NASM Mid Term - JJT

50 terms by Jostrider

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A client's shoulder elevates when perfoming a pushing assessment, what is a probable underactive muscle?

a. Lower trapezius
b. Upper trapezius
c. Sternocleidomastoid
d. Levator scapulae

a. Lower trapezius

A multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization is categorized as an exercise in which of the following?

a. Leg-power
b. Leg-stabilization
c. Balance-stabilization
d. Balance-power

d. Balance-power

A prolonged intolerable stressor that produces fatigue and leads to a breakdown in the system or injury is called?

a. Overworking
b. Alarm reaction
c. Exhaustion
d. Resistance development

c. Exhaustion

A seated cable row is an example of which level of training in the NASM OPT model?

a. Stabilization
b. Strength
c. Power
d. Reactive

b. Strength

Diastolic blood pressure represents which of the following?

a. The top number in the blood pressure reading
b. Pressure within the arterial system after the heart contracts
c. The larger of the two numbers
d. Pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood

d. Pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood

During the pushing assessment, you notice your client's shoulders elevate, what strengthening exercise would you perform with them?

a. Chin tuck
b. Quadruped arm/ opposite leg raise
c. Ball wall squats
d. Ball cobra

d. Ball cobra

For a client who demonstrates their low back arching as a movement compensation, which method of cardio would you initially avoid?

a. Treadmills
b. Bicycles
c. Elliptical trainers
d. Group exercise classes

b. Bicycles

How long does NASM suggest the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm-up should last?

a. 0-3 minutes
b. 3-5 minutes
c. 5-10 minutes
d. 10-15 minutes

c. 5-10 minutes

How long does pressure need to be held on the tender spot while using self-myofascial release?

a. 15 seconds minimum
b. 20 seconds minimum
c. 25 seconds minimum
d. 30 seconds minimum

d. 30 seconds minimum

If a client's feet turn out during the overhead squat assessment, what muscle would be considered underactive?

a. Soleus
b. Biceps femoris (short head)
c. Medial gastrocnemius
d. TFL

c. Medial gastrocnemius

In a client with lower crossed syndrome, which of the following muscles is lengthened?

a. Gastrocnemius
b. Soleus
c. Internal oblique
d. Erector spinae

c. Internal oblique

In a client with upper crossed syndrome, which of the following muscles is shortened?

a. Scalenes
b. Rhomboids
c. Teres minor
d. Deep cervical flexors

a. Scalenes

Increasing weight with each set is an example of which type of resistance-training system?

a. Multiple set
b. Pyramid
c. Circuit training
d. Vertical loading

b. Pyramid

The gluteus maximus is responsible for which of the following?

a. Concentrically accelerating hip abduction and internal rotation
b. Concentrically accelerating hip abduction and external rotation
c. Concentrically accelerating hip extension and internal rotation
d. Concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation

d. Concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation

The latissimus dorsi is responsible for concentrically accelerating which of the following movements?

a. Shoulder flexion, abduction, and external rotation
b. Shoulder extension, adduction, and external rotation
c. Shoulder flexion, abduction, and internal rotation
d. Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation

d. Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation

The tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns is known as:

a. Relative flexibility
b. Corrective flexibility
c. Dynamic flexibility
d. Active flexibility

a. Relative flexibility

What assessment is used to assess upper extremity agility and stability?

a. Shark skill
b. Upper extremity strength
c. Davies
d. Overhead squat

c. Davies

What effect do beta-blockers have on a client's blood pressure?

a. No effect
b. Decrease
c. Increase
d. Outside scope of practice for personal trainer

b. Decrease

What exercise is considered a total-body strength level exercise?

a. Squat, curl, to two-arm press
b. Two- arm push press
c. Barbell clean
d. Multiplanar step-up to balance, curl, to overhead press

a. Squat, curl, to two-arm press

What is a potential drawback to the horizontal loading system?

a. Useful for hypertrophy phase only
b. The amount of time typically spent resting can add up to more time than the workout
c. Less effective when compared to vertical loading
d. Not possible to use a full body workout with horizontal loading

b. The amount of time typically spent resting can add up to more time than the workout

What is the appropriate percentage to increase after each set when performing an upper extremity strength assessment?

a. 1%-2%
b. 5%-10%
c. 10%-15%
d. 15%-20%

b. 5%-10%

What is the best time of day to have your client measure their resting heart rate?

a. Right before bed
b. Right before workout
c. Just after workout
d. Upon waking in the morning

d. Upon waking in the morning

What is the immediate progression of an alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press?

a. Two-arm ball dumbbell chest press
b. Barbell bench press
c. Alternating-arm dumbbell chest press on bench
d. Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press

d. Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press

What is the most appropriate heart rate percentage range for a client just starting into zone 3?

a. 75-79%
b. 80-85%
c. 86-90%
d. 91-94%

c. 86-90%

What is the next immediate progression for the ball two-arm dumbbell chest press?

a. Two-arm dumbbell chest press on a bench
b. Single-leg ball dumbbell chest press
c. Alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press
d. Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press

c. Alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press

What type of exercise is a single-leg power step-up categorized as?

a. Plyometric-strength
b. Leg-strength
c. Plyometric-power
d. SAQ

c. Plyometric-power

When a client is performing the overhead squat assessment from the lateral view, which of the following kinetic chain checkpoints are you observing?

a. Feet and knees
b. Lumbo pelvic hip complex, feet, and knees
c. Lumbo pelvic hip complex and shoulder complex
d. Feet, knees, and shoulder complex

c. Lumbo pelvic hip complex and shoulder complex

When determining a client's heart rate for zone 2, which equation would you use?

a. (200 - Clients age) x (65% and 75%)
b. (200 - Clients age) x (76% and 85%)
c. (220 - Clients age) x (76% and 85%)
d. (220 - Clients age) x (65% and 75%)

c. (220 - Clients age) x (76% and 85%)

When first starting out with a brand new client, which of the following training systems is most appropriate?

a. Circuit training
b. Single set
c. Split set
d. Multiple set

b. Single set

When performing a peripheral heart action workout for strength, immediately after a barbell squat, which exercise would you perform?

a. Romanian deadlift
b. Squat Jump
c. Seated row
d. Single-leg cable row

c. Seated row

When performing a single-leg squat assessment, if the knee moves inward, what is a probable overactive muscle?

a. Gluteus medius
b. Adductor complex
c. Medial gastrocnemius
d. Vastus medialis oblique (VMO)

b. Adductor complex

When performing the overhead squat assessment, your client's arms fall forward, which muscle would be considered most likely overactive?

a. Rhomboids
b. Supraspinatus
c. Teres major
d. Teres minor

c. Teres major

When performing the single-leg dumbbell scaption, what is the immediate regression?

a. Single-leg, alternating arm
b. Single-leg, single-arm
c. Two legs
d. Seated

c. Two legs

When training for balance, exercises that involve dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion are categorized as which of the following?

a. Balance-power
b. Balance-strength
c. Balance-stabilization
d. Balance-plyometric

b. Balance-strength

When training for speed, agility, and quickness, the foot and ankle complex should be in which of the following positions when it hits the ground?

a. Pointing straight ahead and dorsiflexed
b. Externally rotated and dorsiflexed
c. Internally rotated and plantar flexed
d. Pointing straight ahead and planar flexed

a. Pointing straight ahead and dorsiflexed

When training in Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance, what is the main method of progression?

a. Increasing speed of movement
b. Increasing proprioception
c. Increasing volume
d. Increasing load

b. Increasing proprioception

Which muscle is responsible for concentrically accelerating plantar flexion?

a. Semitendinosis
b. Anterior tibialis
c. Gastrocnemius
d. Bicep femoris

c. Gastrocnemius

Which of the following core exercises is appropriate for a new client?

a. Floor prone cobra
b. Ball crunch
c. Reverse crunch
d. Cable rotation

a. Floor prone cobra

Which of the following exercises is considered a back-stabilization exercise?

a. Seated cable row
b. Standing cable row
c. Medicine ball pull over throw
d. Seated lat pull down

b. Standing cable row

Which of the following exercises is the best example of a stabilization level exercise?

a. Lunge to two-arm press
b. Multiplanar step-up to balance, curl, to overhead press
c. Barbell squat
d. Squat jumps to stabilization

b. Multiplanar step-up to balance, curl, to overhead press

Which of the following is an appropriate speed, agility, and quickness drill?

a. Tuck jump
b. One-ins
c. Ice skaters
d. Power step-ups

b. One-ins

Which of the following is characterized by flat feet and adducted and internally rotated knees?

a. Pronation distortion syndrome
b. Lower crossed syndrome
c. Upper crossed syndrome
d. Lower extremity movement syndrome

a. Pronation distortion syndrome

Which of the following is considered a core power exercise?

a. Cable rotation
b. Back extension
c. Rotation chest pass
d. Marching

c. Rotation chest pass

Which of the following is considered subjective information?

a. Taking radial pulse
b. Lifestyle questions
c. Overhead squat assessment
d. Circumference measurements

b. Lifestyle questions

Which of the following is the best example of zone 3 cardio?

a. 3 rep bench press max
b. Sprinting
c. Fast walking
d. Group exercise class

b. Sprinting

Which of the following muscles is considered part of the global stabilization system?

a. Internal oblique
b. External oblique
c. Diaphragm
d. Hip flexors

b. External oblique

Which of the following training systems can be just as beneficial as traditional forms of cardiorespiratory training?

a. Pyramid
b. Supersets
c. Circuit training
d. Vertical loading

c. Circuit training

You have a client working in Phase 3: Hypertrophy, what type of flexibility would you use?

a. Self-myofascial release and dynamic stretching
b. Self-myofascial release only
c. Self-myofascial release and static stretching
d. Self-myofascial release and active-isolated stretching

d. Self-myofascial release and active-isolated stretching

You observe that your client's knee moves inward during the single-leg squat assessment; what muscle would you foam roll and static stretch?

a. TFL
b. Glute medius
c. VMO
d. Medial hamstring

a. TFL

What zone would a client start in if they had an average score on the YMCA step test?

a. Zone 1
b. Zone 2
c. Zone 3
d. Zone 4

b. Zone 2

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