Pathophysiology Unit One Study Questions

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Pathophysiology Unit One Study Questions - Chapters 1, 4, 5

which of the following would be the most likely cause of an iatrogenic disease?

an unwanted effect of a prescribed drug

the manifestations of a disease are best defined as the

signs and symptoms of a disease

the best definition of the term prognosis is the

predicted outcome or likelihood of recovery from a specific disease

which of the following is considered a systemic sign of disease?

fever

etiology is defined as the study of the

causes of a disease

hypertrophy of the heart would be related to

an increase in the size of the individual cells

a change in tissue marked by cells that very in shape and size and show increased myotic figures would be called

dysplasia

when a group of cells in the body dies, the change is called

necrosis

lack of exercise during an illness may cause skeletal muscle to undergo

atrophy

the term cancer refers to

malignant neoplasm

to which of the following does the term apoptosis refer?

per-programmed cell self-destruction

which of the following statements is true?

damaged cells may be able to repair themselves

caseation necrosis refers to an area where

dead cells form a thick cheesy substance

routine application of sun block to skin would be an example of

a preventative measure

a circumstance that causes a sudden acute episode of a chronic disease to occur is termed

precipitating factor

what is an acute episode of a chronic disease called

an exacerbation

the term homeostasis refers to

maintenance of a stable internal environment

which term is used to describe a new and secondary or additional problem that arises after the original disease is established?

complication

pathophysiology involves the study of

functional or structural changes resulting from disease processes

which of the following is the best definition of epidemiology

the science of tracking the occurrence and distribution of diseases

which of the following can cause cell injury or death?

hypoxia, exposure to excessive cold, excessive pressure on tissue, chemical toxins. 1, 2, 3, 4!

all of the following are part of the Seven Steps to Health except:

participate in strenuous exercise on a regular daily basis

the term disease refers to

a deviation from the normal state of health and function

the best definition of an ischemia is

a deficit of oxygen supply to the cells, due to circulatory obstruction

all of the following statements are correct about cell damage except

initially cell damage does not change cell metabolism, structure, or function

which of the following conditions distinguishes double-blind studies used in health research?

neither the members of the control group or the experimental group, nor the person administering the treatment know who is receiving the experimental therapy

if the data collected from the research process confirm that the new treatment has increased effectiveness and is safe, this is called

evidence based research

a short-term illness that develops very quickly with perhaps a high fever or severe pain is called

acute

the term prognosis refers to the

expected outcome of a disease

when prolonged ischemia occurs to an area of the heart, the resulting damage is referred to as

infarction

during the evaluation process for a new therapy's effectiveness and safety, a double-blind study may be conducted during

the third stage

why are the predisposing factors for a specific disease important to health professionals?

to develop preventative measures

cell damage may be caused by exogenous sources such as

certain food additives

which of the following is usually included in medical history?

past illnesses or surgeries, current illnesses, acute and chronic, prescribed medication or other treatments, nonprescription drugs and herbal remedies, current allergies.

Bacteria that form a cluster of spheres are called

staphylococci

An anaerobe requires which specific environment?

The absence of oxygen

A bacterial endospore can

survive high temperatures and dry environment

The structure of a virus includes

a protein coat and either DNA or RNA

What method do viruses use to replicate?

Using a host cell to produce and assemble components

A retrovirus such as HIV contains

RNA and enzymes for its conversion

How do antiviral drugs act?

Reducing the rate of viral replication

Which statement applies to yeasts? They:

may cause opportunistic infections in the body

Fungi reproduce by

budding, extension of hyphae, production of spores. 1, 2, 4

Which of the following is not classified as a protozoan agent of disease?

Tinea pedis

Entamoeba histolytica is transmitted by

cysts in feces

Which of the following is a characteristic of resident or normal flora (microflora)?

Different species inhabit various areas of the body

Which area of the body is considered sterile?

Stomach

The term nosocomial infection means

acquired in a hospital or medical facility

Transmission of microbes by direct contact includes

sexual intercourse

Opportunistic infection may develop when

a member of resident flora migrates and colonizes a new location in the body

What does a vaccine contain?

Attenuated or dead pathogens or their toxins

When do clinical signs of infection appear?

When the microbial colony is large enough to damage the host

The principle of Universal Precautions is based on

assuming that all body fluids from all individuals are possible sources of infection

The incubation period refers to the time period between

entry of the pathogen into the body and the first signs of infectious disease

Which of the following is a local sign of infection?

Pain erythema, and swelling

What are culture and sensitivity tests used for?

To identify the causative microbe and the effective antimicrobial agent for it.

How does penicillin act as a bactericidal agent?

Interfering with cell-wall synthesis

The primary pathological effect of influenza virus is

inflammation and necrosis of the upper respiratory epithelium

What does leukocytosis frequently indicate

presence of bacterial infection

When an infection or inflammation is suspected, what does leucopenia often indicate?

Viral infection

Which of the following statements applies to Chlamydia?

It causes a common STD

Which of the following are characteristics of influenza virus?

It is an obligate intracellular parasite, It contains RNA, there are three subtypes - A, B, C. 1, 2, 4

Which of the following manifestations is usually present with influenza but not with the common cold?

generalized skeletal muscle aching, headache, marked fatigue

Prions are transmitted by blood and

ingestion of contaminated meat

Which of the following statements applies to Influenza A H1N1?

It contains genetic material from avian, swine, and human viruses

Which of the following does not directly determine the virulence of a microbe?

Capacity for opportunism

Which of the following is a function of interferons? They:

increase host cell resistance to viral invasion

Inflamed tissue is likely to become infected because

capillaries are less permeable in the affected area.

When an infectious disease is occurring globally at a higher rate than usual, it may be designated as a

pandemic

What is a benign neoplasm originating from adipose tissue called?

Lipoma

What are malignant neoplasms arising from connective tissue cells called?

Sarcomas

Which of the following is a characteristic of a benign tumor?

Cells appear relatively normal

Which factor provides the basis for grading of newly diagnosed malignant tumors?

Degree of differentiation of the cells

A warning sign of possible cancer would be any of the following EXCEPT:

sudden development of fever, nausea, and diarrhea

The common local effects of an expanding tumor mass include

obstruction of a tube or duct; cell necrosis and ulceration 1, 3

Which of the following does paraneoplastic syndrome refer to?

The effects of substances such as hormones secreted by the tumor cells

Which term refers to the spread of malignant cells through blood and lymph to distant sites?

Metastasis

One reason for staging a malignant tumor at the time of diagnosis is to

determine the best treatment and prognosis

The process of carcinogenesis usually begins with

an irreversible change in the cell DNA

What would be an external source of ionizing radiation?

Gamma rays delivered by a cobalt machine

Radiation therapy destroys

primarily rapidly dividing cells

The most critical adverse effects of chemotherapy and radiation therapy are

thrombocytopenia and leukopenia

Chemotherapy usually involves a combination of drugs in order to:

reduce the adverse effects, be effective in more phases of the cell cycle. 1, 3

Why does ovarian cancer have a poor prognosis?

Specific signs rarely appear until after secondary tumors have developed

Select the correct pair representing a malignant tumor and its marker

colon cancer: carcinoembryonic antigen CEA

Antiangiogenesis drugs act on a malignant tumor by

reducing blood flow and nutrient supply to tumor cells

The development of neutropenia during chemotherapy for cancer means

the patient is at high risk for infection

Malignant brain tumors

Spread to other parts of CNS

Identify the common dose-limiting factor for chemotherapy

bone marrow depression

Glucocorticoids are often prescribed during a course of chemotherapy and radiation because

inflammation around the tumor may be reduced

Vomiting frequently follows a chemotherapy treatment because

the gastrointestinal tract is irritated and the chemicals stimulate the emetic center. A, b

What type of normal cells are often damaged during chemotherapy and radiation treatments?

Epithelial cells

Remission for cancer is generally defined as a period in which

signs and symptoms are absent

All of the following are correct statements about skin cancers except

they are difficult to diagnose and treat. Not true!

High risk factors for cancer include

all of the above. E.

The term apoptosis refers to

preprogrammed cell death

The warning signs for cancer include

all of the above are warning signs

A classification process that applies to a specific malignant tumor and describes the extent of the disease at a given time is called:

staging

Benign tumors can often be differentiated from malignant tumors because benign tumors:

are encapsulated and slow-growing

Benign tumors in the brain are often life-threatening because they

create excessive pressure within the skull

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