, and used a restriction enzyme known to cut at zero, one, or two sites in a particular gene of interest.


Why might they be conducting such an experiment?
A. to find which of the students has which alleles
B. to collect population data that can be used to assess natural selection
C./ to collect population data that can be used to study genetic drift
D. to find the location of this gene in the human genome
E. to prepare to isolate the chromosome on which the gene of interest is found

A

Use the following information to answer the question.

A eukaryotic gene has "sticky ends" produced by the restriction endonuclease EcoRI. The gene is added to a mixture containing EcoRI and a bacterial plasmid that carries two genes conferring resistance to ampicillin and tetracycline. The plasmid has one recognition site for EcoRI located in the tetracycline resistance gene. This mixture is incubated for several hours, exposed to DNA ligase, and then added to bacteria growing in nutrient broth. The bacteria are allowed to grow overnight and are streaked on a plate using a technique that produces isolated colonies that are clones of the original. Samples of these colonies are then grown in four different media: nutrient broth plus ampicillin, nutrient broth plus tetracycline, nutrient broth plus ampicillin and tetracycline, and nutrient broth without antibiotics.


Bacteria that do not take up any plasmids would grow on which media?
A. the nutrient broth and the tetracycline broth
B. the nutrient broth and the ampicillin broth
C. the nutrient broth only
D. the tetracycline broth and the ampicillin broth
E. all three broths

C

Scientists developed a set of guidelines to address the safety of DNA technology. Which of the following is one of the adopted safety measures?
A. Experiments involving HIV or other potentially dangerous viruses have been banned.
B. Transgenic plants are engineered so that the plant genes cannot hybridize.
C. Genetically modified organisms are not allowed to be part of our food supply.
D. Recombinant plasmids cannot be replicated.
E. Microorganisms used in recombinant DNA experiments are genetically crippled to ensure that they cannot survive outside of the laboratory.

E

Which of the following problems with animal cloning might result in premature death of the clones?
A. abnormal gene regulation due to variant methylation
B. use of nuclear DNA as well as mtDNA
C. use of pluripotent instead of totipotent stem cells
D. the indefinite replication of totipotent stem cells
E. abnormal immune function due to bone marrow dysfunction

A

A gene that contains introns can be made shorter (but remain functional) for genetic engineering purposes by using
A. DNA ligase to put together fragments of the DNA that code for a particular polypeptide.
B. reverse transcriptase to reconstruct the gene from its mRNA.
C. RNA polymerase to transcribe the gene.
D. DNA polymerase to reconstruct the gene from its polypeptide product.
E. a restriction enzyme to cut the gene into shorter pieces.

B

For a particular microarray assay (DNA chip), cDNA has been made from the mRNAs of a dozen patients' breast tumor biopsies. The researchers will be looking for
A. a pattern shared among some or all of the samples that indicates gene expression differing from control samples.
B. a group of cDNAs that match those in non-breast cancer control samples from the same population.
C. a pattern of fluorescence that indicates which cells are overproliferating.
D. a group of cDNAs that act differently from those on the rest of the grid.
E. a particular gene that is amplified in all or most of the patient samples.

A

Expression of a cloned eukaryotic gene in a bacterial cell involves many challenges. The use of mRNA and reverse transcriptase is part of a strategy to solve the problem of
A. post-transcriptional processing.
B. nucleic acid hybridization.
C. electroporation.
D. restriction fragment ligation.
E. post-translational processing.

A

Which of the following would not be true of cDNA produced using human brain tissue as the starting material?
A. It could be used to create a complete genomic library.
B. It could be used as a probe to detect genes expressed in the brain.
C. It could be amplified by the polymerase chain reaction.
D. It lacks the introns of the human genes.
E. It was produced from mRNA using reverse transcriptase.

A

Which of the following is most closely identical to the formation of twins?
A. use of adult stem cells
B. organismal cloning
C. therapeutic cloning
D. embryo transfer
E cell cloning

B

Which of the following is true of stem cells?
A. Their use is highly controversial.
B. They can be found in both embryonic and adult tissues.
C. They can differentiate to produce many different kinds of specialized cells.
D. They can reproduce indefinitely in culture.
E. All of the above.

E

A student wants to clone a DNA sequence of ~200 kb in length. Which vector would be appropriate?
A. a plant virus
B. a plasmid
C. a large polypeptide
D. a BAC
E. a bacteriophage

D

Use the figure to answer the following question. The DNA profiles that follow represent four different individuals.


Which of the following statements is most likely true?
A.B is the child of A and C.
B. D is the child of A and B.
C. D is the child of B and C.
D. D is the child of A and C.
E. A is the child of C and D.

B

In large scale, genome-wide association studies in humans, correlation is sought between
A. large inversions that displace the centromere.
B. single nucleotide polymorphisms in two or more adjacent genes.
C.lengthy sequences that might be shared by most members of a population.
D. single nucleotide polymorphisms found only in persons with a particular disorder.
E. single nucleotide polymorphisms found in families with a particular introns sequence.

D

In animals, what is the difference between reproductive cloning and therapeutic cloning?
A. Therapeutic cloning supplies cells for repair of diseased or injured organs.
B. Therapeutic cloning uses nuclei of adult cells transplanted into enucleated nonfertilized eggs.
C. Reproductive cloning uses embryonic stem cells, whereas therapeutic cloning does not.
D. Reproductive cloning uses totipotent cells, whereas therapeutic cloning does not.

A

Which of the following uses reverse transcriptase to make cDNA followed by amplification?
A. RT-PCR
B. Western blotting
C. Southern blotting
D. Northern blotting
E. Eastern blotting

A

DNA microarrays have made a huge impact on genomic studies because they
A. allow the expression of many or even all of the genes in the genome to be compared at once.
B. can be used to introduce entire genomes into bacterial cells.
C. allow physical maps of the genome to be assembled in a very short time.
D. dramatically enhance the efficiency of restriction enzymes.
E. can be used to eliminate the function of any gene in the genome.

A

A principal problem with inserting an unmodified mammalian gene into a BAC, and then getting that gene expressed in bacteria, is that
A. bacterial DNA is not found in a membrane-bounded nucleus and is therefore incompatible with mammalian DNA.
B. bacteria cannot remove eukaryotic introns.
C. bacterial RNA polymerase cannot make RNA complementary to mammalian DNA.
D. prokaryotes use a different genetic code from that of eukaryotes.
E. bacteria translate only mRNAs that have multiple messages.

B

Use the following information to answer the question.

CML (chronic myelogenous leukemia) results from a translocation between human chromosomes 9 and 22. The resulting chromosome 22 is significantly shorter than usual, and it is known as a Philadelphia (Ph') chromosome. The junction at the site of the translocation causes overexpression of a receptor tyrosine kinase. A new drug (Gleevec or imatinib) has been found to inhibit the disease if the patient is treated early.



Which of the following would be a reasonably efficient technique for confirming the diagnosis of CML?
A. fluorescent labeling to determine the chromosomal location of all chromosome 22 fragments
B. looking for a Ph' chromosome in a peripheral blood smear
C. identification of the disease phenotype in review of the patient's records
D. enzyme assay for receptor tyrosine kinase activity
E. searching for the number of telomeric sequences on chromosome 22

A

Plants are more readily manipulated by genetic engineering than are animals because
A. more vectors are available for transferring recombinant DNA into plant cells.
B. a somatic plant cell can often give rise to a complete plant.
C. plant genes do not contain introns.
D. genes can be inserted into plant cells by microinjection.
E. plant cells have larger nuclei.

B

The reason for using Taq polymerase for PCR is that
A. it is heat stable, and it binds more readily than other polymerases to the primers.
B. it has regions that are complementary to the primers.
C. only minute amounts are needed for each cycle of PCR.
D. it binds more readily than other polymerases to the primers.
E. it is heat stable and can withstand the heating step of PCR.

E

A paleontologist has recovered a bit of tissue from the 400-year-old preserved skin of an extinct dodo (a bird). To compare a specific region of the DNA from the sample with DNA from living birds, which of the following would be most useful for increasing the amount of dodo DNA available for testing?
A. gel electrophoresis
B. electroporation
C. Southern blotting
D. polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
E. RFLP analysis

D

To introduce a particular piece of DNA into an animal cell, such as that of a mouse, you would find more probable success with which of the following methods?
A. transcription and translation
B. introducing a plasmid into the cell
C. infecting the mouse cell with a Ti plasmid
D. the shotgun approach
E. electroporation followed by recombination

E

Use the following information to answer the question.

A eukaryotic gene has "sticky ends" produced by the restriction endonuclease EcoRI. The gene is added to a mixture containing EcoRI and a bacterial plasmid that carries two genes conferring resistance to ampicillin and tetracycline. The plasmid has one recognition site for EcoRI located in the tetracycline resistance gene. This mixture is incubated for several hours, exposed to DNA ligase, and then added to bacteria growing in nutrient broth. The bacteria are allowed to grow overnight and are streaked on a plate using a technique that produces isolated colonies that are clones of the original. Samples of these colonies are then grown in four different media: nutrient broth plus ampicillin, nutrient broth plus tetracycline, nutrient broth plus ampicillin and tetracycline, and nutrient broth without antibiotics.


Bacteria containing a plasmid into which the eukaryotic gene has integrated would grow in
A. the nutrient broth, the ampicillin broth, and the tetracycline broth.
B. the ampicillin broth and the nutrient broth.
C. the nutrient broth only.
D. all four types of broth.
E. the nutrient broth and the tetracycline broth only.

B

How does a bacterial cell protect its own DNA from restriction enzymes?
A. by adding histones to protect the double-stranded DNA
B. by adding methyl groups to adenines and cytosines
C. by using DNA ligase to seal the bacterial DNA into a closed circle
D. by forming "sticky ends" of bacterial DNA to prevent the enzyme from attaching
E. by reinforcing the bacterial DNA structure with covalent phosphodiester bonds

B

Why are yeast cells frequently used as hosts for cloning?
A. They do not have plasmids.
B. They easily form colonies.
C. Only yeast cells allow the gene to be cloned.
D. They are eukaryotic cells.
E. They can remove exons from mRNA.

D

Reproductive cloning of human embryos is generally considered unethical. However, on the subject of therapeutic cloning there is a wider divergence of opinion. Which of the following is a likely explanation?
A. Cloning to produce stem cells relies on a different initial procedure than reproductive cloning.
B. No embryos would be destroyed in the process of therapeutic cloning.
C. A clone that lives until the blastocyst stage does not yet have human DNA.
D. Use of adult stem cells is likely to produce more cell types than use of embryonic stem cells.
E. Cloning to produce embryonic stem cells may lead to great medical benefits for many.

E

Why is it so important to be able to amplify DNA fragments when studying genes?
A. It is important to have multiple copies of DNA in the case of laboratory error.
B. DNA fragments are too small to use individually.
C. A gene may represent only a millionth of the cell's DNA.
D. Restriction enzymes cut DNA into fragments that are too small.
E. A clone requires multiple copies of each gene per clone.

C

Which of the following sequences in double-stranded DNA is most likely to be recognized as a cutting site for a restriction enzyme?

GGCC

Sequencing an entire genome, such as that of C. elegans, a nematode, is most important because
A. a sequence that is found to have no introns in the nematode genome is likely to have acquired the introns from higher organisms.
B. it allows researchers to use the sequence to build a "better" nematode, which is resistant to disease.
C.a sequence that is found to have a particular function in the nematode is likely to have a closely related function in vertebrates.
D. it allows research on a group of organisms we do not usually care much about.
E. the nematode is a good animal model for trying out cures for viral illness.

C

Which of the following modifications is least likely to alter the rate at which a DNA fragment moves through a gel during electrophoresis?
A. neutralizing the negative charges within the DNA fragment
B. increasing the length of the DNA fragment
C. altering the nucleotide sequence of the DNA fragment without adding or removing nucleotides
D. acetylating the cytosine bases within the DNA fragment
E. decreasing the length of the DNA fragment

C

Gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments on the basis of what characteristic?
A,. sequence
B. length
C. mutations
D. restriction sites
E. charge

B

Which of the following is used to make complementary DNA (cDNA) from RNA?
A. gel electrophoresis
B. restriction enzymes
C. gene cloning
D. reverse transcriptase
E. DNA ligase

D

A researcher is using adult stem cells and comparing them to other adult cells from the same tissue. Which of the following is a likely finding?
A. The two kinds of cells have virtually identical gene expression patterns in microarrays.
B. The cells from the two sources exhibit different patterns of DNA methylation.
C. The nonstem cells have fewer repressed genes.
D. The nonstem cells have lost the promoters for more genes.
E. Adult stem cells have more DNA nucleotides than their counterparts.

B

Let us suppose that someone is successful at producing induced pluripotent stem cells (iPS) for replacement of pancreatic insulin-producing cells for people with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following could still be problems?
I. the possibility that, once introduced into the patient, the iPS cells produce nonpancreatic cells
II. the failure of the iPS cells to take up residence in the pancreas
III. the inability of the iPS cells to respond to appropriate regulatory signals
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. all of them

E

Which of the following tools of recombinant DNA technology is incorrectly paired with its use?
A. restriction enzyme-analysis of RFLPs
B. DNA polymerase-polymerase chain reaction to amplify sections of DNA
C. reverse transcriptase-production of cDNA from mRNA
D. DNA ligase-cutting DNA, creating sticky ends of restriction fragments
E. electrophoresis-separation of DNA fragments

D

The DNA fragments making up a genomic library are often contained in
A. radioactive eukaryotic cells.
B. DNA-RNA hybrids.
C. BACs.
D. restriction sites.
E. recombinant viral RNA.

C

In recombinant DNA methods, the term vector can refer to
A. the enzyme that cuts DNA into restriction fragments.
B. a DNA probe used to identify a particular gene.
C. a SNP marker.
D. a plasmid used to transfer DNA into a living cell.
E. the sticky end of a DNA fragment.

D

If cells from a carrot are removed and placed in a culture medium, they can develop into a normal adult plant. This demonstrates that carrot cells _____.
A. differ as mature cells
B. retain all the genes that were in the zygote that developed into the original plant
C. differ genetically at maturity
D. differentiate
E. are undifferentiated as adult cells

B

In recombinant DNA experiments, what is used to cut pieces of DNA and what joins the resulting fragments to form recombinant DNA?
A. a transposon ... a restriction enzyme
B. DNA ligase ... a restriction enzyme
C. a transposon ... a plasmid
D. a restriction enzyme ... DNA ligase
E. a plasmid ... DNA ligase

D

In recent times, it has been shown that adult cells can be induced to become pluripotent stem cells (iPS). In order to make this conversion, what has been done to the adult cells?
A. A retrovirus is used to introduce four specific regulatory genes.
B. An adenovirus vector is used to transfer embryonic gene products into adult cells.
C. Cytoplasm from embryonic cells is injected into the adult cells.
D. The nucleus of an embryonic cell is used to replace the nucleus of an adult cell.
E. The adult stem cells must be fused with embryonic cells.

A

RNAi methodology uses double-stranded pieces of RNA to trigger breakdown of a specific mRNA or inhibition of its translation. For which of the following might this technique be useful?
A. o raise the concentration of a desired protein
B. to destroy an unwanted allele in a homozygous individual
C/ to raise the rate of production of a needed digestive enzyme
D.to form a knockout organism that will not pass the deleted sequence to its progeny
E. to decrease the production from a harmful mutated gene

E

Which of the following is true of embryonic stem cells but not of adult stem cells?
A. They can give rise to all cell types in the organism.
B. They can provide enormous amounts of information about the process of gene regulation.
C. One aim of using them is to provide cells for repair of diseased tissue.
D. They can continue to reproduce for an indefinite period.
E. They normally differentiate into only eggs and sperm.

A

Which "ingredients" for PCR and for the dideoxy chain-termination method of DNA sequencing are the same?
A. mRNA, reverse transcriptase, free nucleotides
B. free nucleotides, DNA polymerase, DNA primers
C. enucleated eggs, reverse transcriptase, free nucleotides
D. template DNA, reverse transcriptase, DNA primers
E. nucleic acid probes, DNA polymerase, DNA ligase

B

Use the following information to answer the question.

A group of six students has taken samples of their own cheek cells, purified the DNA, and used a restriction enzyme known to cut at zero, one, or two sites in a particular gene of interest.


Analysis of the data obtained shows that two students each have two fragments, two students each have three fragments, and two students each have one only. What does this demonstrate?
A. The two students who have two fragments have two restriction sites within this gene.
B. Each of these students is heterozygous for this gene.
C. The students with three fragments are said to have "fragile sites."
D. The two students who have two fragments have one restriction site in this region.
E. Each pair of students has a different gene for this function.

D

Pax-6 is a gene that is involved in eye formation in many invertebrates, such as Drosophila. Pax-6 is found as well in vertebrates. A Pax-6 gene from a mouse can be expressed in a fly and the protein (PAX-6) leads to a compound fly eye. This information suggests which of the following?
A. PAX-6 proteins have identical amino acid sequences.
B. Pax-6 is highly conserved and shows shared evolutionary ancestry.
C. PAX-6 proteins are different for formation of different kinds of eyes.
D. PAX-6 from a mouse can function in a fly, but a fly's Pax-6 gene cannot function in a mouse.
E. Pax-6 genes are identical in nucleotide sequence.

B

Assume that you are trying to insert a gene into a plasmid. Someone gives you a preparation of genomic DNA that has been cut with restriction enzyme X. The gene you wish to insert has sites on both ends for cutting by restriction enzyme Y. You have a plasmid with a single site for Y, but not for X. Your strategy should be to
A. cut the plasmid with restriction enzyme X and then insert the gene into the plasmid.
B. insert the fragments cut with restriction enzyme X directly into the plasmid without cutting the plasmid.
C. cut the plasmid with restriction enzyme X and insert the fragments cut with restriction enzyme Y into the plasmid.
D. cut the plasmid twice with restriction enzyme Y and ligate the two fragments onto the ends of the DNA fragments cut with restriction enzyme X.
E. cut the DNA again with restriction enzyme Y and insert these fragments into the plasmid cut with the same enzyme.

E

The major advantage of using artificial chromosomes such as BACs for cloning genes is that
A. BACs can be used to express proteins encoded by inserted genes, but plasmids cannot.
B. plasmids are unable to replicate in cells.
C. BACs can carry much larger DNA fragments than ordinary plasmids can.
D. only one copy of a plasmid can be present in any given cell, whereas many copies of a BAC can coexist in a single cell.
E. BACs are double-stranded, whereas plasmids are single-stranded.

C

cDNA is synthesized from what molecule using an enzyme known as what?
A. tRNA ... RNA polymerase
B. mRNA ... DNA polymerase
C. mRNA ... reverse transcriptase
D. DNA ... DNA polymerase
E. HIV ... RNA polymerase

C

A researcher has used in vitro mutagenesis to mutate a cloned gene and then has reinserted this into a cell. In order to have the mutated sequence disable the function of the gene, what must then occur?
A. attachment of the mutated gene to an existing mRNA to be translated
B. transcription of the cloned gene using a BAC
C. use of a microarray to verify continued expression of the original gene
D. recombination resulting in replacement of the wild type with the mutated gene
E. replication of the cloned gene using a bacterial plasmid

D

What is the most commonly used vector for introducing transgenes into plants?
A. nuclear transplantation
B. the flu virus
C. the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis
D. beta-carotene
E. the Ti plasmid

E

Use the following information to answer the question.

CML (chronic myelogenous leukemia) results from a translocation between human chromosomes 9 and 22. The resulting chromosome 22 is significantly shorter than usual, and it is known as a Philadelphia (Ph') chromosome. The junction at the site of the translocation causes overexpression of a thymine kinase receptor. A new drug (Gleevec or imatinib) has been found to inhibit the disease if the patient is treated early.


One possible use of transgenic plants is in the production of human proteins, such as vaccines. Which of the following is a possible hindrance that must be overcome?
A. use of plant cells to translate non-plant-derived mRNA
B. inability of the human digestive system to accept plant-derived protein
C. the need to cook all such plants before consuming them
D. prevention of vaccine-containing plants being consumed by insects
E. prevention of transmission of plant allergens to the vaccine recipients

E

In 1997, Dolly the sheep was cloned. Which of the following processes was used?
A. use of mitochondrial DNA from adult female cells of another ewe
B. separation of an early stage sheep blastula into separate cells, one of which was incubated in a surrogate ewe
C. replication and dedifferentiation of adult stem cells from sheep bone marrow
D. fusion of an adult cell's nucleus with an enucleated sheep egg, followed by incubation in a surrogate
E. isolation of stem cells from a lamb embryo and production of a zygote equivalent

D

A researcher needs to clone a particular DNA sequence in order to express the sequence and to modify the polypeptide product. She would be able to satisfy these requirements by using which of the following vectors?
A. a bacterial plasmid
B. a yeast plasmid
C. a modified bacteriophage
D. a human chromosome
E. a BAC to accommodate the size of the sequence

B

Why might a laboratory use dideoxyribonucleotides?
A. to sequence a DNA fragment
B. to clone the breakpoints of cut DNA
C. to separate DNA fragments
D. to produce cDNA from mRNA
E. to visualize DNA expression

A

What is the most logical sequence of steps for splicing foreign DNA into a plasmid and inserting the plasmid into a bacterium?
I. Transform bacteria with a recombinant DNA molecule.
II. Cut the plasmid DNA using restriction enzymes.
III. Extract plasmid DNA from bacterial cells.
IV. Hydrogen-bond the plasmid DNA to nonplasmid DNA fragments.
V. Use ligase to seal plasmid DNA to nonplasmid DNA.
A. I, II, IV, III, V
B. III, IV, V, I, II
C. IV, V, I, II, III
D. II, III, V, IV, I
E. III, II, IV, V, I

E

Use the following information to answer the question.

A group of six students has taken samples of their own cheek cells, purified the DNA, and used a restriction enzyme known to cut at zero, one, or two sites in a particular gene of interest.


Their next two steps, in order, should be
A. use of a ligase that will anneal the pieces, followed by Southern blotting.
B. electrophoresis of the fragments, followed by the use of a probe.
C. use of a fluorescent probe for the gene sequence, then electrophoresis.
D. use of reverse transcriptase to make cDNA, followed by electrophoresis.
E. electrophoresis of the fragments followed by autoradiography.

B

Use the figure to answer the following question. The DNA profiles that follow represent four different individuals.


Which of the following are probably siblings?
A. A and D
B. A and B
C. B and D
D. C and D
E. A and C

D

In order to identify a specific restriction fragment using a probe, what must be done?
A.The fragments must be treated with heat or chemicals to separate the strands of the double helix.
B. The probe must be hybridized with the fragment.
C. The fragments must be separated by electrophoresis and the fragments must be treated with heat or chemicals to separate the strands of the double helix.
D. The fragments must be separated by electrophoresis.
E. The fragments must be separated by electrophoresis, the fragments must be treated with heat or chemicals to separate the strands of the double helix, and the probe must be hybridized with the fragment.

E

You are a member of the jury for a murder case. The prosecution has presented DNA evidence linking the defendant to the crime scene. The defense claims that DNA evidence using STR analysis with 13 markers is not sufficient to reliably distinguish between people. What do you think?
A. The prosecution is right. STR analysis with 13 markers gives a 1 in 10 billion or greater chance that two people will have the same pattern. This person was at the crime scene.
B. The prosecution will have to consult a genomic library to make sure their DNA evidence is valid.
C.DNA evidence is not generally accepted by legal experts.
D. STR analysis is not sufficient. The defendant's entire genome should be sequenced.
E. The defense is right. STR analysis with 13 markers gives a 1 in 1 million chance of two people having the same pattern, leaving a reasonable doubt.

A

In animals, embryonic stem cells differ from adult stem cells in that
A. adult stem cells can differentiate into more cell types than embryonic stem cells.
B. embryonic stem cells have fewer genes than adult stem cells.
C. embryonic stem cells have more genes than adult stem cells.
D. embryonic stem cells are localized to specific sites within the embryo, whereas adult stem cells are spread throughout the body.
E. embryonic stem cells can differentiate into more cell types than adult stem cells.

E

Use the following information to answer the question.

CML (chronic myelogenous leukemia) results from a translocation between human chromosomes 9 and 22. The resulting chromosome 22 is significantly shorter than usual, and it is known as a Philadelphia (Ph') chromosome. The junction at the site of the translocation causes overexpression of a receptor tyrosine kinase. A new drug (Gleevec or imatinib) has been found to inhibit the disease if the patient is treated early.


Why would Gleevec most probably cause remission of the disease?
A. It removes Ph'-containing progenitor cells.
B. The drug inhibits the replication of the affected chromosome.
C. It eliminates the Ph' chromosome.
D. It reverses the chromosomal translocation.
E. The drug inhibits the specific receptor tyrosine kinase.

E

Silencing of selected genes is often done using RNA interference (RNAi). Which of the following question would not be answered with this process?
A. What will happen in this insect's digestion if gene 173 is not able to be translated?
B. Is the gene on Drosophila chromosome 2L at this locus responsible for part of its production of nitrogen waste?
C. Is gene HA292 responsible for this disorder in humans?
D. Will the disabling of this gene in Drosophila and in a mouse cause similar results?
E. What is the function of gene 432 in this species of annelid?

C

Use the figure to answer the following question.Which enzyme was used to produce the molecule in the figure?
A. RNA polymerase
B. transcriptase
C. ligase
D. a restriction enzyme
E. DNA polymerase

D

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