NUTRITION FINAL

Created by marcushunsicker 

Upgrade to
remove ads

326 terms

Which of the following hormones is most responsible for signaling satiety as well as reducing food intake during a meal?
A) Gastrin
B) Adipokines
C) Neuropeptide Y
D) Cholecystokinin

D) Cholecystokinin

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of satiety or satiation?
A) Satiety suppresses hunger
B) Satiation signals the cessation of eating
C) Satiation develops as food enters the GI tract
D) Satiety but not hunger may be overridden by stress

D) Satiety but not hunger may be overridden by stress

What method is used to measure the amount of heat given off by the body?
A) Bomb calorimetry
B) Basal calorimetry
C) Direct calorimetry
D) Indirect calorimetry

C) Direct calorimetry

Which of the following does NOT decrease the metabolic rate?
A) Fever
B) Fasting
C) Sleeping
D) Malnutrition

A) Fever

The weight of the body less the fat content is known as the
A) cherubic index.
B) lean body mass.
C) body mass index.
D) ideal body weight.

B) lean body mass.

Jenny is 34 years old and has a BMI of 28. Her body type could be described as "pear-like." John is 55 years old with a BMI of 28, and a body type that is "apple-like." Why is John more likely than Jenny to be at risk for degenerative diseases?
A) He is male
B) He is older
C) He weighs more
D) He has central obesity

D) He has central obesity

Which of the following is a characteristic of chronic inflammation?
A) It increases the risk for obesity by 50%
B) It is associated with the development of metabolic syndrome
C) It is commonly found in people with a BMI less than 24
D) It enhances insulin sensitivity leading to periodic bouts of hypoglycemia

B) It is associated with the development of metabolic syndrome

What term best describes a failure of the body's cells to respond to secretion of insulin?
A) Central obesity
B) Insulin resistance
C) Thyroid insufficiency
D) Hypothalamic impedance

B) Insulin resistance

All of the following are typical characteristics of amenorrhea EXCEPT
A) infertility.
B) bone mineral loss.
C) muscle dysmorphia.
D) low blood estrogen.

C) muscle dysmorphia.

Which of the following is characteristic of the eating pattern of people with bulimia nervosa?
A) Binge eating usually occurs during the daytime
B) Binge eating is frequently done at restaurant buffets
C) Binge eating typically occurs after a period of strict dieting
D) A binge eating episode is usually completed within 20 minutes

C) Binge eating typically occurs after a period of strict dieting

As a new assistant in a weight-loss research laboratory, you are given a tour of the mouse laboratory. Why is the leptin-deficient mouse much larger than its leptin-sufficient counterpart?
A) Leptin deficiency causes lower levels of ghrelin
B) Leptin deficiency enhances appetite and decreases energy expenditure
C) Leptin deficiency causes psychological depression, which leads to increased food intake
D) Leptin deficiency reduces the desire to do physical activity, resulting in more excess energy available for fat storage

B) Leptin deficiency enhances appetite and decreases energy expenditure

Which of the following is a feature of weight-loss remedies?
A) Dietary supplements are not necessarily tested for safety or effectiveness
B) Body wraps and creams that have FDA approval are helpful for weight-reduction regimes
C) Sauna baths may reach temperatures high enough to melt visceral but not subcutaneous fat stores
D) Hot baths raise the metabolic rate by 5-10% for 1-2 hours and may serve as part of a general weight-loss program

A) Dietary supplements are not necessarily tested for safety or effectiveness

Which of the following is NOT a sensible guideline for diet plans?
A) Consume low-fat foods regularly
B) Eat rapidly to avoid prolonged contact with food
C) Adjust energy intake downward as weight loss progresses
D) Include vegetables, fruits, and grains as the mainstay of the diet

B) Eat rapidly to avoid prolonged contact with food

The feeling of satiety from weight-loss diets is best achieved by diets rich in
A) long-chain fats only.
B) short-chain fats only.
C) simple carbohydrates.
D) complex carbohydrates.

D) complex carbohydrates.

Which of the following describes a connection between physical activity and energy expenditure?
A) Walking a mile uses about the same energy as running a mile
B) Walking a mile uses about half as much energy as running a mile
C) Exercising the leg muscles is effective at burning away fat primarily around the thighs and hips
D) Exercising the abdominal muscles is effective at burning away fat primarily around the abdomen

A) Walking a mile uses about the same energy as running a mile

What is the principal reason that appetite is turned off immediately after a person finishes an intense workout?
A) The feeling of thirst overpowers the desire for food
B) The elevated blood lactate level antagonizes ghrelin
C) Glucose and fatty acids are still abundant in the blood
D) The senses of smell and taste are suppressed for at least one hour

C) Glucose and fatty acids are still abundant in the blood

Which of the following is NOT a feature of the effect of food accessibility on food intake?
A) Keeping food out of sight is an effective way to eat less
B) People underestimate the amount of a snack eaten when it is a short distance away
C) People eat more of a snack when it is on their desk than when situated only 6 feet away
D) People at home would rather travel to the store to obtain new food than eat the leftovers

D) People at home would rather travel to the store to obtain new food than eat the leftovers

Approximately what percentage of overweight people in the United States have NOT been successful at maintaining >10% weight loss for >1 year?
A) 5
B) 25
C) 55
D) 85

D) 85

Which of the following is generally NOT a strategy associated with successful weight loss efforts?
A) Eating breakfast
B) Weighing yourself infrequently
C) Consulting a support person or group
D) Limiting television viewing time to <10 hrs/week

B) Weighing yourself infrequently

Fad diets often produce weight loss, at least initially, because
A) they dictate the correct distribution of energy among the macronutrients.
B) they prevent rapid spikes and declines in one's blood glucose level.
C) they don't require people to count kcal, and are thus easier to stick to.
D) they are designed to limit energy intake to around 1200 kcal/day.

D) they are designed to limit energy intake to around 1200 kcal/day.

n an adult who gains 20 pounds of excess body weight, about how much of this is lean tissue?
A) 0 lbs
B) 2 lbs
C) 5 lbs
D) 10 lbs

C) 5 lbs

Which of the following represents an indirect measure of the amount of energy released from food?
A) The increase in heat given off when the food is burned
B) Quantity of oxygen consumed when the food is burned
C) Quantity of carbon dioxide consumed when the food is burned
D) The increase in heat retained by the food when it is slowly brought to 100° C

B) Quantity of oxygen consumed when the food is burned

The desire to eat a slice of chocolate cake after consuming a very large meal is an example of behavior known as
A) satiety.
B) hunger.
C) appetite.
D) pigging out.

C) appetite.

A person who eats in response to arousal is most likely experiencing
A) stress eating.
B) sensory influences.
C) physiological influences.
D) postabsorptive influences.

A) stress eating.

What is the approximate value for the thermic effect of a 2500-kcalorie diet?
A) 25 kcal
B) 250 kcal
C) 400 kcal
D) 500 kcal

B) 250 kcal

If a dancer and a typist are the same height and have the exact same body build, the dancer will be heavier because she has
A) more body fat.
B) stronger bones.
C) stronger muscles.
D) more muscle mass.

D) more muscle mass.

Waist circumference can best be used to assess
A) BMI.
B) total body water.
C) abdominal fat stores.
D) subcutaneous fat stores

C) abdominal fat stores.

8.
A high risk of weight-related health problems is seen in women whose waist circumference begins to exceed
A) 24 inches.
B) 28 inches.
C) 35 inches.
D) 42 inches.

C) 35 inches.

The major cause of insulin resistance is related to
A) low-protein diets.
B) high-protein diets.
C) excess body weight.
D) prolonged excess carbohydrate intake.

C) excess body weight.

What is the primary factor that differentiates bulimia nervosa from binge eating?
A) Purging is rarely practiced in binge-eating disorder
B) Higher rates of depression are reported in bulimia nervosa
C) More food is consumed at one setting in binge-eating disorders
D) Uncontrollable cravings for high-fat foods are seen only in bulimia nervosa

A) Purging is rarely practiced in binge-eating disorder

Which of the following is known to promote fat storage in adipocytes?
A) Glucagon
B) Lipoprotein lipase
C) Cellulite synthetase
D) Lipoprotein synthetase

B) Lipoprotein lipase

Which of the following is a feature of ghrelin?
A) It is a metabolic antagonist of leptin
B) It stimulates appetite and energy storage
C) The blood level in the fasting state correlates directly with body weight
D) It is released in high amounts from adipocytes during periods of excess energy intake

B) It stimulates appetite and energy storage

Which of the following is a characteristic of the body's major types of adipose tissue?
A) Very little brown fat is found in adults, whereas more is seen in infants
B) White adipose is especially important in infants as a moderator of temperature extremes
C) The uncoupled reactions in brown and white adipose are the result of LPL-induced hydrolysis of ATP
D) Among the three types of adipose, namely, white, yellow, and brown, the white adipocytes account for the greatest amount of heat expenditure

A) Very little brown fat is found in adults, whereas more is seen in infants

Which of the following is NOT one of the factors that meet the conditions for surgical intervention for weight loss in obese people?
A) BMI of at least 40
B) Absence of psychological problems
C) Ability to tolerate phendimetrazine, orlistat, or phentermine
D) Failure of diet and exercise to promote acceptable weight loss

C) Ability to tolerate phendimetrazine, orlistat, or phentermine

As a general rule, what minimum number of kcalories per day is necessary to ensure nutritional adequacy in an eating plan for reducing body weight in men?
A) 500
B) 800
C) 1200
D) 1600

D) 1600

What is the best approach to weight loss?
A) Avoid foods containing carbohydrates
B) Eliminate all fats from the diet and decrease water intake
C) Greatly increase protein intake to prevent body protein loss
D) Reduce daily energy intake and increase energy expenditure

D) Reduce daily energy intake and increase energy expenditure

An example of a behavior modification technique for weight control is to
A) feel guilty after you overeat.
B) keep a record of your eating habits.
C) always clean your plate when you eat.
D) have someone watch you to prevent overeating.

B) keep a record of your eating habits.

Approximately what percentage of overweight people who intentionally lose weight are able to maintain at least a 10% weight loss for at least one year?
A) 5
B) 17
C) 50
D) 85

B) 17

All of the following are meal-planning strategies for underweight people who desire to gain weight EXCEPT
A) they should eat at least 3 healthy meals daily.
B) they should eat meaty appetizers rather than salads.
C) they should refrain from between-meal snacking, especially energy drinks.
D) they should increase the amount of food consumed within the first 20 minutes of a meal.

C) they should refrain from between-meal snacking, especially energy drinks

The amount of energy that the body derives from foods is known as the
A) basal metabolism.
B) food combustion value.
C) bomb calorimetry value.
D) physiological fuel value.

D) physiological fuel value.

Which of the following is a feature of the basal metabolic rate (BMR)?
A) Fever decreases the BMR
B) Fasting increases the BMR
C) Pregnancy increases the BMR
D) Females have a higher BMR than males on a body weight basis

C) Pregnancy increases the BMR

An index of a person's weight in relation to height is called
A) body mass index.
B) height to weight index.
C) ideal body weight index.
D) desirable body weight index

A) body mass index.

Which of the following is a significant factor associated with interpretation of body composition values?
A) The values include fat and protein but not water
B) It is rare that sedentary, normal-weight people are overfat
C) It is possible that muscular people may be classified as overweight
D) Body composition can be accurately assessed by measuring body weight

C) It is possible that muscular people may be classified as overweight

What is the range of body fat content for normal-weight women?
A) 9-17%
B) 23-34%
C) 33-37%
D) 38-44%

B) 23-34%

Which of the following is a characteristic of excess intra-abdominal fat?
A) It is more common in women than men
B) It has been proven to be a poorer indicator of degenerative diseases than the BMI
C) Some (but not all) research suggests that it is more harmful than fat in other locations
D) It is associated with increased risk for heart disease and diabetes in men but not in women

C) Some (but not all) research suggests that it is more harmful than fat in other locations

Which of the following is a characteristic associated with using weight measures to assess risk of disease?
A) They are expensive to perform
B) They are complicated to perform
C) They are able to quantitate total body fat
D) They cannot reveal fat distribution and central obesity

D) They cannot reveal fat distribution and central obesity

All of the following are features of the health risks associated with excessive body fat EXCEPT
A) obesity is classified as a disease.
B) obese women have elevated levels of estrogen.
C) the risks are higher in black women than in white women.
D) people with a BMI higher than 35 have a high risk of dying prematurely.

C) the risks are higher in black women than in white women.

Which of the following describes an association between body weight and mortality?
A) Obesity is the fourth leading cause of premature death
B) Overweight men who are physically fit have a lower mortality risk than normal-weight, unfit men
C) Normal-weight men who are physically unfit have a similar mortality risk versus normal-weight fit men
D) The amount of weight gain in adulthood that is not associated with increased mortality is 20 pounds or less

B) Overweight men who are physically fit have a lower mortality risk than normal-weight, unfit men

Which of the following describes a trend of worldwide obesity?
A) Nowadays, obesity is not seen in developing countries
B) Prevalence of obesity has leveled out in the last few years in the U.S.
C) The cut-off figure of the BMI for obesity varies from country to country
D) The obesity in other countries does not seem to increase risks for chronic diseases

B) Prevalence of obesity has leveled out in the last few years in the U.S.

What is Prader-Willi syndrome?
A) Altered receptor activity for leptin
B) A genetic disorder resulting in obesity
C) Fat accumulation in the liver of gastric bypass patients
D) A failure to adapt to alternating periods of excess and inadequate energy intake

B) A genetic disorder resulting in obesity

Which of the following describes a relationship between leptin and energy balance?
A) Fat cell sensitivity to leptin is higher in obese people
B) A deficiency of leptin is characteristic of all obese people
C) Blood levels of leptin usually correlate directly with body fat
D) Major functions of leptin include an increase in hunger and a decrease in metabolic rate

C) Blood levels of leptin usually correlate directly with body fat

To help prevent body fat gain, the DRI suggests daily, moderately intense, physical activities totaling
A) 20 minutes.
B) 60 minutes.
C) 1 1/2 hours.
D) 3 hours.

B) 60 minutes.

Which of the following is a feature of prescription drug use for treatment of obesity?
A) Most drugs may be safely prescribed even in otherwise healthy obese people
B) Most experts believe that drugs should not be used because obesity is not a disease
C) Most currently available drugs are highly effective in both the short and long term
D) The use of "off-label" drugs is common to take advantage of their modest weight loss effects

D) The use of "off-label" drugs is common to take advantage of their modest weight loss effects

The prescription drug phentermine acts by regulating the utilization of
A) blood insulin.
B) norepinephrine.
C) hormone-sensitive lipase.
D) adipocyte lipoprotein lipase.

B) norepinephrine.

Approximately how many kcalories per week should be expended in physical activity in order to maintain a weight loss?
A) 2000
B) 4000
C) 6000
D) 9000

A) 2000

Which of the following is NOT an association between the environment and food intake?
A) Distractions generally appear to reduce food intake
B) The greater the number of foods at a meal, the more likely people will overeat
C) The mere sight or smell of food prompts people to commence eating even if they are not hungry
D) Small portions of food on large plates lead people to underestimate the amount of food eaten

A) Distractions generally appear to reduce food intake

To qualify for successful weight-loss maintenance, a 200-pound person who intentionally lost 20 lbs must hold the loss for at least
A) 3 months.
B) 6 months.
C) 1 year.
D) 2 years.

C) 1 year.

Cooking a food in liberal amounts of water is least likely to affect its content of
A) folate.
B) thiamin.
C) vitamin A.
D) riboflavin.

C) vitamin A.

Which of the following is indicative of a dietary deficiency of riboflavin?
A) Beriberi
B) Diarrhea
C) Keratomalacia
D) Inflamed mouth membranes

D) Inflamed mouth membranes

Which of the following vitamins is synthesized in significant amounts by intestinal bacteria?
A) Folate
B) Biotin
C) Cyanocobalamin
D) Pantothenic acid

B) Biotin

What is the most likely reason for the development of a vitamin B12 deficiency?
A) Inadequate intake
B) Increased excretion
C) Inadequate absorption
D) Increased losses in food preparation

C) Inadequate absorption

Pernicious anemia results from a deficiency of
A) folate.
B) selenium.
C) vitamin B12.
D) iron and copper.

C) vitamin B12.

Which of the following would be a very good source of vitamin C for the lacto-ovo-vegetarian?
A) Milk
B) Eggs
C) Broccoli
D) Whole-grain bread

C) Broccoli

A vitamin supplement labeled as "high potency" contains an amount that is
A) 50% of the Daily Value.
B) equal to the UL.
C) up to 200% of the Daily Value.
D) 100% or more of the Daily Value.

D) 100% or more of the Daily Value.

As far as is known, vitamin A does not play an important role in which of the following processes?
A) Blood clotting
B) Growth of bones and teeth
C) Synthesis of visual pigment
D) Maintaining mucous membranes

A) Blood clotting

What form of vitamin A supports reproduction but not growth?
A) Retinal
B) Retinol
C) Retinoic acid
D) Retinyl esters

B) Retinol

Keratinization is the result of
A) toxicity of vitamin A.
B) toxicity of vitamin D.
C) deficiency of vitamin A.
D) deficiency of vitamin D.

C) deficiency of vitamin A

The preferred unit of expression of vitamin A is the
A) milligram.
B) global unit.
C) international unit.
D) retinol activity equivalent.

D) retinol activity equivalent.

Which of the following is the most likely side effect for a person who regularly consumes large quantities of carrots or carrot juice?
A) Bone pain
B) Dermatitis
C) Skin yellowing
D) Vitamin A toxicity

C) Skin yellowing

Which of the following is a characteristic of carotenoids in foods?
A) They are found in many vegetables and fruits
B) Most carotenoids can be converted to vitamin A
C) Carotenoid absorption is inhibited by foods rich in chlorophyll
D) The carotenoid with the highest conversion rate to vitamin A is lycopene

A) They are found in many vegetables and fruits

Which of the following is NOT a major target organ for the action of activated vitamin D?
A) Liver
B) Bone
C) Kidney
D) Intestine

A) Liver

Which of the following conditions or diseases are known to be caused by a deficiency of the same nutrient?
A) Osteomalacia and rickets
B) Xerophthalmia and breath pentane release
C) Kwashiorkor and fibrocystic breast disease
D) Hemolytic anemia and large-cell type anemia

A) Osteomalacia and rickets

What is the adult AI for vitamin K?
A) 45-60 µg
B) 90-120 µg
C) 150-300 µg
D) 500-550 µg

B) 90-120 µg

Which of the following is a characteristic of vitamin C and vitamin E?
A) Both protect against LDL oxidation
B) Neither reduces arterial inflammation
C) Neither participates in regulating blood clotting
D) Both act as prooxidants at physiological intakes

A) Both protect against LDL oxidation

Which of the following functions has a requirement for thiamin?
A) Blood coagulation
B) Formation of red blood cells
C) Energy release from energy-yielding nutrients
D) Formation of epithelial cell mucopolysaccharides

C) Energy release from energy-yielding nutrients

Which of the following substances is found in corn and contributes to the development of pellagra?
A) Avidin
B) Leucine
C) Phytates
D) Phenylalanine

B) Leucine

What is the Tolerable Upper Intake Level for vitamin B6?
A) 100 mg/day
B) 500 mg/day
C) 1000 mg/day
D) 10,000 mg/day

A) 100 mg/day

Irreversible nerve damage has been reported in people taking large doses of vitamin
A) B1.
B) B2.
C) B6.
D) B12.

C) B6.

In what major way does alcohol intake affect vitamin B6 metabolism?
A) It reduces acetaldehyde formation
B) It increases fecal excretion of the vitamin
C) It dislodges the PLP coenzyme from its enzyme
D) It interferes with synthesis of the PLP coenzyme

C) It dislodges the PLP coenzyme from its enzyme

Which of the following is associated with a deficiency of folate?
A) Hemolysis
B) Hypoxemia
C) Hemolytic anemia
D) Macrocytic anemia

D) Macrocytic anemia

Which of the following is a feature of vitamin B12 nutrition?
A) Deficiencies lead to "wet" beriberi
B) Even marginal deficiency impairs cognitive function
C) Excess intake leads to loss of appetite and constipation
D) Severe deficiency is characterized chiefly by free-radical damage

B) Even marginal deficiency impairs cognitive function

What do beta-carotene and vitamin E have in common?
A) Both act as antioxidants
B) Both are found in animal fats
C) Neither is involved in free radical control
D) Neither is involved in synthesis of retinal

A) Both act as antioxidants

Your sister Ellen has just joined the Peace Corps and will be working on ways to improve the nutritional status of children in Indonesia. Once there, she saw that many of the children and some adults suffer from night blindness. Which of the following foods should she recommend be incorporated into the Indonesian diet to help prevent future generations from developing this condition?
A) Sweet potato
B) Orange juice
C) Peanut butter
D) Powdered skim milk

A) Sweet potato

Which of the following foods is a very good source of vitamin A?
A) Corn
B) Pumpkin pie
C) Baked potato
D) Whole-grain bread

B) Pumpkin pie

In what tissue(s) must a molecule of vitamin D be chemically altered to yield a compound that is fully active?
A) Liver only
B) Kidney only
C) Liver and kidney
D) Liver and intestines

C) Liver and kidney

What is/are the main function(s) of vitamin D?
A) Promotes secretion of calcitonin
B) Promotes synthesis of 7-dehydrocholesterol
C) Promotes synthesis of carotenoids and controls absorption of fat-soluble vitamins
D) Promotes calcium and phosphorus absorption and promotes calcium mobilization from bone

D) Promotes calcium and phosphorus absorption and promotes calcium mobilization from bone

In what system would the effects of a vitamin D deficiency be most readily observed?
A) Nervous
B) Skeletal
C) Muscular
D) Circulatory

B) Skeletal

Your old friend from high school has just moved to Northern Canada to do full-time research on bats in caves. She typically works in the caves during the day when the bats are there and leaves at sundown when the bats are active. Since your friend only purchases organic and all-natural foods, which of the following would you most likely advise she buy regularly at the grocery store?
A) Whole-grain bread
B) Vitamin D-fortified milk
C) Vitamin A-fortified carrot juice
D) Omega-3 fatty acid-fortified milk

B) Vitamin D-fortified milk

Which of the following is a feature of vitamin K?
A) It participates in synthesis of bone proteins
B) Large amounts can be stored in adipose tissue
C) Good food sources are legumes and raw fruits
D) Intestinal bacterial synthesis provides over 90% of the body's need for most people

A) It participates in synthesis of bone proteins

All of the following are features of vitamin K in nutrition EXCEPT
A) infants frequently require a supplement at birth.
B) good food sources are plants of the cabbage family.
C) risk of deficiency is increased in people taking antibiotics for prolonged periods.
D) gut microflora synthesis supplies sufficient amounts to meet the needs of most healthy adults.

D) gut microflora synthesis supplies sufficient amounts to meet the needs of most healthy adults.

Which of the following is the coenzyme form of thiamin?
A) Thiaminacide
B) Thiamin pyrophosphate
C) Thiamin adenine dinucleotide
D) Thiamin flavin mononucleotide

B) Thiamin pyrophosphate

Which of the following is a characteristic of thiamin nutrition?
A) The coenzyme contains pyrosulfate
B) It is required for regeneration of folate
C) It is required for regeneration of niacin
D) It is an integral part of the nerve cell membrane

D) It is an integral part of the nerve cell membrane

The chief symptoms of early vitamin B6 deficiency include
A) confusion and depression.
B) muscle cramps and stiffness.
C) profound fatigue and anemia.
D) hyperactivity and shortness of breath.

A) confusion and depression.

On a per-kcalorie basis, which of the following foods is richest in vitamin B6?
A) Meats
B) Fruits
C) Legumes
D) Grains

B) Fruits

Approximately what percentage of naturally occurring dietary folate is bioavailable?
A) 10
B) 25
C) 50
D) 80

C) 50

Methylcobalamin is a coenzyme form of
A) vitamin B1.
B) vitamin B6.
C) vitamin B12.
D) niacin.

C) vitamin B12.

The synthesis of collagen requires both vitamin C and
A) iron.
B) zinc.
C) cobalamin.
D) beta-carotene.

A) iron.

What organ stores the highest concentration of vitamin C?
A) Liver
B) Muscle
C) Thyroid gland
D) Adrenal glands

D) Adrenal glands

Which of the following symptoms is indicative of a deficiency of vitamin C?
A) Hair loss
B) Muscle spasms
C) Bilateral symmetrical dermatitis
D) Subcutaneous pinpoint hemorrhages

D) Subcutaneous pinpoint hemorrhages

Approximately what percentage of the body's vitamin A stores are found in the liver?
A) 20
B) 50
C) 70
D) 90

D) 90

Which of the following features are shared by Retin-A and Accutane?
A) They are teratogenic
B) They are highly toxic
C) They are usually taken orally
D) They have chemical structures similar to vitamin A

D) They have chemical structures similar to vitamin A

On average, one retinol activity equivalent is equal to about how many international units?
A) 3
B) 5
C) 8
D) 10

A) 3

What is the name of the vitamin D-deficiency disease in adults?
A) Rickets
B) Osteomalacia
C) Keratomalacia
D) Hyperkeratosis

B) Osteomalacia

What population group is at highest risk for osteomalacia?
A) Infants
B) Elderly men
C) Adult women
D) Children ages 2-12 years

C) Adult women

In comparison with the RDA for vitamin E, about how many fold higher is the Tolerable Upper Intake Level?
A) 2
B) 10
C) 25
D) 65

D) 65

Which of the following is a characteristic of free radicals?
A) They are destroyed by cigarette smoking
B) They arise from normal metabolic reactions
C) They typically stop chain reactions associated with the production of peroxides
D) They are known to accumulate even in the presence of abundant antioxidant nutrients

B) They arise from normal metabolic reactions

Which of the following is NOT a function of water in the body?
A) Lubricant
B) Source of energy
C) Maintains protein structure
D) Participant in chemical reactions

B) Source of energy

Approximately how many mL of water/day are produced by metabolism?
A) 100
B) 250
C) 500
D) 750

B) 250

Which of the following is NOT among the factors that are effective in regulating the body's water balance?
A) Adrenaline
B) Aldosterone
C) Angiotensin
D) Antidiuretic hormone

A) Adrenaline

What is the major intracellular anion?
A) Protein
B) Sodium
C) Phosphate
D) Bicarbonate

C) Phosphate

Which of the following is NOT among the properties of electrolytes?
A) They attract water
B) They are charged particles
C) They can carry an electrical current
D) They include fat-soluble as well as water-soluble particles

D) They include fat-soluble as well as water-soluble particles

Which of the following does NOT play an important role in acid-base balance?
A) The liver
B) The lungs
C) The kidneys
D) Blood buffers

A) The liver

Why are salt tablets generally not recommended for people engaged in physical activity?
A) They can induce dehydration
B) They suppress the thirst mechanisms
C) They may lead to complete kidney failure
D) They reduce blood glucose concentration

A) They can induce dehydration

Which of the following is a feature of magnesium nutrition?
A) The average body contains about 100 g
B) Blood is a major reservoir of the mineral
C) Deficiency is associated with hypertension
D) Dietary intake data are the sum of the amounts from food and water

C) Deficiency is associated with hypertension

Protective factors for osteoporosis include all of the following EXCEPT
A) obesity.
B) female gender.
C) moderate alcohol intake.
D) having African American heritage.

B) female gender.

Among the following calcium supplements, which is most calcium-dense?
A) Calcium citrate
B) Calcium lactate
C) Calcium carbonate
D) Calcium gluconate

C) Calcium carbonate

Among the following, which does NOT contain the MFP factor?
A) Tuna
B) Spinach
C) Hamburger
D) Chicken leg

B) Spinach

Which of the following characteristics is shared by iron and zinc?
A) Neither functions in the maintenance of blood glucose
B) Neither is circulated from the pancreas to the intestines and back to the pancreas
C) Both are absorbed into intestinal mucosal cells and bound to metallothionein for transport first to the liver
D) Both are absorbed into intestinal epithelial cells but may then be lost by normal villus cell renewal processes

D) Both are absorbed into intestinal epithelial cells but may then be lost by normal villus cell renewal processes

Under normal circumstances, what is the average percentage of dietary iron that is absorbed from a mixed diet?
A) 10
B) 18
C) 33
D) 60

B) 18

Which of the following is known as an iron-overload protein?
A) Transferrin
B) Hemosiderin
C) Marrowferritin
D) Metallothionein

B) Hemosiderin

Which of the following is a characteristic of iron utilization?
A) Most of the body's iron is recycled
B) The chief storage site for iron is the intestinal epithelium
C) Iron is absorbed better from supplements than from foods
D) Iron from nonheme food sources is absorbed better than that from heme food sources

A) Most of the body's iron is recycled

What is the primary function of the thyroid hormones?
A) Precursors for hemoglobin synthesis
B) Counteract a deficiency of goitrogens
C) Control the rate of oxygen use by cells
D) Regulate acetylcholine concentrations in the central nervous system

C) Control the rate of oxygen use by cells

Which of the following is a feature of iodine in nutrition?
A) Excessive intakes shrink the thyroid gland
B) Processed foods in the United States do not use iodized salt
C) Iodization of salt is mandatory in the United States but not in Canada
D) Worldwide, the prevalence of iodine deficiency and iodine toxicity are approximately the same

B) Processed foods in the United States do not use iodized salt

f cow's milk is found to contain unusually high levels of iodine, what is the most likely explanation?
A) Storage of milk in galvanized tanks
B) Grazing of cows on high-iodine soils
C) Addition of fortified salt at the milk processing plant
D) Exposure of cows to iodide-containing medications and disinfectants

D) Exposure of cows to iodide-containing medications and disinfectants

Which of the following meats would be the best source of copper?
A) Chicken
B) Shellfish
C) Beefsteak
D) Hamburger

B) Shellfish

Evidence to date in animals and/or human beings suggests that normal bone metabolism requires all of the following trace minerals EXCEPT
A) boron.
B) silver.
C) silicon.
D) vanadium.

B) silver.

What minimum level of body weight loss as water impairs a person's physical performance?
A) 1-2%
B) 3-4%
C) 5-9%
D) 10-15%

B) 3-4%

Which of the following does NOT serve as a major regulator of fluid balance in the body?
A) Sodium
B) Chloride
C) Calcium
D) Potassium

C) Calcium

Normally, what is the relationship of the amount of sodium excreted to the amount ingested that day?
A) Intake is higher
B) Excretion is higher
C) Intake and excretion are equal
D) Excretion is unrelated to intake

C) Intake and excretion are equal

What is the greatest single source of sodium in the diet?
A) Processed foods
B) Unprocessed foods
C) Natural salt content of foods
D) Salt added during cooking and at the table

A) Processed foods

Which of the following is a feature of sodium and health?
A) Salt sensitivity is generally rare in African-Americans
B) High sodium intake is known to promote calcium excretion
C) High sodium intake over many years leads to hypertension in most people
D) Sodium alone and sodium in salt have nearly equivalent effects on blood pressure

B) High sodium intake is known to promote calcium excretion

Which of the following is a feature of sodium nutrition?
A) It has no AI because diets rarely lack sodium
B) It has no AI because the kidneys are highly efficient at regulating sodium balance
C) The AI is 3 g, an amount that has been shown to have little or no effect on blood pressure
D) The AI for young adults is only 1500 mg because the body possesses an unusually efficient retention mechanism

D) The AI for young adults is only 1500 mg because the body possesses an unusually efficient retention mechanism

Which of the following is NOT among the features of potassium in nutrition?
A) Processed foods are a major source
B) High intakes may protect against stroke
C) Per serving size, bananas are a rich source
D) Per serving size, legumes are a rich source

A) Processed foods are a major source

Antiresorptive drug treatments for osteoporosis work primarily by
A) stimulating parathormone release.
B) inhibiting kidney excretion of calcium.
C) stimulating intestinal calcium absorption.
D) inhibiting the activities of the bone-degrading cells.

D) inhibiting the activities of the bone-degrading cells.

Which of the following is characteristic of calcium nutrition in teenagers?
A) The recommended intake is higher for girls than boys
B) The recommended intake is 800-1,000 mg for this population group
C) The intake of calcium is higher in boys than girls because they eat more food
D) The dietary intakes of calcium are similar for girls and boys of this population group

C) The intake of calcium is higher in boys than girls because they eat more food

Among the following calcium supplements, which contains the lowest percentage of calcium?
A) Calcium citrate
B) Calcium lactate
C) Calcium carbonate
D) Calcium gluconate

D) Calcium gluconate

Taking into account the efficiency of intestinal absorption of iron, approximately how much dietary iron must be consumed to account for the iron lost by donating a pint of blood?
A) 5 mg
B) 15 mg
C) 50 mg
D) 100 mg

B) 15 mg

Which of the following is a characteristic of iron deficiency and behavior?
A) Erythrocyte iron levels fall before mental alertness is affected
B) Moderate iron deficiency promotes constipation and hyperactivity
C) Mild iron deficiency impairs energy metabolism and neurotransmitter synthesis
D) Iron deficiency increases risk for infections that promote dysfunctional behavior

C) Mild iron deficiency impairs energy metabolism and neurotransmitter synthesis

What is the Tolerable Upper Intake Level for iron?
A) 45 mg/day
B) 90 mg/day
C) 120 mg/day
D) Twice the RDA

A) 45 mg/day

A child diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia would most likely benefit from increasing his or her consumption of
A) milk.
B) red meat.
C) fresh fruits.
D) yellow vegetables.

B) red meat.

Which of the following conditions is known to lead to copper deficiency?
A) Excess zinc
B) Excess protein
C) Insufficient iodine
D) Insufficient calcium

A) Excess zinc

What mineral is critical to the synthesis of thyroxine?
A) Iron
B) Copper
C) Iodine
D) Magnesium

C) Iodine

The most common cause of iodine deficiency is
A) insufficient intake of iodine from foods.
B) overconsumption of other trace elements.
C) overconsumption of anti-thyroid substances.
D) pituitary deficiencies of thyroid-stimulating hormone

A) insufficient intake of iodine from foods.

What is the origin of goitrogens in the diet?
A) Naturally occurring
B) Food industry additives
C) Excessive use of fortified salt
D) Hydrogenation of certain minerals

A) Naturally occurring

What trace element is part of the enzyme glutathione peroxidase?
A) Iron
B) Zinc
C) Selenium
D) Chromium

C) Selenium

As far as is known, what hormone is dependent upon chromium for optimal activity?
A) Renin
B) Gastrin
C) Insulin
D) Antidiurectic hormone

C) Insulin

Approximately how much water is contained in a loaf of bread?
A) 2% of the loaf
B) 5% of the loaf
C) 20% of the loaf
D) 35% of the loaf

D) 35% of the loaf

The approximate percentage of water in pizza is
A) 5.
B) 15.
C) 30.
D) 45.

D) 45.

How does antidiuretic hormone function?
A) It activates renin
B) It activates angiotension
C) It stimulates water reabsorption by the kidneys
D) It stimulates sodium reabsorption by the kidneys

C) It stimulates water reabsorption by the kidneys

See More

Please allow access to your computer’s microphone to use Voice Recording.

Having trouble? Click here for help.

We can’t access your microphone!

Click the icon above to update your browser permissions above and try again

Example:

Reload the page to try again!

Reload

Press Cmd-0 to reset your zoom

Press Ctrl-0 to reset your zoom

It looks like your browser might be zoomed in or out. Your browser needs to be zoomed to a normal size to record audio.

Please upgrade Flash or install Chrome
to use Voice Recording.

For more help, see our troubleshooting page.

Your microphone is muted

For help fixing this issue, see this FAQ.

Star this term

You can study starred terms together

NEW! Voice Recording

Create Set