BIO 206 (Test 2) Ch. 13-17

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1. The resting potential of a particular nerve cell is -66 mV. Depolarization of the membrane will shift the membrane potential toward
A) -90 mV.
B) -66 mV.
C) 40 mV.
D) There will be no change.
E) There is not enough information to tell.

C) 40 mV

2. Of all of the ions associated with generating the resting membrane potential, the permeability of the membrane to ________ is the most important.
A) sodium ions
B) potassium ions
C) chloride ions
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

B) potassium ions

3. In the graph above, the point at which the potassium channels open is indicated by the letter
A) A.
B) B.
C) C.
D) D.
E) E.

C) C.

4. Based on the graph above, the threshold voltage appears to be approximately
A) 60 mV.
B) 30 mV.
C) 0 mV.
D) -30 mV.
E) -60 mV.

E) -60 mV.

5. Based on the graph above, after approximately what period of time could another impulse be propagated?
A) 1 msec
B) 2 msec
C) 3 msec
D) 4 msec
E) immediately following the first stimulation

D) 4 msec (or C?)

6. In the graph above, at what point in the action potential will the sodium channels be opened?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E

B) B (or A?)

7. The parts of the graph indicated at points C, D, and E represent
A) depolarization.
B) hyperpolarization.
C) the refractory period.
D) repolarization.
E) sodium channel activity.

C) the refractory period (or E?)

8. Refer to the graph above. At the same time that the stimulus was introduced, a drug that specifically inhibits sodium channels was added to the system. The effect this would have is that the membrane would
A) not depolarize.
B) depolarize for the first impulse but not for a second one.
C) not be able to repolarize.
D) repolarize, but would not for a second impulse.
E) none of the above

A) not depolarize.

9. The technique that allows one to record ion currents passing through individual channels is known as
A) voltage-gating.
B) ligand-gating.
C) patch-clamping.
D) ion sensors.
E) ionophores.

C) patch-clamping.

10. You stimulate a neuron response by adding a given amount of excitatory neurotransmitter mixed with a 6x higher concentration of an inhibitory neurotransmitter to the synaptic cleft. You expect that
A) excitatory responses will travel 1/6 as often as inhibitory ones.
B) inhibitory responses will travel 1/6 as often as excitatory ones.
C) as a result of neuronal integration, there will be an inhibitory signal.
D) as a result of neuronal integration, there will be an excitatory signal.
E) the neuron will be confused and will not respond to the signal.

??? C?

11. Which neurotransmitter is not an amino acid derivative?
A) GABA
B) serotonin
C) histamine
D) dopamine
E) acetylcholine

E) acetylcholine

12. Which of the following drugs interferes with the reuptake of neurotransmitters in order to have its desired clinical effect?
A) Valium
B) Librium
C) pyridostigmine
D) Prozac
E) acetaminophen

D) Prozac

13. Which of the following statements about action potentials is false? (Ch. 13.
A) Electrical signals are propagated from the cell body to the end of the dendrite
B) They require rapid changes in membrane potential.
C) Due to leaking, membranes are subject to subthreshold depolarization, which is insufficient to produce the action potential.
D) At the end of the action potential, most neurons show a transient hyperpolarization.
E) A refractory period is always necessary following an action potential.

A) Electrical signals are propagated from the cell body to the end of the dendrite

14. An example of an inhibitory neurotransmitter is
A) acetylcholine.
B) epinephrine.
C) dopamine.
D) GABA.
E) insulin.

D) GABA.

15. The stimulus for secretion of neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft is an increase in
A) potassium levels.
B) chloride levels.
C) sodium levels.
D) calcium levels.
E) neurotransmitter levels.

D) calcium levels.

16. You stimulate a neuron response by adding a given amount of excitatory neurotransmitter mixed with a 6x higher concentration of an inhibitory neurotransmitter to the synaptic cleft. You expect that
A) excitatory responses will travel 1/6 as often as inhibitory ones.
B) inhibitory responses will travel 1/6 as often as excitatory ones.
C) as a result of neuronal integration, there will be an inhibitory signal.
D) as a result of neuronal integration, there will be an excitatory signal.
E) the neuron will be confused and will not respond to the signal.

??? C?

17. Exposure to sarin, a potent nerve gas, results in muscle paralysis. Therefore, sarin must interfere with which neurotransmitter?
A) serotonin
B) GABA
C) dopamine
D) enkephalins
E) glutamate

???

18. Mulple sclerosis is a result of
A) the absence of myelin on nerve cells
B) excess amounts of myelin on nerve cells
C) an immune system attack on nerve fibers
D) blocking the nodes on Ranvier
E) having excess acetylcholine receptors

A) the absence of myelin on nerve cells

19. When nitric oxide is used in the dilation of smooth muscle cells, which of the following would interfere with the relaxation of the smooth muscle cells? Inhibitors of
A) calcium release by the ER.
B) nitric oxide.
C) guanylyl cyclase.
D) calmodulin.
E) all of the above

E) all of the above

20. Which of the following statements concerning the properties of ligands for intracellular receptor systems is correct?
A) Steroids are produced from cholesterol.
B) Changes in the composition of your diet can affect the concentration of some of these ligands in your body.
C) Some ligands are bound to specific proteins when carried in the blood.
D) both choices A and C
E) choices A, B, and C

E) choices A, B, and C (Double Check)

21. Hydrophobic messengers include which of the following?
A) retinoids
B) cAMP
C) pertussis toxin
D) calcium ions
E) ryanodine

A) retinoids

22. All of the following are second messengers except
A) calcium ions.
B) IP3.
C) DAG.
D) cameleons.
E) PDGF.

D) cameleons

23. You add a large amount of an unknown compound called XFF (X-file factor) to cultured liver cells. Which of the following might you observe if XFF can bind to human epinephrine receptors ?
A) increased cell division
B) decreased proteins synthesis
C) glycogen breakdown
D) glucose-6-phosphate polymerization
E) all of the above

C) glycogen breakdown

24. Which of the following would be characterized as a juxtacrine signal?
A) signaling to adjacent cells
B) endocrine
C) self-responding
D) distal neighbors
E) both choices B and D

A) signaling to adjacent cells

25. After determining which preparation contained an unknown receptor you name XFF receptor, you wish to determine the properties of the ligand receptor. Using a radioactive XFF, you wish to determine if the properties are similar to that of epinephrine and the epinephrine receptor. If so, you expect to find the radioactive XFF
A) within the cell.
B) associated with the ER.
C) on the cell surface.
D) associated with mitochondria.
E) in the nucleus.

C) on the cell surface.

26. G protein-adenyl cyclase activity has been shown, in some cases, to be associated with certain diseases. In the case of cholera, which of the following is not correct?
A) Vibrio cholera bacteria colonize the gut.
B) Cholera toxin is secreted by Vibrio cholera bacteria.
C) The cholera toxin causes the cells of the gut to take in salts and fluids.
D) Cholera toxin alters Gs so that it no longer hydrolyzes GTP.
E) The toxin, by altering Gs, keeps intracellular cAMP levels high and doesn't allow them to

C) The cholera toxin causes the cells of the gut to take in salts and fluids.

27. Which of the following statements is false with regard to G-protein coupled receptors (GPCRs)?
A) GPCRs can interact with specific receptor interacting proteins to modify ligand affinity.
B) Adenylate cyclase is activated.
C) Phosphodiesterase creates v cAMP molecules in response to moderate cAMP levels.
D) Protein Kinase A is activated by cAMP.
E) cAMP signals for its own degradation indirectly.

???

28. With regard to hormones, responses occurring over the shortest distance would be classified as
A) paracrine.
B) endocrine.
C) autocrine.
D) juxtacrine.
E) All of the above choices work over similar distances.

A) paracrine.

29. You are testing a drug that might be marketed as an anti-inflammatory agent. It would be a good choice if it possessed which of the following responses?
A) stimulates the release of prostaglandins
B) blocks adenylate cyclase activity
C) blocks an enzyme associated with arachidonic acid production
D) stimulates the activation of platelets
E) all of the above

C) blocks an enzyme associated with arachidonic acid production

30. Which of the following signaling proteins is specifically associated with development in animals?
A) Hedgehog
B) Zbtb7
C) Ryanodine
D) calcium-dependent protein phosphorylases
E) protein kinase A

???

31. Kinases and phosphatases are essential in the cell because they
A) help turn proteins "on and off" through changes in phosphorylation status.
B) are enzymes that destroy damaged proteins.
C) sense short poly-A tails in mRNA as a signal to degrade the mRNA.
D) destroy second messengers, thereby turning off a signal transduction pathway.
E) all of the above

A) help turn proteins "on and off" through changes in phosphorylation status.

32. The kinase central to second messenger signaling based cAMP is
A) protein kinase A.
B) ATPase.
C) Avastin kinase.
D) phosphorylase A.
E) RNase PH.

A) protein kinase A. ?

33. Which of the following are associated with the binding of numerous signaling molecules and regulating their responses in multi-enzyme complexes?
A) MAP kinase
B) 14-3-3 proteins
C) growth factor complexes
D) alpha-factor
E) G-protein activating protein

?

34. You have recently identified a molecule that you believe to be a ligand associated with a signal transduction mechanism. All you know about this ligand is that chemically it is hydrophilic. As a result, you expect it to interact with its receptor
A) at the outer cell surface.
B) within the cytoplasm of the cell.
C) within the nucleus of the cell.
D) on the cytoplasmic side of the plasma membrane.
E) all of the above

A) at the outer cell surface.

35. You wish to determine if cytosolic calcium fluxes are associated with signal transduction in a particular cell type. One means of observing the calcium fluxes would be to utilize
A) caspases.
B) cytochrome c.
C) nitric oxide.
D) radioactive cAMP.
E) cameleons.

E) cameleons.

36. IP3 binds to receptors on ________________ to release calcium ion into the cytoplasm
A) plasma membranes.
B) intracellular membranes.
C) mitochondrial membranes.
D) ER membranes.
E) lysosomes.

D) ER membranes.

37. Kinases are enzymes that______________ and phosphatases are enzymes that __________
A) add water; remove water
B) add phosphate groups; remove phosphate groups.
C) are always stimulatory; are always inhibitory.
D) B and C are correct
E) all of the above

B) add phosphate groups; remove phosphate groups. [is correct. What about the others?] ???

38. Which of the following ligands would not have an intracellular receptor?
A) cortisol
B) testosterone
C) thyroxine
D) epinephrine
E) progesterone

D) epinephrine

39. Which of the following statements regarding the Ras protein is false?
A) Ras is monomeric.
B) It is regulated by GTPase activating proteins.
C) The ligands are largely steroid hormones.
D) It is regulated by Sos, a guanine nucleotide exchange factor.
E) Ras activates a cascade of phosphorylation events.

B, C, D ??? [Not A and E, they are True]

40. Which of the following statements is false with regard to G-protein coupled receptors (GPCRs)?
A) GPCRs can interact with specific receptor interacting proteins to modify ligand affinity.
B) Adenylate cyclase is activated.
C) Phosphodiesterase creates v cAMP molecules in response to moderate cAMP levels.
D) Protein Kinase A is activated by cAMP.
E) cAMP signals for its own degradation indirectly.

???

41. Which of the following is not a receptor tyrosine kinase?
A) Epidermal growth factor (EGF)
B) Platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)
C) Transforming growth factor  (TGF)
D) Fibroblast growth factor (FGF)
E) Colony-stimulating factor-1(CSF-1)

C) Transforming growth factor  (TGF)

42. Which of the following is not a function of the cytoskeleton?
A) cell movement
B) cell division
C) moving of organelles
D) intracellular vesicular transport
E) passive transport of water into the cell

E) passive transport of water into the cell

43. Microfilament has a diameter of about ___________ and Microtubules have an outer diameter of ________.
A) 25 mm; 25 mm
B) 8 nm; 25 nm
C) 25 nm; 30 nm
D) 25 nm; 8 nm
E) 20 mm; 14 mm

B) 8 nm; 25 nm

44. Microfilaments function in
A) muscle contraction.
B) cytoplasmic streaming.
C) cell division.
D) maintenance of cellular shape in animal cells.
E) all of the above

E) all of the above

45. Which of the following is/are cellular activities associated with microtubules?
A) maintenance of axons
B) cell shape
C) orientation of cellulose microfibrils
D) mititotic spindle
E) all of the above

E) all of the above

46. Intermediate filaments
A) can be composed of the protein vimentin.
B) are compared of G-actin monomers.
C) are composed of α-and β-tubulin.
D) are 700 nm in diameter.
E) all of the above

A) can be composed of the protein vimentin.

47. Elongation of the microtubule occurs by the (Ch. 15, See Figure 15-3)
A) addition of tubulin subunits to (-) end only .
B) addition of tubulin subunits to the (+) end only
C) addition of the tubulin subunits to the (+) end but removal from the (-) end.
D) addition of the tubulin subnits to both (+) and (-)end.
E) addition of G-actin subunits to (+) end but removal from the (-) end

D) addition of the tubulin subnits to both (+) and (-)end.

48. Tubulin may assemble and disassemble simultaneously in a process known as
A) dynamic instability.
B) treadmilling.
C) microtubule organizing.
D) MAP motoring.
E) actin-regulated assembly.

B) treadmilling

49. The minus (-) ends of microtubules are often anchored at the ________________ , such that the dynamics associated with microtubules is at the plus (+) ends.
A) centriole
B) centrosome
C) plasma membrane
D) centromere
E) mitochondrial outer membrane

B) centrosome

50. Axonemal microtubules
A) are highly disorganized and very unstable.
B) may be loosely associated with basal bodies.
C) are organized around a central shaft or axoneme.
D) are required to maintain axons.
E) all of the above

??? B?

51. ________ causes microtubules to form tight bundles in nerve cells.
A) Dynein
B) Actin
C) Tau
D) Kinesis
E) Tubulin

C) Tau

52. Which of the following proteins is associated with the precise control of where microtubules form and depolymerize?
A) Tau
B) stathmin/Op18
C) kinesin
D) catastrophins
E) MAP 2

D) catastrophins

53. Ring-shaped complexes in the centrosome contain ________ in combination with ________.
A) α-tubulin; cilium (No--Ch. 15. Part 1. Slide 46)
B) α-tubulin; γ-tubulin
C) β-tubulin; tubulin GTP
D) γ-tubulin; pericentrin
E) γ-tubulin; tubulin GTP

E) γ-tubulin; tubulin GTP ?

54. Capping proteins such as CapZ
A) cause microtubules to lengthen.
B) destabilize microtubules.
C) stabilize microtubules.
D) cause microtubules branching.
E) connect microtubules to microfilaments.

C) stabilize microtubules.

55. All of the following are roles of microfilaments except
A) mitotic spindle formation.
B) muscle cell contraction.
C) amoeboid movement.
D) cytoplasmic streaming.
E) cell migration.

C) amoeboid movement. ?

56. The microtubule-organizing center (MTOC)
A) serves as a site for microtubule and microfilament assembly.
B) acts as an anchor for both ends of the microtubule.
C) is associated with two centrioles in plant cells.
D) is called a centrosome during interphase.
E) is positioned near the cell membrane

D) is called a centrosome during interphase.

57. One of the following drugs blocks cell division because it stabilizes the microtubules. What is this drug, and for what is it used?
A) vincristine; bacterial infections
B) vinblastine; antimitotic therapy
C) taxol; breast cancer
D) nocodazole; allergies
E) benzimidazole; hypertension treatment

C) taxol; breast cancer

58. F-actin filaments
A) are composed of four linear strands.
B) are composed of polymerized G-actin monomers wound around each other in a helix.
C) are oriented similar to DNA, with strands helical and antiparallel to one another.
D) are composed of G-actin dimers.
E) polymerize at the same rate in both directions from both ends of the filament.

B) are composed of polymerized G-actin monomers wound around each other in a helix.

59. Which of the following intermediate filament proteins is incorrectly matched with the tissue in which it is found?
A) cytokeratins-epithelial
B) desmin-smooth muscle
C) vimentin-mesenchymal
D) nestin-connective
E) GFA protein-nervous

?

60. ________ resist tensile forces and contain keratin to form the protective barrier of the skin.
A) Intermediate filaments
B) Microtubules
C) Microfilaments
D) Actin filaments
E) Keratin-associated filaments

A) Intermediate filaments

61. Activation of which of the following is associated with the formation of focal adhesions and stress fibers?
A) Rho
B) Ras
C) Cdk-42
D) intermediate filaments
E) γ-tubulin

?

62. Which of the following drugs disrupt microtubules and can used for chemotherapy?
A) cytochalasin D
B) vincristine
C) tubulin
D) latrunculin A
E) Phallodin

B) vincristine

63. Rho GTPases have the all of the following effects on cytoskeletal actin except
A) stress fiber formation.
B) formation of pseudopodia.
C) stabilization of neurons.
D) assembly of the cytokinetic furrow.
E) regulation of endocytosis and exocytosis.

?

64. Which of the following about the current model of muscle contraction is correct ?
A) myosin binds calcium.
B) titin binds calcium.
C) actin has ATPase activity.
D) myosin has ATPase activity.
E) actin and myosin have the same molecular weight.

?

65. Which of the following major protein components of skeletal muscle is incorrectly matched with its function?
A) titin-links thick filaments at Z line
B) nebulin-links thin filaments at Z line
C) myomesin-myosin binding protein present at M line
D) troponin-binds along the length of the thin filaments and covers myosin binding sites
E) actin-major component of thin filaments

D) troponin-binds along the length of the thin filaments and covers myosin binding sites

66. All of the following are moved by molecular motors except
A) secretory vesicles.
B) cytoskeletal filaments.
C) the Golgi complex.
D) glucose.
E) chloroplasts.

?

67. Striated muscle has light and dark bands. The light bands are called ________, whereas the dark bands are called ________.
A) Z lines; M lines
B) H zones; M zones
C) A bands; I bands
D) I bands; A bands
E) M lines; A bands

D) I bands; A bands

68. In relaxed muscle, calcium is found in high concentration in the
A) myofibril.
B) T tubules.
C) sacroplasmic reticulum.
D) sarcolemma.
E) neuromuscular junction.

?

69. All of the following are actin-dependent nonmuscle motility except
A) translocation of multienzyme complexes.
B) pinching off of the cleavage furrow in cytokinesis.
C) chemotaxis.
D) cyclosis or cytoplasmic streaming.
E) amoeboid movement.

?

70. Calcium-calmodulin complexes ultimately mediate the phosphorylation of myosin in which of the following cells?
A) smooth muscle
B) cardiac muscle
C) neurons
D) pacemaker
E) skeletal muscle

A) smooth muscle

71. In addition to microtubule motor proteins, ________ are also involved in vesicular transport.
A) nonmuscle myosins
B) actin
C) tubulin
D) leptin
E) dyesins

A) nonmuscle myosins

72. The calcium pump or calcium ATPase in skeletal muscles
A) is responsible for removing calcium from the T tubule.
B) increases the level of calcium in the axon terminal.
C) does not need energy to operate.
D) removes calcium from the sarcoplasm and pump it back to the sacroplasmic reticulum
E) increases bone density.

?

73. Muscle contraction occurs in a cyclic process. Which of the following sequences is in the correct order?
A) power stroke, cross bridge formation, cross bridge dissociation, cocking of myosin
B) cross bridge formation, power stroke, cross bridge dissociation, cocking of myosin
C) cross bridge formation, cocking of myosin, power stroke, cross bridge dissociation
D) cross bridge formation, cross bridge dissociation, cocking of myosin, power stroke
E) cross bridge formation, power stroke, cross bridge dissociation, power stroke, cocking of myosin

B) cross bridge formation, power stroke, cross bridge dissociation, cocking of myosin

74. Which of the following process(es) requires energy in the form of ATP hydrolysis ?
A) power stroke
B) cross bridge formation
C) cocking of myosin
D) cross bridge dissociation
E) all of the above

B requires ATP hydrolysis, but what about the others???

75. Dyneins are
A) proteins associated with intermediate filament.
B) associated with cilia and flagella.
C) monomeric myosin-like proteins.
D) responsible for anterograde transport.
E) all of the above

B is True but what about the others???

76. Which of the following is associated with retrograde movement in fast axonal transport?
A) dynein
B) actin
C) tubulin
D) myosin
E) kinesin

A) dynein

77. Kinesin is a motor molecule that is characterized by
A) activation of sliding in flagellar microtubules.
B) sliding along actin in sarcomere.
C) motion toward the "plus" end of the microtubule.
D) motion along actin filaments.
E) motion toward the "minus" end of the microtubule.

C) motion toward the "plus" end of the microtubule.

78. All of the following are examples of nonmuscle motility and contractility except
A) microsome formation.
B) pseudopodia formation.
C) cytoplasmic streaming.
D) actin polymerization of Listeria.
E) phagocytosis.

?

79. You wish to inhibit the contraction of muscle in vitro as a control for an experiment you are conducting. To do this, which of the following would you use?
A) colchicine
B) ATPase inhibitors
C) vinblastin
D) taxol
E) serotonin

?

80. A calcium-binding protein that aids in the activation of many enzymes, including myosin light-chain kinase, is
A) calcium phosphorylase.
B) activase.
C) calmodulin.
D) myosin light-chain phosphatase.
E) junctional complex.

?

81. Specialized hair cells that contain special actin-rich sensory structures called __________ are located within the organ of Corti in the cochlea of the ear These cilia have a _____ arrangement
A) connecting cilia; " 9+2" arrangement
B) primary cilia; " 9+0" arrangement
C) stereocilia; "9+2"
D) undulipodia "9+4"
E) seondary cilia; "9+2" arrangement

B) primary cilia; " 9+0" arrangement

82. To carry out their function, kinesin family proteins must attach to their respective
A) dynein.
B) cargo.
C) adaptor proteins.
D) only choices B and C
E) choices A, B, and C

B is True but what about A and C???

83. The neuromuscular junction is incorrectly described in which of the following statements?
A) Neurotransmitters are stored in vesicles in the axon terminal.
B) The sarcolemma is the plasma membrane of a muscle cell.
C) Acetylcholine release is triggered by release of Cl- ion
D) T tubules carry action potentials into the muscle cell.
E) Acetylcholine binding allows sodium ions to enter the muscle cell.

C) Acetylcholine release is triggered by release of Cl- ion

84. Which of the following characteristics is not associated with cardiac muscle?
A) intercalated discs
B) contracts spontaneously
C) involuntary contractions
D) lack of actin
E) striations

D) lack of actin

85. Which of the following cell junctions are associated with the proper alignment of intestinal epithelial cells?
A) gap junctions
B) adhesive junctions
C) tight junctions
D) desmosomes
E) all of the above

C) tight junctions

86. In animal cells, the extracellular matrix plays important roles in all of the following processes except
A) cell division.
B) motility.
C) DNA replication.
D) differentiation.
E) adhesion.

C) DNA replication.

87. Which of the following is not associated with adhesive junctions?
A) desmosomes
B) hemidesmosomes
C) plaques
D) connexin
E) cadherins

D) connexin

88. Which of the following activities is not associated with cadherins?
A) segregation of cells to specific tissues
B) intracellular transport
C) embryonic development
D) establishment of synaptic connections
E) loss of activity associated with cancer

B) intracellular transport

89. A patient is rushed to the emergency room and immediately needs a blood transfusion. The patient is found to have only anti-A antibodies in circulation. The blood type of this individual must be (Ch. 17. Slide 23-4)
A) A.
B) B.
C) AB.
D) O
E) Cannot be determined

B) B.

90. Paracellular transport is associated with which of the following?
A) adherens junctions
B) integrins
C) desmosomes
D) tight junctions
E) hemidesmosomes

D) tight junctions

91. You are investigating cell localization by targeting the carbohydrates associated with various cell types. Based on this molecule's ability to bind various carbohydrates, which of the following would help determine which carbohydrates are found on the cell surface?
A) cadherins
B) proteoglycans
C) pectins
D) connexins
E) lectins

E) lectins (?)

92. Which of the following is not associated with the basal lamina?
A) serves as a structural support
B) allows for movement of some small molecules
C) can influence cell migrations in certain areas of the body
D) contains collagen type IV, proteoglycans, laminins, and entactin
E) contains a network of actin filament

E) contains a network of actin filament

93. Claudins are associated with which of the following types of cellular junctions?
A) gap junctions
B) tight junctions
C) plasmodesmata
D) adhesive junctions
E) none of the above

B) tight junctions

94. Connexons are associated with which of the following types of cellular junctions?
A) gap junctions
B) tight junctions
C) plasmodesmata
D) adhesive junctions
E) none of the above

A) gap junctions

95. The molecule of the extracellular matrix of animal cells that is associated with joint lubrication and friction reduction is
A) glycosaminoglycan.
B) proteoglycan.
C) hyaluronate.
D) pectin.
E) fibronectin.

C) hyaluronate

96. The type of cellular junction prominent in the kidney is the
A) plasmodesmata.
B) gap junction.
C) adhesive junction.
D) tight junction.
E) laminin junction.

D) tight junction

97. In performing research, you treat frog zygotes with antibodies that bind E-cadherin. As a result, you expect
A) the cells to become exclusively muscle tissue.
B) the cells to be loosely associated and abort development.
C) the cells to be loosely associated and develop into a novel strain of frog.
D) the cells to divide uncontrollably.
E) no change with regard to development.

B) the cells to be loosely associated and abort development. (?)

98. Hemidesomes connects a cell to ________ outside the cell and to ________ inside the cell
A) another cell, actin filament
B) another cell, intermediate filament
C) the basal lamina, actin filament
D) the basal lamina, intermediate filament
E) all of the above are correct

D) the basal lamina, intermediate filament (???)

99. Which of the following molecules help white blood cells attach to the endothelial wall ?
A) P-selectin
B) E-selectin
C) connexin
D) claudins
E) both A and B

E) both A and B!

100. Which of the following are primarily responsible to binding cells to the extracellular matrix and guiding cellular movement?
A) collagen
B) elastin
C) fibronectin
D) integrin
E) desmoplakin

C) fibronectin

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