Module 3 Practice Questions

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These are the practice questions for our anatomy and physiology exam module 3.

The percentage of blood volume occupied by erythrocytes is called the ________.

hematocrit

What are the roles of albumin?

carrier to shuttle certain molecules through the circulation...important blood buffer...major blood protein contributing to plasma osmotic pressure

What are the characteristics of a mature erythrocyte?

lack mitochondria, no nucleus, biconclave shape (little doughnuts)...flattened discs with depressed centers...

One molecule of hemoglobin can bind a maximum of _____ oxygen molecules.

four

Erythropoiesis is best defined as:

erythrocyte production...

Erythropoietin is made primarily by the:

kidneys (makes most) [while the liver makes a small amount]

Aging red blood cells are fragmented and trapped in the:

spleen

A patient who lacks intrinsic factor would likely develop:

pernicious anemia...erythrocytes grow, but do not divide due to the fact that B12 cannot be absorbed by the digestive system (p642)

The migration of white blood cells out of the capillary blood vessels is called:

diapedesis

Match the following:
Basophil, Eosinophil, Macrophage, Lymphocyte,
Neutrophil

1.The most numerous type of white blood cell
2.Highly phagocytic cell with a "U" shaped nucleus
3.Bilobed nucleus and dark-staining cytoplasmic granules
4.Small agranulocyte that can live for years
5.Has a role in killing parasitic worms

Neutrophil...Macrophage...Basophil...lymphocyte....Eosinophil


1.The most numerous type of white blood cell
2.Highly phagocytic cell with a "U" shaped nucleus
3.Bilobed nucleus and dark-staining cytoplasmic granules
4.Small agranulocyte that can live for years
5.Has a role in killing parasitic worms

What are the characteristics of basophils?

rarest WBC's; cytoplasm contains large, coarse histamine con't granules...stains purplish black...nucleus bilobed;

What are the characteristics of eosinophils?

2 - 4% of all leukocytes...approx size of neutrophils...deep red nucleus...nucleus resembles telephone receiver...large coarse granules (brick red to crimson staining) pack the cytoplasm...lead counterattack against parasitic worms.."group surround and digest

What are the characteristics of macrophages?

develop from monocytes that leave the blood stream and enter the body tissues...actively phagocytic...defend against (viruses, intracellular bacterial parasites, chronic infections such as tuberculosis)...important in activating lymphocytes

What are the characteristics of lyphocytes?

~>25% or more of WBC pop...second most numerous WBC's in the blood...large dark-purple nucleus that occupies most of the cell volume...nucleus spherical or slightly indented...thin rim of pale blue cytoplasm...mostly in lymph tissues....Tcells and Bcells

What are the characteristics of neutrophils?

most numerous WBC's...50-70% of WBC pop...twice as large as erythrocytes (RBC's)...stains pale lilac...contains very fine granules (2 varieties)...contain hydrolytic enzymes and defensins...nuclei are 3 to 6 lobed (polymorphonuclear)...neutrophils are our body's bacteria slayers (respiratory burst)

Which of the following is considered a lymphocyte?
Neutrophil
Macrophage
B cell
Basophil

B cell

Overproduction of white blood cells is called:

leukemia and/or infectious mononucleosis (p

Platelets are derived from:

megakaryocytes

What is the sequence of homeostasis from start to end in blood clotting?

vascular spasm...platelet plug formation...coagulation (p649)

Which of the following is true regarding the extrinsic pathway of blood clotting?
The extrinsic pathway does not involve calcium ions.
...The extrinsic pathway is triggered by tissue factor.
...The extrinsic pathway is slower than the intrinsic pathway of blood clotting.
The extrinsic pathway is independent of procoagulants.

The extrinsic pathway is triggered by tissue factor. (p650)

Match the following:
Plasmin
Platelet-derived growth factor
Heparin
Thrombin
Prothrombin activator

1.Inhibits coagulation
2.Converts fibrinogen to fibrin
3.Generates thrombin
4.Fibrin-digesting enzyme
5.Stimulates blood vessel healing

Plasmin (4. Fibrin-digesting enzyme)...Platelet-derived growth factor (5. Stimulates blood vessel healing)...Heparin (1.Inhibits coagulation)...Thrombin (2.Converts fibrinogen to fibrin)...Prothrombin activator (3.Generates thrombin)...

A free-floating blood clot is called a thrombus.

True
False

False (It is called an "embolus") (p653)

Blood type is determined by:

antibodies present on the surface of erythrocytes./ glycoproteins present in the plasma./ glycoproteins present on the surface of erythrocytes./
antibodies present in the plasma.

glycoproteins present on the surface of erythrocytes. (p654)

Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) can develop when an Rh+ woman is pregnant with an Rh- baby.

True
False

True (p655)

Match the following:

Would make antibodies to the A agglutinogen but not the B agglutinogen /
Would make antibodies to the B agglutinogen but not the A agglutinogen /
Would make antibodies to the A and B agglutinogens/
Would have type A and B agglutinogens

1.Person with type B blood
2.Person with type A blood
3.Person with type AB blood
4.Person with type O blood

See Textbook p654, 655 and Table 17.4 p655 Would make antibodies to the A agglutinogen but not the B agglutinogen 1.Person with type B blood /
Would make antibodies to the B agglutinogen but not the A agglutinogen 2.Person with type A blood /
Would make antibodies to the A and B agglutinogens 4.Person with type O blood/ Would have type A and B agglutinogens 3.Person with type AB blood

Choose the true statement about fetal hemoglobin.

Fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than does adult hemoglobin.

Fetal hemoglobin is called hemoglobin A.

Fetal hemoglobin contains four alpha chains.

Fetal hemoglobin is produced until the baby is one year old.

Fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than does adult hemoglobin.

Match the following:

Increase in number significantly during bacterial infections ...Form a temporary plug at the site of bleeding...Play a critical role in immunity...Differentiate into macrophages...Contain the anticoagulant heparin granules

1.Monocyte
2.Platelets
3.Neutrophils
4.Lymphocyte
5.Basophils

Increase in number significantly during bacterial infections (3. Neutrophils) ...Form a temporary plug at the site of bleeding (2.Platelets)..Play a critical role in immunity (4.Lymphocyte) ...Differentiate into macrophages (1.Monocyte )...Contain the anticoagulant heparin granules 5.Basophils

Match the following:

Have both antigens A and B...
Have the antigen A ...
Have only anti-A antibody...
Have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies...

1.Blood group O
2.Blood group AB
3.Blood group B
4.Blood group A

Have both antigens A and B...2.Blood group AB
Have the antigen A ...4.Blood group A
Have only anti-A antibody... 3.Blood group B Have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies... 1.Blood group O again see Text page 655

Match each of the following functions of blood with the correct example.

Protection

Regulation

Distribution

1. Delivering oxygen from the lungs
2. Maintaining appropriate body temperature
3. Preventing infection

Match each of the following functions of blood with the correct example.

Protection

Regulation

Distribution

1. Delivering oxygen from the lungs
2. Maintaining appropriate body temperature
3. Preventing infection

Match each component of plasma with its description and/or importance.

Electrolytes
Water
Albumin
Non-protein nitrogenous substances
Globulins

1.Ninety percent of plasma volume; dissolving and suspending medium for solutes of blood
2.Produced by liver; exerts osmotic pressure to maintain water balance between blood and tissues
3.Involved in transport of lipids; involved in immune response
4.Byproducts of cellular metabolism (urea, uric acid)
5.Sodium, calcium, potassium, chloride, phosphate, sulfate

Match each component of plasma with its description and/or importance.

Electrolytes
Water
Albumin
Non-protein nitrogenous substances
Globulins

1.Ninety percent of plasma volume; dissolving and suspending medium for solutes of blood
2.Produced by liver; exerts osmotic pressure to maintain water balance between blood and tissues
3.Involved in transport of lipids; involved in immune response
4.Byproducts of cellular metabolism (urea, uric acid)
5.Sodium, calcium, potassium, chloride, phosphate, sulfate

Match the following disorders with the appropriate descriptions.

Hemorrhagic anemias
Sickle-cell anemia
Iron-deficiency anemia
Porphyria
Aplastic anemia

1.Caused by defective synthesis of heme groups and production of nonfunctional hemoglobin molecules
2.Result from bleeding
3.Results from destruction or inhibition of the red marrow by certain bacterial toxins, drugs, and ionizing radiation
4.Can result from inadequate intake of iron-containing foods and impaired iron absorption
5.Caused by abnormal hemoglobin from a change in DNA, resulting in a change in one of the 287 amino acids

Match the following disorders with the appropriate descriptions.

Hemorrhagic anemias
Sickle-cell anemia
Iron-deficiency anemia
Porphyria
Aplastic anemia

1.Caused by defective synthesis of heme groups and production of nonfunctional hemoglobin molecules
2.Result from bleeding
3.Results from destruction or inhibition of the red marrow by certain bacterial toxins, drugs, and ionizing radiation
4.Can result from inadequate intake of iron-containing foods and impaired iron absorption
5.Caused by abnormal hemoglobin from a change in DNA, resulting in a change in one of the 287 amino acids

Match the following types of blood cell formed elements with the appropriate descriptions.

Agranulocytes
Eosinophils
Neutrophils
Platelets
Basophils

1.The most numerous of white blood cells; stain pale lilac since the very fine granules take up both acid and basic stains
2.Their deep red nucleus has two lobes connected by a broad band of nuclear material; large, coarse granules stain red with acid dyes
3.Their cytoplasm contains large, coarse granules that stain purplish-black from basic dyes.
4.Their cytoplasm lacks visible cytoplasmic granules.
5.Not complete cells, but fragments of cells; very small compared to other cellular components

Match the following types of blood cell formed elements with the appropriate descriptions.

Agranulocytes
Eosinophils
Neutrophils
Platelets
Basophils

1.The most numerous of white blood cells; stain pale lilac since the very fine granules take up both acid and basic stains
2.Their deep red nucleus has two lobes connected by a broad band of nuclear material; large, coarse granules stain red with acid dyes
3.Their cytoplasm contains large, coarse granules that stain purplish-black from basic dyes.
4.Their cytoplasm lacks visible cytoplasmic granules.
5.Not complete cells, but fragments of cells; very small compared to other cellular components

Match the following components of the clotting mechanism with the appropriate functions.

Serum
Prothrombin
Thrombin
Von Willebrand factor (VWF)
Tissue factor (TFIII), or tissue thromboplastin

1.Assist platelets to adhere to the collagen fibers
2.Triggers the "shortcut" extrinsic mechanism that bypasses several steps of the intrinsic pathway
3.Inactive form of thrombin
4.Catalyzes conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin strands
5.Plasma minus the clotting proteins

Match the following components of the clotting mechanism with the appropriate functions.

Serum
Prothrombin
Thrombin
Von Willebrand factor (VWF)
Tissue factor (TFIII), or tissue thromboplastin

1.Assist platelets to adhere to the collagen fibers
2.Triggers the "shortcut" extrinsic mechanism that bypasses several steps of the intrinsic pathway
3.Inactive form of thrombin
4.Catalyzes conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin strands
5.Plasma minus the clotting proteins

Match each of the following parts of separated blood with its definition.

Plasma
Hematocrit
Buffy coat

1.Thin white colored area in centrifuged blood that contains WBC and platelets
2.Erythrocyte portion of centrifuged blood
3.The liquid portion of centrifuged blood that sits atop everything else

Match each of the following parts of separated blood with its definition.

Plasma
Hematocrit
Buffy coat

1.Thin white colored area in centrifuged blood that contains WBC and platelets
2.Erythrocyte portion of centrifuged blood
3.The liquid portion of centrifuged blood that sits atop everything else

A healthy adult male has approximately ___ liters of blood.

7-8 /or/
2-3 /or/
3-4 /or/
1-2 /or/
5-6

A healthy adult male has approximately ___ liters of blood.

7-8 /or/
2-3 /or/
3-4 /or/
1-2 /or/
5-6

A major plasma protein that maintains the blood osmotic pressure is:

fibrin.
fibrinogen.
albumin.
globulin.
angiotensinogen.

A major plasma protein that maintains the blood osmotic pressure is:

fibrin.
fibrinogen.
albumin.
globulin.
angiotensinogen.

Diapedesis refers to:

the type of movement erythrocytes use in the tissue spaces...the secretion of chemicals that trigger the inflammatory process....
the engulfing of foreign bodies by leukocytes....
the chemical attraction leukocytes use to reach the site of tissue damage....
the escape of leukocytes from blood vessels into tissue spaces.

Diapedesis refers to:

the type of movement erythrocytes use in the tissue spaces...the secretion of chemicals that trigger the inflammatory process....
the engulfing of foreign bodies by leukocytes....
the chemical attraction leukocytes use to reach the site of tissue damage....
the escape of leukocytes from blood vessels into tissue spaces.

Granulocytes do NOT include:

eosinophils.
basophils.
monocytes.
PMNs.
neutrophils.

Granulocytes do NOT include:

eosinophils.
basophils.
monocytes.
PMNs.
neutrophils.

Mature red blood cells in the circulating blood are filled with:

nuclei and all other cellular organelles.
lysosomes.
hemoglobin molecules.
mitochondria.
smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

Mature red blood cells in the circulating blood are filled with:

nuclei and all other cellular organelles.
lysosomes.
hemoglobin molecules.
mitochondria.
smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

Pernicious anemia may result from:

1rupture of red blood cells caused by parasites.
2abnormal production of hemoglobin caused by genetic defect.
3the absence or depressed synthesis of globin chains.
4excessive bleeding.
5the lack of vitamin B12 in diet or deficiency of intrinsic factor needed to absorb B12.

Pernicious anemia may result from:

1rupture of red blood cells caused by parasites.
2abnormal production of hemoglobin caused by genetic defect.
3the absence or depressed synthesis of globin chains.
4excessive bleeding.
5the lack of vitamin B12 in diet or deficiency of intrinsic factor needed to absorb B12.

The final step in clot formation is:

1fibrinogen ? fibrin.
2the release of chemical by platelets.
3platelet plug formation.
4formation of prothrombin activator.
5prothrombin ? thrombin.

The final step in clot formation is:

1fibrinogen ? fibrin.
2the release of chemical by platelets.
3platelet plug formation.
4formation of prothrombin activator.
5prothrombin ? thrombin.

The most numerous leukocyte is the:

The most numerous leukocyte is the:

The terms biconcave and anucleated apply to:

thrombocytes.
leukocytes.
white blood cells.
platelets.
red blood cells.

The terms biconcave and anucleated apply to:

thrombocytes.
leukocytes.
white blood cells.
platelets.
red blood cells.

Which leukocyte(s) contains histamine in its granules?

Which leukocyte(s) contains histamine in its granules?

Which of the following is a protective function of blood?

1Maintaining normal pH in the body
2Delivering oxygen from the lungs to all body tissues
3Maintaining normal body temperature
4Preventing infection
5Transporting hormones from endocrine organs to target tissues

Which of the following is a protective function of blood?

1Maintaining normal pH in the body
2Delivering oxygen from the lungs to all body tissues
3Maintaining normal body temperature
4Preventing infection
5Transporting hormones from endocrine organs to target tissues

Which of the following statements about platelets is INCORRECT?
1Platelets are fragments of a larger cell called a megakaryocyte.
2The life span of platelets is between 30 to 60 days.
3Platelets contain serotonin, ADP, calcium, and PDGF.
4The formation of platelets is regulated by the hormone thrombopoietin.
5Platelets are essential for clotting process.

Which of the following statements about platelets is INCORRECT?
1Platelets are fragments of a larger cell called a megakaryocyte.
2The life span of platelets is between 30 to 60 days.
3Platelets contain serotonin, ADP, calcium, and PDGF.
4The formation of platelets is regulated by the hormone thrombopoietin.
5Platelets are essential for clotting process.

Which property do white blood cells have in common?1WBCs are nucleated and have a protective function.
2All WBCs have a phagocytic function.
3WBCs transport oxygen.
4All WBCs are granulocytes.

Which property do white blood cells have in common?1WBCs are nucleated and have a protective function.
2All WBCs have a phagocytic function.
3WBCs transport oxygen.
4All WBCs are granulocytes.

Individuals with malaria have a better chance of surviving if they have which type of anemia?
1Hemorrhagic anemia
2Sickle-cell anemia
3Athlete's anemia
4Iron-deficiency anemia
5Aplastic anemia

Individuals with malaria have a better chance of surviving if they have which type of anemia?
1Hemorrhagic anemia
2Sickle-cell anemia
3Athlete's anemia
4Iron-deficiency anemia
5Aplastic anemia

Which of the following types of white blood cells kills parasitic worms, destroys antibody complexes, and inactivates some inflammatory chemicals of allergy? Eosinophils
Lymphocytes
Monocytes
Basophils
Neutrophils

Which of the following types of white blood cells kills parasitic worms, destroys antibody complexes, and inactivates some inflammatory chemicals of allergy? Eosinophils
Lymphocytes
Monocytes
Basophils
Neutrophils

Which of the following is a function of neutrophils?
1Release histamine and other mediators of inflammation
2Kill parasitic worms
3Mount immune response by direct cell attack or via antibodies
4Phagocytize bacteria
5Seal small tears in blood vessels

Which of the following is a function of neutrophils?
1Release histamine and other mediators of inflammation
2Kill parasitic worms
3Mount immune response by direct cell attack or via antibodies
4Phagocytize bacteria
5Seal small tears in blood vessels

Which of the following is a function of erythrocytes?1Release histamine
2Phagocytize bacteria
3Transport oxygen and carbon dioxide
4Mount immune response
5Kill parasitic worms

Which of the following is a function of erythrocytes?1Release histamine
2Phagocytize bacteria
3Transport oxygen and carbon dioxide
4Mount immune response
5Kill parasitic worms

Which of the following is a function of basophils?
1Kill parasites
2Phagocytize bacteria
3Mount immune response
4Transport blood gases
5Release histamine during allergic reaction

Which of the following is a function of basophils?
1Kill parasites
2Phagocytize bacteria
3Mount immune response
4Transport blood gases
5Release histamine during allergic reaction

Which of the following is a function of lymphocytes?
1Maintain body temperature
2Regulate pH
3Carry oxygen
4Produce albumin
5Destruction of virus-containing cells

Which of the following is a function of lymphocytes?
1Maintain body temperature
2Regulate pH
3Carry oxygen
4Produce albumin
5Destruction of virus-containing cells

The percentage of total volume used to determine the number of erythrocytes in a blood sample is referred to as the: 1reticulocyte count.
2ESR
3red blood cell count.
4hematocrit.

The percentage of total volume used to determine the number of erythrocytes in a blood sample is referred to as the: 1reticulocyte count.
2ESR
3red blood cell count.
4hematocrit.

The buffy coat that appears after a sample of blood has been centrifuged contains:

1RBCs.
2WBCs.
3serum.
4plasma.

The buffy coat that appears after a sample of blood has been centrifuged contains:

1RBCs.
2WBCs.
3serum.
4plasma.

Which of the following factors has the greatest effect on making RBCs very efficient oxygen transporters?

1They carry 20% of the carbon dioxide released by tissues back to the lungs.
2They don't contain a nucleus.
3They represent most of the formed elements in the blood.
4They generate ATP by anaerobic mechanisms and do not consume any of the oxygen they carry.

Which of the following factors has the greatest effect on making RBCs very efficient oxygen transporters?

1They carry 20% of the carbon dioxide released by tissues back to the lungs.
2They don't contain a nucleus.
3They represent most of the formed elements in the blood.
4They generate ATP by anaerobic mechanisms and do not consume any of the oxygen they carry.

Another term for reduced hemoglobin is:

1deoxyhemoglobin.
2carbaminohemoglobin.
3oxyhemoglobin.
4hemoglobin S.

Another term for reduced hemoglobin is:

1deoxyhemoglobin.
2carbaminohemoglobin.
3oxyhemoglobin.
4hemoglobin S.

____________ is an illustration of iron deficiency seen in individuals who have expanded their blood by increased activity.

1Sickle-cell anemia
2Microcytic anemia
3Macrocytic anemia
4Athlete's anemia

____________ is an illustration of iron deficiency seen in individuals who have expanded their blood by increased activity.

1Sickle-cell anemia
2Microcytic anemia
3Macrocytic anemia
4Athlete's anemia

The process of actively metabolizing oxygen to produce bleach and hydrogen to kill bacteria is known as:

1amoeboid movement.
2respiratory burst.
3diapedesis.
4chemotaxis.

The process of actively metabolizing oxygen to produce bleach and hydrogen to kill bacteria is known as:

1amoeboid movement.
2respiratory burst.
3diapedesis.
4chemotaxis.

Which of the following substances is responsible for limiting a platelet plug to the immediate area of damage?

1Thromboxane A2
2Adenosine diphosphate
3Serotonin
4Prostacyclin

Which of the following substances is responsible for limiting a platelet plug to the immediate area of damage?

1Thromboxane A2
2Adenosine diphosphate
3Serotonin
4Prostacyclin

Erythroblastosis fetalis is caused by:

1increase in the number of erythrocytes in the newborn.
2loss of blood by the fetus.
3Rh incompatibility between an Rh-negative mother and her Rh-positive baby during pregnancy.
4malfunction of the thymus during fetal development.

Erythroblastosis fetalis is caused by:

1increase in the number of erythrocytes in the newborn.
2loss of blood by the fetus.
3Rh incompatibility between an Rh-negative mother and her Rh-positive baby during pregnancy.
4malfunction of the thymus during fetal development.

Which of the following plasma expanders would be associated with the least complications?

1Human serum albumin
2Hetastarch
3Dextran
4Ringer's solution

Which of the following plasma expanders would be associated with the least complications?

1Human serum albumin
2Hetastarch
3Dextran
4Ringer's solution

Eighty-five percent of Americans carry the ______ Rh agglutinogen on their RBCs.

...C
...K
...E
...D

Eighty-five percent of Americans carry the ______ Rh agglutinogen on their RBCs.

...C
...K
...E
...D

Which antibodies would be found in the serum of a person with AB blood?

1anti-B antibodies
2Neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies
3Both anti-B and anti-A antibodies
4anti-A antibodies

Which antibodies would be found in the serum of a person with AB blood?

1anti-B antibodies
2Neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies
3Both anti-B and anti-A antibodies
4anti-A antibodies

Each hemoglobin molecule has four polypeptide chains: two alpha chains and two beta chains.

True
False

Each hemoglobin molecule has four polypeptide chains: two alpha chains and two beta chains.

True
False

Eosinophils are erythrocytes that fight parasitic infection or allergic reaction.

True
False

Eosinophils are erythrocytes that fight parasitic infection or allergic reaction.

True
False

Hemoglobin serves to transport oxygen, but NOT carbon dioxide.

True
False

Hemoglobin serves to transport oxygen, but NOT carbon dioxide.

True
False

Plasma contains water, proteins, nutrient molecules, and hormones.

True
False

Plasma contains water, proteins, nutrient molecules, and hormones.

True
False

Reticulocytes are sometimes found in circulating blood and are filled with hemoglobin and some ribosomes.

True
False

Reticulocytes are sometimes found in circulating blood and are filled with hemoglobin and some ribosomes.

True
False

The buffy coat in centrifuged blood contains RBC and platelets.

True
False

The buffy coat in centrifuged blood contains RBC and platelets.

True
False

The RBC count in both men and women is between 5.1 and 5.8 million per microliter of blood.

True
False

The RBC count in both men and women is between 5.1 and 5.8 million per microliter of blood.

True
False

Vitamin D is essential for the synthesis of RBC.

True
False

Vitamin D is essential for the synthesis of RBC.

True
False

When oxygen is bound to hemoglobin it becomes oxyhemoglobin.

True
False

When oxygen is bound to hemoglobin it becomes oxyhemoglobin.

True
False

One of the regulatory functions of blood is to maintain normal temperatures in body tissues.

True
False

One of the regulatory functions of blood is to maintain normal temperatures in body tissues.

True
False

The most abundant component of plasma is protein.

True
False

The most abundant component of plasma is protein.

True
False

Formed elements of blood include erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets.

True
False

Formed elements of blood include erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets.

True
False

Hemoglobin is the protein that makes red blood cells red.

True
False

Hemoglobin is the protein that makes red blood cells red.

True
False

Blood cell formation is referred to as hemostasis.

True
False

Blood cell formation is referred to as hemostasis.

True
False

Dissolved proteins are an important part of blood clotting.

True
False

Dissolved proteins are an important part of blood clotting.

True
False

Blood is NOT important in the regulation of the body's pH.

True
False

Blood is NOT important in the regulation of the body's pH.

True
False

Which of the following is not a role of the pericardium?

1It anchors the heart to surrounding structures.
2It facilitates heart contraction.
3It prevents overfilling of the heart with blood.
4It protects the heart.

Which of the following is not a role of the pericardium?

1It anchors the heart to surrounding structures.
2It facilitates heart contraction.
3It prevents overfilling of the heart with blood.
4It protects the heart.

The lining of the heart chambers is called the:

1endocardium.
2epicardium.
3myocardium.
4pericardium.

The lining of the heart chambers is called the:

1endocardium.
2epicardium.
3myocardium.
4pericardium.

The superior chambers of the heart are called the:

1ventricles.
2superior sulci.
3atria.
4coronary chambers.

The superior chambers of the heart are called the:

1ventricles.
2superior sulci.
3atria.
4coronary chambers.

Freshly oxygenated blood is delivered to the _____ and then it passes into the _______, to be pumped to the entire body.

1right ventricle; right atrium
2right atrium; right ventricle
3left ventricle; left atrium
4left atrium; left ventricle

Freshly oxygenated blood is delivered to the _____ and then it passes into the _______, to be pumped to the entire body.

1right ventricle; right atrium
2right atrium; right ventricle
3left ventricle; left atrium
4left atrium; left ventricle

Into which chamber of the heart do the pulmonary veins deliver blood?

1Right atrium
2Left atrium
3Left ventricle
4Right ventricle

Into which chamber of the heart do the pulmonary veins deliver blood?

1Right atrium
2Left atrium
3Left ventricle
4Right ventricle

Match the following:

Anterior interventricular artery
Circumflex artery
Right marginal artery
Posterior interventricular artery

1.Supplies blood to the right side of the myocardium
2.Runs to the apex of the heart
3.Supplies blood to the interventricular septum and anterior walls of both ventricles
4.Supplies blood to the left atrium and posterior walls of the left ventricle

Match the following:

Anterior interventricular artery
Circumflex artery
Right marginal artery
Posterior interventricular artery

1.Supplies blood to the right side of the myocardium
2.Runs to the apex of the heart
3.Supplies blood to the interventricular septum and anterior walls of both ventricles
4.Supplies blood to the left atrium and posterior walls of the left ventricle

The most muscular chamber of the heart is the ________.

1right ventricle
2left atrium
3right atrium
4left ventricle

The most muscular chamber of the heart is the ________.

1right ventricle
2left atrium
3right atrium
4left ventricle

Match the following:

Mitral valve
Aortic semilunar valve
Tricuspid valve
Pulmonary semilunar valve

1.Valve between the right atrium and right ventricle
2.Valve between the left atrium and left ventricle
3.Gatekeeper to systemic circuit
4.Prevents backflow of blood into the right ventricle

Match the following:

Mitral valve
Aortic semilunar valve
Tricuspid valve
Pulmonary semilunar valve

1.Valve between the right atrium and right ventricle
2.Valve between the left atrium and left ventricle
3.Gatekeeper to systemic circuit
4.Prevents backflow of blood into the right ventricle

Which of the following is a difference between cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle?

Unlike skeletal muscle cells, cardiac muscle cells can be autorhythmic.
/ Unlike skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle is not striated.
/ Unlike skeletal muscle cells, cardiac muscle cells do not rely on an influx of calcium ions for depolarization.
/ Unlike skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle does not use a sliding filament mechanism for contraction.

Which of the following is a difference between cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle?

Unlike skeletal muscle cells, cardiac muscle cells can be autorhythmic.
/ Unlike skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle is not striated.
/ Unlike skeletal muscle cells, cardiac muscle cells do not rely on an influx of calcium ions for depolarization.
/ Unlike skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle does not use a sliding filament mechanism for contraction.

The role of the atrioventricular node (AV node) is to:

initiate a sinus rhythm.
/ initiate ventricular depolarization.
/ conduct impulses to the sinoatrial node (SA node).
/ slow down impulses so that the atria can contract to fill the adjacent ventricles with blood.

The role of the atrioventricular node (AV node) is to:

initiate a sinus rhythm.
/ initiate ventricular depolarization.
/ conduct impulses to the sinoatrial node (SA node).
/ slow down impulses so that the atria can contract to fill the adjacent ventricles with blood.

Which is correctly paired?

Fibrillation: premature contraction
/ Arrhythmia: AV node failure
/ Ectopic focus: an abnormal pacemaker
/ Heart block: uncoordinated atrial and ventricular contraction

Which is correctly paired?

Fibrillation: premature contraction
/ Arrhythmia: AV node failure
/ Ectopic focus: an abnormal pacemaker
/ Heart block: uncoordinated atrial and ventricular contraction

The P wave of an electrocardiogram represents:

ventricular repolarization.
/ atrial repolarization.
/ atrial depolarization.
/ ventricular depolarization.

The P wave of an electrocardiogram represents:

ventricular repolarization.
/ atrial repolarization.
/ atrial depolarization.
/ ventricular depolarization.

The second heart sound (the 'dup' of 'lub-dup') is caused by:

opening of the semilunar valves.
/ opening of the atrioventricular valves.
/ closure of the atrioventricular valves.
/ closure of the semilunar valves.

The second heart sound (the 'dup' of 'lub-dup') is caused by:

opening of the semilunar valves.
/ opening of the atrioventricular valves.
/ closure of the atrioventricular valves.
/ closure of the semilunar valves.

Match the following:

/ Diastole
/ Cardiac output
/ Stroke volume
/ Cardiac cycle
/ Systole

1.The events associated with blood flow through the heart during one complete heartbeat
2.Contraction
3.Relaxation
4.The volume of blood pumped by one ventricle with each heartbeat
5.The amount of blood pumped by each ventricle in one minute

Match the following:

/ Diastole
/ Cardiac output
/ Stroke volume
/ Cardiac cycle
/ Systole

1.The events associated with blood flow through the heart during one complete heartbeat
2.Contraction
3.Relaxation
4.The volume of blood pumped by one ventricle with each heartbeat
5.The amount of blood pumped by each ventricle in one minute

Which of the following would lead to a decrease in heart rate?

Parasympathetic stimulation
/ Sharply decreased blood volume
/ Exercise
/ Norepinephrine

Which of the following would lead to a decrease in heart rate?

Parasympathetic stimulation
/ Sharply decreased blood volume
/ Exercise
/ Norepinephrine

In the fetus, blood from the left and right sides of the heart normally mix.

True
False

In the fetus, blood from the left and right sides of the heart normally mix.

True
False

Match the following:

/ Ventricular repolarization
/ A slower depolarizing pacemaker
/ Ventricular depolarization
/ Atrial depolarization
/ A faster depolarizing pacemaker

1.P wave
2.QRS complex
3.T wave
4.SA node
5.AV node

Match the following:

/ Ventricular repolarization
/ A slower depolarizing pacemaker
/ Ventricular depolarization
/ Atrial depolarization
/ A faster depolarizing pacemaker

1.P wave
2.QRS complex
3.T wave
4.SA node
5.AV node

Match the following:

The right ventricle sends blood into this vessel
/ Brings oxygen-poor blood from the upper body to right atrium
/ The left ventricle sends blood into this vessel
/ Brings oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the left atrium
/ Brings oxygen-poor blood from the lower body to right atrium

1.Pulmonary veins
2.Pulmonary trunk
3.Inferior vena cava
4.Superior vena cava
5.Aorta

Match the following:

The right ventricle sends blood into this vessel
/ Brings oxygen-poor blood from the upper body to right atrium
/ The left ventricle sends blood into this vessel
/ Brings oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the left atrium
/ Brings oxygen-poor blood from the lower body to right atrium

1.Pulmonary veins
2.Pulmonary trunk
3.Inferior vena cava
4.Superior vena cava
5.Aorta

Match the following structure with its description.

/ Epicardium
/ Serous pericardium
/ Fibrous pericardium
/ Endocardium
/ Myocardium

1.Loosely fitting superficial part of the sac enclosing the heart
2.Thin, slippery, two-layer membrane
3.Inner layer of pericardium (called the visceral layer)
4.Middle layer of the heart, composed mainly of cardiac muscle
5.Glistening white sheet of endothelium lining the heart

Match the following structure with its description.

/ Epicardium
/ Serous pericardium
/ Fibrous pericardium
/ Endocardium
/ Myocardium

1.Loosely fitting superficial part of the sac enclosing the heart
2.Thin, slippery, two-layer membrane
3.Inner layer of pericardium (called the visceral layer)
4.Middle layer of the heart, composed mainly of cardiac muscle
5.Glistening white sheet of endothelium lining the heart

Match each area of the heart with the structure from which it receives blood.
/ Coronary artery
/ Right atrium
/ Right ventricle
/ Left ventricle
/ Left atrium

1.Vena cavae
2.Right atrium
3.Pulmonary veins
4.Left atrium
5.Aorta

Match each area of the heart with the structure from which it receives blood.
/ Coronary artery
/ Right atrium
/ Right ventricle
/ Left ventricle
/ Left atrium

1.Vena cavae
2.Right atrium
3.Pulmonary veins
4.Left atrium
5.Aorta

Indicate the valve separating the following areas of the heart.
/ Left atrium and left ventricle
/ Right atrium and right ventricle
/ Left ventricle and aorta
/ Right ventricle and pulmonary artery

1.Bicuspid (mitral) valve
2.Aortic semilunar valve
3.Tricuspid valve
4.Pulmonary semilunar valve

Indicate the valve separating the following areas of the heart.
/ Left atrium and left ventricle
/ Right atrium and right ventricle
/ Left ventricle and aorta
/ Right ventricle and pulmonary artery

1.Bicuspid (mitral) valve
2.Aortic semilunar valve
3.Tricuspid valve
4.Pulmonary semilunar valve

Match each area of the heart with the "exit" through which the blood leaves.

/ Right ventricle
/ Right atrium
/ Left ventricle
/ Left atrium

1.Tricuspid valve
2.Pulmonary semilunar valve
3.Bicuspid valve
4.Aortic semilunar valve

Match each area of the heart with the "exit" through which the blood leaves.

/ Right ventricle
/ Right atrium
/ Left ventricle
/ Left atrium

1.Tricuspid valve
2.Pulmonary semilunar valve
3.Bicuspid valve
4.Aortic semilunar valve

Match each of the following vessels with the correct "destination."

Pulmonary artery
/ Aorta
/ Pulmonary veins
/ Coronary artery
/ Superior vena cava

1.Right atrium
2.Left atrium
3.The "body"
4.The lungs
5.Myocardium

Match each of the following vessels with the correct "destination."

Pulmonary artery
/ Aorta
/ Pulmonary veins
/ Coronary artery
/ Superior vena cava

1.Right atrium
2.Left atrium
3.The "body"
4.The lungs
5.Myocardium

Match each of the following terms with its definition.

ESV
/ CO
/ EDV
/ SV
/ HR

1.Amount of blood ejected by one contraction of the heart
2.Amount of blood in the ventricle at the end of relaxation
3.Amount of blood in the ventricle at the end of contraction
4.The amount of blood ejected from the heart in one minute
5.The frequency at which the heart beats

Match each of the following terms with its definition.

ESV
/ CO
/ EDV
/ SV
/ HR

1.Amount of blood ejected by one contraction of the heart
2.Amount of blood in the ventricle at the end of relaxation
3.Amount of blood in the ventricle at the end of contraction
4.The amount of blood ejected from the heart in one minute
5.The frequency at which the heart beats

Cardiac output is:

/ the amount of blood pumped out of each ventricle in one minute.
/ the amount of blood pumped out of the heart during every ventricular contraction.
/ the number of impulses fired by the SA node in one minute.
/ the number of times the heart beats in one minute.
/ the amount of blood filling each ventricle at the end of diastole.

Cardiac output is:

/ the amount of blood pumped out of each ventricle in one minute.
/ the amount of blood pumped out of the heart during every ventricular contraction.
/ the number of impulses fired by the SA node in one minute.
/ the number of times the heart beats in one minute.
/ the amount of blood filling each ventricle at the end of diastole.

Choose the correct sequence of current flow through the heart wall.

/ AV node, SA node, Purkinje fibers, AV bundle of His, right and left bundle branches
/ SA node, AV node, AV bundle of His, right and left bundle branches, Purkinje fibers
/ Purkinje fibers, AV node, AV bundle of His, right and left bundle branches, SA node
/ SA node, Purkinje fibers, AV node, AV bundle of His, right and left bundle branches
/ AV node, Purkinje fibers, AV node, AV bundle of His, right and left bundle branches

Choose the correct sequence of current flow through the heart wall.

/ AV node, SA node, Purkinje fibers, AV bundle of His, right and left bundle branches
/ SA node, AV node, AV bundle of His, right and left bundle branches, Purkinje fibers
/ Purkinje fibers, AV node, AV bundle of His, right and left bundle branches, SA node
/ SA node, Purkinje fibers, AV node, AV bundle of His, right and left bundle branches
/ AV node, Purkinje fibers, AV node, AV bundle of His, right and left bundle branches

During pulmonary circulation blood leaves the:

/ right atrium and goes directly to the left ventricle.
/ right ventricle and goes directly to the aorta.
/ left ventricle and moves to the lungs.
/ right atrium and goes directly to the lungs.
/ right ventricle and moves to the lungs.

During pulmonary circulation blood leaves the:

/ right atrium and goes directly to the left ventricle.
/ right ventricle and goes directly to the aorta.
/ left ventricle and moves to the lungs.
/ right atrium and goes directly to the lungs.
/ right ventricle and moves to the lungs.

During systemic circulation blood leaves the:

/ right ventricle and goes directly to the aorta.
/ left ventricle and goes directly to the aorta.
/ right atrium and goes directly to the lungs.
/ lungs and moves to the left atrium.
/ right ventricle and moves to the lungs.

During systemic circulation blood leaves the:

/ right ventricle and goes directly to the aorta.
/ left ventricle and goes directly to the aorta.
/ right atrium and goes directly to the lungs.
/ lungs and moves to the left atrium.
/ right ventricle and moves to the lungs.

Identify the correct sequence of blood flow through the chambers of the heart.

/ Lungs, right ventricle, left ventricle, right atrium, left atrium
/ Right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle
/ Right ventricle, left ventricle, left atrium, lungs, right atrium
/ Left atrium, left ventricle, right ventricle, right atrium, and lungs
/ Left ventricle, left atrium, lungs, right ventricle, right atrium

Identify the correct sequence of blood flow through the chambers of the heart.

/ Lungs, right ventricle, left ventricle, right atrium, left atrium
/ Right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle
/ Right ventricle, left ventricle, left atrium, lungs, right atrium
/ Left atrium, left ventricle, right ventricle, right atrium, and lungs
/ Left ventricle, left atrium, lungs, right ventricle, right atrium

The absolute refractory period refers to the time during which:

/ the muscle cell is not in a position to respond to a stimulus of any strength.
/ the muscle cell is ready to respond to a threshold stimulus.
/ a cardiac muscle cannot respond to any stimulus and lasts only 1 to 2 milliseconds.
/ a skeletal muscle cannot respond to any stimulus and lasts about 250 milliseconds.
/ the muscle cell is ready to respond to any stimulus.

The absolute refractory period refers to the time during which:

/ the muscle cell is not in a position to respond to a stimulus of any strength.
/ the muscle cell is ready to respond to a threshold stimulus.
/ a cardiac muscle cannot respond to any stimulus and lasts only 1 to 2 milliseconds.
/ a skeletal muscle cannot respond to any stimulus and lasts about 250 milliseconds.
/ the muscle cell is ready to respond to any stimulus.

The cardiac cycle includes all of the following events, except:

/ the number of times the heart beats in one minute.
/ the changes in blood volume in all chambers of the heart.
/ the movement of impulse from the SA node to all regions of the heart wall.
/ the changes in pressure gradients in all chambers of the heart.
/ the closing and opening of the heart valves during each heart beat.

The cardiac cycle includes all of the following events, except:

/ the number of times the heart beats in one minute.
/ the changes in blood volume in all chambers of the heart.
/ the movement of impulse from the SA node to all regions of the heart wall.
/ the changes in pressure gradients in all chambers of the heart.
/ the closing and opening of the heart valves during each heart beat.

The coronary arteries arise from the:

/ inferior vena cava.
/ right atrium.
/ aorta.
/ superior vena cava.
/ pulmonary trunk.

The coronary arteries arise from the:

/ inferior vena cava.
/ right atrium.
/ aorta.
/ superior vena cava.
/ pulmonary trunk.

The endocardium is composed of:

/ simple columnar epithelium.
/ stratified squamous epithelium.
/ cardiac muscle cells.
/ simple squamous epithelium.
/ simple cuboidal epithelium.

The endocardium is composed of:

/ simple columnar epithelium.
/ stratified squamous epithelium.
/ cardiac muscle cells.
/ simple squamous epithelium.
/ simple cuboidal epithelium.

The inferior vena cava brings blood from the lower regions of the body and empties into the:

/ right atrium.
/ left ventricle.
/ aorta.
/ right ventricle.
/ left atrium.

The inferior vena cava brings blood from the lower regions of the body and empties into the:

/ right atrium.
/ left ventricle.
/ aorta.
/ right ventricle.
/ left atrium.

The inner lining of the fibrous pericardium is formed by the:

/ diaphragm.
/ pericardial cavity.
/ parietal layer of serous pericardium.
/ epicardium.
/ myocardium.
/ endocardium.

The inner lining of the fibrous pericardium is formed by the:

/ diaphragm.
/ pericardial cavity.
/ parietal layer of serous pericardium.
/ epicardium.
/ myocardium.
/ endocardium.

The interventricular septum forms a dividing wall between the:

/ right ventricle and left atrium.
/ left atrium and left ventricle.
/ right atrium and right ventricle.
/ left atrium and right atrium.
/ left and right ventricles.

The interventricular septum forms a dividing wall between the:

/ right ventricle and left atrium.
/ left atrium and left ventricle.
/ right atrium and right ventricle.
/ left atrium and right atrium.
/ left and right ventricles.

The pacemaker of the heart is the:

/ Purkinje fibers.
/ Bundle of His.
/ the bundle branches.
/ AV node.
/ SA node.

The pacemaker of the heart is the:

/ Purkinje fibers.
/ Bundle of His.
/ the bundle branches.
/ AV node.
/ SA node.

The tricuspid valve is located between the:

/ right and left atria.
/ right atrium and right ventricle.
/ right ventricle and the aorta.
/ left atrium and left ventricle.
/ right and left ventricles.

The tricuspid valve is located between the:

/ right and left atria.
/ right atrium and right ventricle.
/ right ventricle and the aorta.
/ left atrium and left ventricle.
/ right and left ventricles.

When the mitral valve closes, it prevents the backflow of blood from the:

/ right ventricle into the pulmonary trunk.
/ left ventricle into the aorta.
/ left ventricle into the left atrium.
/ right atrium into the right ventricle.
/ left atrium into the left ventricle.

When the mitral valve closes, it prevents the backflow of blood from the:

/ right ventricle into the pulmonary trunk.
/ left ventricle into the aorta.
/ left ventricle into the left atrium.
/ right atrium into the right ventricle.
/ left atrium into the left ventricle.

Which is the correct sequence of layers in the heart wall, starting with the outer layer?

/ Epicardium, myocardium, endocardium
/ Endocardium, smooth muscle, epicardium
/ Parietal pericardium, myocardium, endocardium
/ Endocardium, epicardium, myocardium
/ Myocardium, pericardium, endocardium

Which is the correct sequence of layers in the heart wall, starting with the outer layer?

/ Epicardium, myocardium, endocardium
/ Endocardium, smooth muscle, epicardium
/ Parietal pericardium, myocardium, endocardium
/ Endocardium, epicardium, myocardium
/ Myocardium, pericardium, endocardium

Which of the following statements is NOT true about the shape, position, and location of the heart?

/ The heart is shaped like a cone, with the base facing the right shoulder.
/ The heart is enclosed in a double-layered sac called the pleural membrane.
/ The heart is located between the two lungs within the mediastinum.
/ Approximately two-thirds of the heart is found to the left of the midline.

Which of the following statements is NOT true about the shape, position, and location of the heart?

/ The heart is shaped like a cone, with the base facing the right shoulder.
/ The heart is enclosed in a double-layered sac called the pleural membrane.
/ The heart is located between the two lungs within the mediastinum.
/ Approximately two-thirds of the heart is found to the left of the midline.

The vessels that carry oxygen to the myocardial cells are called:

/ aortic arteries.
/ pulmonary veins.
/ coronary arteries.
/ coronary veins.
/ pulmonary arteries.

The vessels that carry oxygen to the myocardial cells are called:

/ aortic arteries.
/ pulmonary veins.
/ coronary arteries.
/ coronary veins.
/ pulmonary arteries.

The cells of the myocardium behave as a single, coordinated unit called a:

/ pacemaker.
/ contractile unit.
/ cardiac cycle.
/ functional syncytium.
/ sarcomere.

The cells of the myocardium behave as a single, coordinated unit called a:

/ pacemaker.
/ contractile unit.
/ cardiac cycle.
/ functional syncytium.
/ sarcomere.

The ability of some cardiac muscle cells to initiate their own depolarization and cause depolarization of the rest of the heart is called:

/ automaticity.
/ the absolute refractory period.
/ a functional syncytium.
/ fibrillation.
/ an action potential.

The ability of some cardiac muscle cells to initiate their own depolarization and cause depolarization of the rest of the heart is called:

/ automaticity.
/ the absolute refractory period.
/ a functional syncytium.
/ fibrillation.
/ an action potential.

Guided by powerful signaling molecules, the human heart develops from:

/ mesoderm.
/ endoderm.

Guided by powerful signaling molecules, the human heart develops from:

/ mesoderm.
/ endoderm.

Which of the following structures lies on the outside surface of the heart and is an integral part of the cardiac wall?

/ the parietal layer of serous pericardium
/ The fibrous pericardium
/ the pericardial sac
/ the epicardium

Which of the following structures lies on the outside surface of the heart and is an integral part of the cardiac wall?

/ the parietal layer of serous pericardium
/ The fibrous pericardium
/ the pericardial sac
/ the epicardium

The trabeculae carneae are located in the:

/ endocardium.
/ ventricles.
/ atrium.
/ epicardium.

The trabeculae carneae are located in the:

/ endocardium.
/ ventricles.
/ atrium.
/ epicardium.

What part of the heart is considered the systemic circuit pump?

/ The left atrium
/ The right ventricle
/ The left ventricle
/ The right atrium

What part of the heart is considered the systemic circuit pump?

/ The left atrium
/ The right ventricle
/ The left ventricle
/ The right atrium

The __________ are attached to the AV valve flaps.

/ chordae tendineae.
/ pectinate muscles.
/ papillary muscles.
/ trabeculae carneae.

The __________ are attached to the AV valve flaps.

/ chordae tendineae.
/ pectinate muscles.
/ papillary muscles.
/ trabeculae carneae.

Which of the following valves is most often faulty in the heart?

/ The pulmonary semilunar valve
/ The tricuspid valve
/ The mitral, or bicuspid, valve
/ The aortic semilunar valve

Which of the following valves is most often faulty in the heart?

/ The pulmonary semilunar valve
/ The tricuspid valve
/ The mitral, or bicuspid, valve
/ The aortic semilunar valve

Which of the following factors gives the myocardium its high resistance to fatigue?

/ A very large number of mitochondrion in the cytoplasm
/ the coronary circulation
/ Gap junctions
/ The presence of intercalated discs

Which of the following factors gives the myocardium its high resistance to fatigue?

/ A very large number of mitochondrion in the cytoplasm
/ the coronary circulation
/ Gap junctions
/ The presence of intercalated discs

The _________ nerve carries parasympathetic fibers to the SA node.

/ facial
/ vagus
/ accessory
/ hypoglossal

The _________ nerve carries parasympathetic fibers to the SA node.

/ facial
/ vagus
/ accessory
/ hypoglossal

An enlarged R wave on an ECG would indicate:

/ cardiac ischemia.
/ a myocardial infarction.
/ repolarization abnormalities.
/ an enlarged ventricle.

An enlarged R wave on an ECG would indicate:

/ cardiac ischemia.
/ a myocardial infarction.
/ repolarization abnormalities.
/ an enlarged ventricle.

A doctor puts his stethoscope on a patient's chest over the location of the heart and hears a swishing sound. Which of the following conditions is the best diagnosis for the patient's condition?

/ Cardiac tamponade
/ Incompetent cardiac valve
/ Angina pectoris
/ Myocardial infarction

A doctor puts his stethoscope on a patient's chest over the location of the heart and hears a swishing sound. Which of the following conditions is the best diagnosis for the patient's condition?

/ Cardiac tamponade
/ Incompetent cardiac valve
/ Angina pectoris
/ Myocardial infarction

An ECG measures the contraction of the atria and the ventricles.

True
False

An ECG measures the contraction of the atria and the ventricles.

True
False

Both gap junctions and desmosomes are found within intercalated discs.

True
False

Both gap junctions and desmosomes are found within intercalated discs.

True
False

Pericardial fluid is found in the space between the visceral and parietal layers of the pericardium.

True
False

Pericardial fluid is found in the space between the visceral and parietal layers of the pericardium.

True
False

The AV node is the pacemaker of the heart.

True
False

The AV node is the pacemaker of the heart.

True
False

The contraction of the ventricles precedes the QRS complex.

True
False

The contraction of the ventricles precedes the QRS complex.

True
False

The first heart sound is produced by the closure of the atrioventricular valves.

True
False

The first heart sound is produced by the closure of the atrioventricular valves.

True
False

The myocardium is the thickest layer in the wall of the heart.

True
False

The myocardium is the thickest layer in the wall of the heart.

True
False

The right and the left coronary sinuses supply oxygenated blood to the wall of the heart.

True
False

The right and the left coronary sinuses supply oxygenated blood to the wall of the heart.

True
False

The superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and the coronary sinus empty into the left atrium.

True
False

The superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and the coronary sinus empty into the left atrium.

True
False

Ventricular fibrillation is a condition of rapid and irregular contractions of the ventricles.

True
False

Ventricular fibrillation is a condition of rapid and irregular contractions of the ventricles.

True
False

The "discharging" chambers of the heart are the ventricles.

True
False

The "discharging" chambers of the heart are the ventricles.

True
False

The blood vessels that carry blood to and from the body tissues form the pulmonary circuit.

True
False

The blood vessels that carry blood to and from the body tissues form the pulmonary circuit.

True
False

The aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves prevent backflow of blood into the associated ventricles.

True
False

The aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves prevent backflow of blood into the associated ventricles.

True
False

Cardiac output (CO) is the amount of blood pumped out by each ventricle each time the heart beats.

True
False

Cardiac output (CO) is the amount of blood pumped out by each ventricle each time the heart beats.

True
False

When the ventricles are in systole, the atria are in diastole.

True
False

When the ventricles are in systole, the atria are in diastole.

True
False

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