1. Which of the following is an example of a symptom?
2. Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the presence of any symptoms?
A. A 44-year-old male with abdominal pain and severe dizziness
B. A 49-year-old female with blurred vision and ringing in the ears
C. A 55-year-old male with a severe headache and 2 days of nausea
D. A 61-year-old female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis
3. Which of the following MOST accurately describes the term "chief complaint"?
A. The information about the call provided to you by the dispatcher
B. The major signs or symptoms that the patient reports when asked
C. The general appearance of the patient upon your initial encounter
D. The symptoms that the patient denies having when he or she is asked
4. Which of the following questions is used to determine a patient's chief complaint?
A. "What seems to be the matter?"
B. "When did the chest pain begin?"
C. "Are you having trouble breathing?"
D. "Do you have a history of diabetes?"
5. Which of the following questions would you ask a patient to ascertain the "M" in the SAMPLE history?
A. "Have you ever had any major surgeries?"
B. "How long have you had your chest pain?"
C. "How much Tylenol do you take each day?"
D. "When was the last time that you ate a meal?"
6. Which of the following medical history questions would be of LEAST pertinence in an acute situation?
A. "Does the pain stay in your chest?"
B. "Does your mother have diabetes?"
C. "Has this ever happened to you before?"
D. "Are there medications that you can't take?"
7. Which of the following patient responses would establish the "E" in the SAMPLE history?
A. "I was in the hospital for this a week ago."
B. "I am not having any difficulty breathing."
C. "The chest pain started about 45 minutes ago."
D. "I was mowing the lawn when the pain began."
8. Palliating factors regarding a patient's pain involve those that:
A. worsen the pain.
B. alleviate the pain.
C. initiate the pain.
D. change the pain.
9. Pain that moves from its point of origin to another body location is said to be:
10. Baseline vital signs are referred to as such because they:
A. are the initial vital signs that will allow you to trend the patient's condition by comparing them to future vital signs.
B. represent a continuous evaluation of the status of the patient's cardiovascular, respiratory, and nervous systems.
C. can be obtained as frequently as needed in order to determine if the patient's condition is improving or worsening.
D. are the most recent set of vital signs that you report to the attending physician or charge nurse at the receiving hospital.
11. In addition to blood pressure, pulse, and respirations, which of the following should also be assessed when evaluating a patient's vital signs?
A. Deep tendon reflexes
B. Core body temperature
C. Pupillary reaction to light
D. Capillary refill in adults
12. A patient with spontaneous respirations is breathing:
A. at a normal rate.
B. with shallow depth.
C. without difficulty.
D. without assistance.
13. Typical methods of assessing a patient's breathing include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. listening to breath sounds with a stethoscope.
B. observing for nasal flaring during inhalation.
C. observing the chest for adequate rise and fall.
D. feeling for air movement at the nose and mouth.
14. The normal respiratory rate for an adult should range from:
A. 10 to 15 breaths per minute.
B. 12 to 20 breaths per minute.
C. 18 to 24 breaths per minute.
D. 24 to 28 breaths per minute.
15. Clinical signs of labored breathing include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. shallow chest movement.
B. use of accessory muscles.
C. supraclavicular retractions.
D. gasping attempts to breathe.
16. An adult patient who is NOT experiencing difficulty breathing will:
A. be able to speak in complete sentences without unusual pauses.
B. assume a position that will facilitate effective and easy breathing.
C. exhibit an indentation above the clavicles and in between the ribs.
D. have a respiratory rate that is between 20 and 24 breaths per minute.
17. Which of the following statements regarding a pediatric patient's breathing is correct?
A. Chest rise in an infant or small child is more marked than in an adult.
B. The sniffing position is an atypical sign of pediatric labored breathing.
C. Abdominal movement is more prominent in a child than it is in an adult.
D. It is easy to determine effective breathing by observing a child's chest.
18. Normal respiratory rates should not exceed ___ breaths per minute in children and ___ breaths per minute in infants.
A. 18, 28
B. 20, 30
C. 24, 45
D. 30, 50
19. Which of the following statements regarding stridor is MOST correct?
A. It is a whistling sound heard in the lower airway.
B. Stridor is caused by incorrect airway positioning.
C. It is a high-pitched, crowing upper airway sound.
D. Stridor suggests the presence of fluid in the lungs.
20. A patient breathing with reduced tidal volume will have respirations that are:
21. The pulse oximeter is an assessment tool used to evaluate the:
A. percentage of red blood cells.
B. effectiveness of oxygenation.
C. saturation level of venous blood.
D. amount of exhaled carbon dioxide.
22. Which of the following factors would MOST likely result in inaccurate or misleading pulse oximetry values?
A. Chemicals that displace oxygen
B. Excessive red blood cell count
C. Hypertension and tachycardia
D. Increased peripheral perfusion
23. In responsive patients that are older than 1 year of age, you should palpate the pulse at the ________ artery.
24. Palpating the carotid pulse is not recommended in infants because:
A. the pulse rate is usually too fast to count.
B. a decrease in cerebral perfusion may occur.
C. the carotid artery is more anterior in infants.
D. you may inadvertently compress the trachea.
25. A palpable pulse is created by:
A. the pressure of circulating blood against the walls of the arteries.
B. the pressure that is caused when venous blood returns to the heart.
C. pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction.
D. electrical conduction in the heart producing ventricular contraction.
26. Which of the following is the MOST accurate guide to palpating a pulse?
A. Avoid compressing the artery against a bone or solid structure.
B. Place the tips of your index and long fingers over the pulse point.
C. Use your thumb to increase the surface area that you are palpating.
D. Apply firm pressure to the artery with your ring and little fingers.
27. When palpating a patient's pulse, you note that it is grossly irregular. You should:
A. count the pulse rate for at least 30 seconds to ensure accuracy.
B. count the number of pulsations in 15 seconds and multiply by 4.
C. count the number of pulsations in 30 seconds and multiply by 2.
D. count the pulse rate for a full minute to obtain an accurate reading.
28. A pulse with a consistent pattern to it is considered to be:
29. Bradycardia is defined as a pulse rate less than _____ beats per minute and tachycardia is defined as a heart rate greater than _____ beats per minute.
A. 60, 100
B. 50, 110
C. 40, 120
D. 30, 130
30. When palpating the carotid pulse of an unresponsive elderly patient, you should:
A. avoid compressing both carotid arteries simultaneously.
B. ensure that his or her head is in a hyperextended position.
C. avoid gentle pressure so that weak pulses can be detected.
D. firmly compress the artery because the pulse is often weak.
31. Which of the following factors would MOST likely cause a patient's pulse rate to be slower than normal?
A. Anxiety or severe stress
B. Beta-blocker medications
C. Internal bleeding from trauma
D. Lack of a regular exercise routine
32. When palpating a patient's pulse, you note that there is a short interval in between pulsations. This indicates that the pulse is:
33. A normal pulse should feel:
A. strong and slow.
B. bounding and rapid.
C. thready and regular.
D. strong and regular.
34. When assessing the skin of an unconscious patient, you note that it has a bluish tint to it. This finding is called:
35. A patient with high blood pressure would be expected to have skin that is:
A. flushed and red.
B. mottled and cool.
C. pale and moist.
D. cyanotic and dry.
36. Normal skin color, temperature, and condition should be:
A. pink, warm, and dry.
B. pale, cool, and moist.
C. pink, warm, and moist.
D. flushed, cool, and dry.
37. Cyanosis of the skin is caused by:
A. increased blood oxygen.
B. peripheral vasodilation.
C. venous vasoconstriction.
D. decreased blood oxygen.
38. Poor peripheral circulation will cause the skin to appear:
39. A patient with profuse sweating is referred to as being:
40. When you assess capillary refill time (CRT) in an infant, normal color to the tested area should return within:
A. 1 second.
B. 2 seconds.
C. 3 seconds.
D. 4 seconds.
41. You should assess an infant or child's skin color on his or her:
A. arms and legs.
B. fingers and toes.
C. chest and abdomen.
D. palms and soles.
42. In patients with deeply pigmented skin, changes in color may be apparent only in certain areas, such as the:
A. anterior chest wall.
B. forehead and face.
C. dorsum of the hand.
D. mucous membranes.
43. With regard to assessment of a patient's cardiovascular status, capillary refill time (CRT) is MOST reliable in:
A. children who are younger than 6 years of age.
B. patients who are significantly hypotensive.
C. children who are older than 6 years of age.
D. patients with decreased peripheral perfusion.
44. The pressure exerted against the walls of the artery when the left ventricle contracts is called the:
A. blood pressure.
B. systolic pressure.
C. diastolic pressure.
D. pulse pressure.
45. While evaluating a patient with chest pain, your partner tells you that the patient's blood pressure is 140/94 mm Hg. The lower number represents the pressure from the:
A. atria relaxing.
B. atria contracting.
C. ventricles relaxing.
D. ventricles contracting.
46. A decrease in blood pressure may indicate all of the following conditions, EXCEPT:
A. loss of blood volume.
B. a closed head injury.
C. loss of vascular tone.
D. decreased cardiac pumping.
47. Which of the following statements regarding the blood pressure is correct?
A. The systolic pressure represents ventricular relaxation.
B. Blood pressure falls early in patients with hypoperfusion.
C. Blood pressure is the most reliable indicator of perfusion.
D. It is usually not measured in children younger than 3 years of age.
48. When taking a patient's blood pressure in an upper extremity, the diaphragm of the stethoscope is normally placed over which artery?
49. A blood pressure cuff that is too small for a patient's arm will give a:
A. false low systolic and diastolic reading.
B. high systolic but low diastolic reading.
C. false high systolic and diastolic reading.
D. low systolic but high diastolic reading.
50. You can auscultate a patient's blood pressure by:
A. comparing the pulse of the wrist with the pulse in the neck.
B. feeling for the return of a pulse while inflating the blood pressure cuff.
C. deflating a blood pressure cuff while watching the needle of the gauge bounce.
D. deflating a blood pressure cuff while listening with a stethoscope to the return of blood flow through the brachial artery.
51. When you use the palpation method to obtain a blood pressure, the measurement you obtain is the:
A. pulse pressure.
B. systolic blood pressure.
C. diastolic blood pressure.
D. cardiac output pressure.
52. When you inspect a patient's pupils with a penlight, the pupils should normally react to the light by:
53. When you shine a light into one pupil, the normal reaction of the other pupil should be to:
B. not react.
C. become larger.
D. become smaller.
54. Which of the following pupillary changes would indicate depressed brain function?
A. Both pupils dilate when a bright light is removed.
B. Both pupils constrict when a bright light is introduced.
C. Both pupils react briskly to light instead of sluggishly.
D. Both pupils dilate with introduction of a bright light.
55. Which of the following conditions would MOST likely cause the pupils to remain significantly constricted?
A. Severe cerebral hypoxia
B. Intracranial hemorrhaging
C. Overdose of an opiate drug
D. Oculomotor nerve pressure
56. A 50-year-old male is found unconscious in his car. There were no witnesses to the event. When gathering medical history information for this patient, the EMT-B should:
A. wait for family members to arrive before asking any questions.
B. defer SAMPLE history questions until you arrive at the hospital.
C. determine if the patient has a medical alert bracelet or wallet card.
D. ask law enforcement officials if they are familiar with the patient.
57. You receive a call to a local daycare center for an unconscious 8-month-old infant. Upon arrival, you perform an assessment and determine that the infant is not breathing. After delivering two rescue breaths, you should:
A. assess for the presence of a brachial pulse.
B. begin chest compressions and request backup.
C. immediately transport the child to the hospital.
D. assess for a carotid pulse for 10 to 15 seconds.
58. When assessing a 62-year-old female with crushing chest pressure, you note that her pulse is rapid and irregular. In addition to administering oxygen, you should:
A. apply a cardiac monitor and observe her cardiac rhythm.
B. transport at once and consider requesting a paramedic unit.
C. document your findings and perform a detailed assessment.
D. conclude that the irregular pulse is normal based on her age.
59. A 40-year-old male presents with pain to the right upper quadrant of his abdomen. He is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. During your assessment, you note that his skin and sclera are jaundiced. You should suspect:
A. acute pancreatitis.
B. liver dysfunction.
C. gallbladder disease.
D. renal insufficiency.
60. An elderly patient has fallen and hit her head. You assess her level of consciousness as unresponsive using the AVPU scale. Your initial care should focus on:
A. obtaining baseline vital signs.
B. gathering medical history data.
C. providing immediate transport.
D. airway, breathing, and circulation.
61. You are dispatched to the county jail for an inmate that is "sick." When you arrive, you find the patient, a 33-year-old male, unresponsive. His airway is patent and his respirations are rapid and shallow. Your initial action should be to:
A. apply a pulse oximeter.
B. request a paramedic unit.
C. provide assisted ventilation.
D. obtain his blood pressure.
62. You are caring for a critically injured 27-year-old female. During transport to the hospital, you should:
A. take her vital signs every 5 minutes.
B. complete the patient care run form.
C. reassess her only if she deteriorates.
D. reassess her every 10 to 15 minutes.
63. During your assessment of a 6-month-old male with vomiting and diarrhea, you note that his capillary refill time is approximately 4 seconds. From this information, you can conclude that his:
A. respiratory status is adequate.
B. systolic blood pressure is normal.
C. peripheral perfusion is decreased.
D. skin temperature is abnormally cold.
64. A 44-year-old construction worker fell approximately 20 feet. He is unconscious and unresponsive with slow, shallow respirations. After completing your rapid assessment and caring for immediately life-threatening conditions, your priority should be to:
A. obtain vital signs and a SAMPLE history.
B. package the patient and rapidly transport.
C. request a paramedic ambulance for backup.
D. ask a coworker what caused the patient's fall.
65. Upon arriving at the scene of a patient with difficulty breathing, you determine that the scene is safe. You enter the residence and find the patient sitting in a chair in obvious distress. You first action should be to:
A. ask the patient what's wrong.
B. obtain a set of baseline vital signs.
C. assess the patient's airway status.
D. introduce yourself to the patient.
1. Advanced airway management techniques are performed ONLY after:
A. the patient is assessed as being apneic.
B. the patient has been delivered to the hospital.
C. basic airway techniques have been completed.
D. the upper airway has been thoroughly suctioned.
2. After opening a patient's airway, you should:
A. insert an airway adjunct.
B. ensure the airway is clear.
C. assess for breathing effort.
D. administer oxygen as needed.
3. In the prehospital setting, gastric tubes are used primarily to:
A. remove gastric toxins.
B. administer medications.
C. provide gastric nutrition.
D. decompress the stomach.
4. Nasogastric (NG) tube insertion is contraindicated in all of the following situations, EXCEPT:
A. an intact gag reflex.
B. major head trauma.
C. severe facial trauma.
D. spinal cord injury.
5. To determine the proper size nasogastric tube, you should measure from the:
A. corner of the nose, around the ear, to the distal tip of the xiphoid process.
B. tip of the nose, around the ear, to the epigastric area below the xiphoid process.
C. tip of the nose, to the earlobe, to the epigastric area below the xiphoid process.
D. base of the nose, around the ear, to the area between the xiphoid and umbilicus.
7. The purpose of the Sellick maneuver is to prevent:
A. vomiting and aspiration.
B. spasm of the vocal cords.
C. collapsing of the trachea.
D. airway blockage by the tongue.
6. Proper confirmation of correct nasogastric or orogastric tube placement includes:
A. attaching an end-tidal carbon dioxide detector to the end of the tube.
B. injecting air into the tube and auscultating the stomach for gurgling.
C. instilling 25 mL of saline down the tube and connecting the tube to suction.
D. applying manual pressure to the stomach and observing the tube for contents.
8. The Sellick maneuver is performed by applying pressure to the:
A. tracheal rings.
B. thyroid cartilage.
C. cricoid cartilage.
D. cricothyroid membrane.
9. Prior to performing endotracheal intubation in a cardiac arrest patient, it is MOST important to:
A. ensure that the stomach is not distended.
B. perform CPR for at least 5 to 10 minutes.
C. hyperventilate the patient for 3 to 5 minutes.
D. clear the airway and ventilate with a BVM.
10. A properly placed endotracheal tube will facilitate all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. complete protection of the airway.
B. direct suctioning of gastric contents.
C. the delivery of certain medications.
D. delivery of higher minute volume.
11. Endotracheal intubation is indicated for patients:
A. prior to defibrillation if ventricular fibrillation is present.
B. who are unconscious and cannot protect their own airway.
C. in need of assisted ventilation due to reduced tidal volume.
D. who are extremely combative and have an intact gag reflex.
12. Visualized endotracheal intubation requires all of the following equipment, EXCEPT a:
A. lighted stylet.
C. 10-mL syringe.
D. straight or curved blade.
13. The Macintosh (curved blade) lifts the epiglottis when the tip of the blade is placed into the:
A. glottic opening.
B. vallecular space.
C. pyriform sinuses.
D. cricothyroid space.
14. In contrast to the curved blade, the straight (Miller) blade:
A. directly lifts the epiglottis and exposes the vocal cords.
B. indirectly lifts the epiglottis by fitting into the vallecula.
C. is contraindicated in infants and children less than 5 years of age.
D. has a broad flange and provides better tongue displacement.
15. A lighted stylet is used to:
A. improve visualization in the dark.
B. assist EMTs who have poor vision.
C. perform blind endotracheal intubation.
D. provide direct esophageal visualization.
16. When an ET tube is placed in an adult patient, the cm marking at the teeth is usually around:
A. 15 cm.
B. 20 cm.
C. 22 cm.
D. 25 cm.
17. The proper size ET tube for the average size adult female ranges from:
A. 5.0-6.0 mm.
B. 5.5-6.5 mm.
C. 6.0-7.5 mm.
D. 6.5-8.0 mm.
18. The proper size ET tube for the average size adult male ranges from:
A. 6.0-7.5 mm.
B. 6.5-8.0 mm.
C. 7.5-8.5 mm.
D. 8.0-9.0 mm.
19. Regardless of the size ET tube that you will use to intubate your patient with, you should:
A. have one tube smaller and one tube larger.
B. have several ET tubes of the identical size.
C. only use a stylet for tubes larger than 7.0 mm.
D. always have a 9.0 mm tube in case it is needed.
20. When determining the proper size ET tube to use in an infant or small child, you should:
A. double the child's age in years and add two.
B. use a length-based resuscitation tape measure.
C. select the smallest possible tube with a cuff.
D. use a tube that is the size of the child's thumb.
21. The distal cuff on an ET tube should be inflated with ___ mL of air after it is placed into the trachea.
22. The MOST appropriate size ET tube for a 6-year-old child is:
A. 4.5 mm.
B. 5.0 mm.
C. 5.5 mm.
D. 6.0 mm.
23. Uncuffed ET tubes should be used in children less than ___ years of age.
24. When inserting the stylet inside an ET tube, you should:
A. bend the ET tube in the shape of a "U."
B. recede the stylet 3" from the tube's distal tip.
C. apply petroleum jelly to the tube's distal tip.
D. avoid inserting the stylet past Murphy's eye.
25. A single intubation attempt in the adult patient should not exceed:
A. 20 seconds.
B. 30 seconds.
C. 40 seconds.
D. 45 seconds.
26. Intubating a patient who is in cardiac arrest should occur after:
A. the stomach has been adequately decompressed with a gastric tube.
B. the patient has been assessed to determine if defibrillation is indicated.
C. adequate chest compressions have been performed for at least 5 minutes.
D. two attempts to insert a multilumen airway device have been unsuccessful.
27. Prior to attempting endotracheal intubation, the EMT-B should:
A. obtain authorization from medical control.
B. ventilate the patient for at least 30 seconds.
C. contact a paramedic and obtain permission.
D. suction the patient's airway for 30 seconds.
28. The MOST appropriate method of inserting a laryngoscope blade into the patient's mouth to visualize the vocal cords is to:
A. insert the blade in the left side of the mouth, sweep the tongue to the left, and pry.
B. insert the blade in the right side of the mouth, sweep the tongue to the left, and pry.
C. insert the blade in the right side of the mouth, sweep the tongue to the left, and lift.
D. use the tongue-jaw lift maneuver, insert the blade in the center of the mouth, and lift.
29. To avoid obscuring your view of the vocal cords during intubation, you should:
A. not pass the ET tube down the center of the laryngoscope blade.
B. gently pry against the patient's teeth to achieve adequate leverage.
C. direct your assistant to apply firm pressure to the thyroid cartilage.
D. ensure that the straight blade is in the vallecular space before lifting.
30. Immediately after you place an ET tube in the trachea, you should remove the stylet and then:
A. attach the BVM and ventilate the patient.
B. listen for breath sounds to confirm placement.
C. secure the ET tube with the appropriate device.
D. inflate the distal cuff and detach the syringe.
31. The MOST reliable indicator of successful endotracheal intubation is:
A. the presence of bilaterally clear and equal breath sounds.
B. visualization of the tube passing between the vocal cords.
C. when the paper in the end-tidal CO2 detector turns yellow.
D. the presence of mist or vapor in the tube during exhalation.
32. Confirmation techniques and devices used to determine correct ET tube placement include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. pulse oximetry monitoring.
B. esophageal detector devices.
C. auscultation of breath sounds.
D. end-tidal carbon dioxide detectors.
33. Blind nasotracheal intubation should ONLY be performed on patients who:
A. are unconscious and apneic.
B. have damaged vocal cords.
C. are breathing spontaneously.
D. have experienced head trauma.
34. Complications associated with endotracheal intubation include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. left mainstem bronchus intubation.
B. hypoxia due to prolonged attempts.
C. a marked decrease in the heart rate.
D. trauma to the soft tissues in the mouth.
35. A major benefit when using a multilumen airway device is that:
A. it can be used on patients of any age and size.
B. it can be visualized as it enters the esophagus.
C. the airway is better protected than with an ET tube.
D. maintenance of a mask-to-face seal is not required.
36. Which of the following statements regarding multilumen airway devices is MOST correct?
A. They are contraindicated in patients who have experienced a severe spinal injury.
B. Ventilations can be provided whether the device is in the trachea or the esophagus.
C. Insertion of a multilumen airway device requires visualization of the upper airway.
D. Multilumen airway device insertion does not require medical control authorization.
37. You should NOT attempt to insert an Esophageal Tracheal Combitube (ETC) in patients who:
A. have ingested a caustic substance.
B. are in full cardiopulmonary arrest.
C. are unconscious without a gag reflex.
D. have experienced a severe spinal injury.
38. On a pharyngeotracheal lumen airway (PtL), the large balloon cuff on the No. 2 tube is designed to:
A. seal the oropharynx.
B. occlude the esophagus.
C. be inflated with 10 mL of air.
D. secure the tube in the trachea.
39. Which of the following statements regarding the laryngeal mask airway (LMA) is MOST correct?
A. You must inflate the mask on the device prior to inserting it.
B. The LMA provides greater airway protection than an ET tube.
C. The device is inserted into the hypopharynx until resistance is felt.
D. You should hear epigastric sounds when the LMA is correctly inserted.
40. When using an LMA to secure a patient's airway, it is MOST important to:
A. fully inflate the mask before the device is inserted.
B. recall that active vomiting may dislodge the device.
C. hyperextend the patient's neck prior to inserting it.
D. ensure the presence of a gag reflex before insertion.
41. You have inserted an ET tube but are unable to hear breath sounds on the left side of the chest. You should:
A. treat the patient for a pneumothorax and transport immediately.
B. extubate the patient and preoxygenate for at least 2 to 3 minutes.
C. advance the tube as you are auscultating the patient's breath sounds.
D. withdraw the tube approximately 1 inch and reassess breath sounds.
42. A 30-year-old female has overdosed on a large quantity of narcotics. She is unconscious, apneic, and has a slow and weak pulse. You should:
A. insert a gastric tube to decompress her stomach.
B. maintain her airway and ventilate with a BVM.
C. insert a Combitube and confirm proper placement.
D. open her airway and perform endotracheal intubation.
43. After successfully intubating a 56-year-old man who is in cardiac arrest, you should:
A. perform asynchronous CPR.
B. defibrillate him with the AED.
C. ventilate at a rate of 30 breaths/min.
D. insert a PtL to occlude the esophagus.
44. Approximately 10 seconds into an intubation attempt, you are unable to view the vocal cords. You should:
A. abort the attempt and preoxygenate for 30 seconds.
B. direct your partner to apply posterior cricoid pressure.
C. gently pry on the laryngoscope to improve your view.
D. continue the intubation attempt until 30 seconds pass.
45. After intubating a 44-year-old unconscious, apneic male, you place him on the ambulance stretcher and prepare to load him into the ambulance. After he is placed into the ambulance, you should:
A. continue ventilations with an automatic ventilator.
B. reassess the patient's vital signs and attach an AED.
C. reconfirm that the ET tube is still correctly positioned.
D. hyperventilate the patient for approximately 30 seconds.
46. You are transporting an intubated 24-year-old female when her level of consciousness improves and she becomes extremely combative. Without assisted ventilation, she appears to be breathing adequately. You should:
A. request a paramedic to give her a sedative drug.
B. contact medical control for further instructions.
C. have suction available and remove the ET tube.
D. carefully restrain her and continue ventilations.
47. You respond to a construction site where a steel girder collapsed on a 22-year-old male's chest. Coworkers removed the girder prior to your arrival. Your assessment reveals that he is unconscious and apneic. You should:
A. open his airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver, maintain his head in a neutral in-line position, and insert a Combitube.
B. apply a cervical collar, maintain an open airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver, and insert a multilumen airway device.
C. ensure that his spine is fully immobilized, maintain his airway with an airway adjunct, and perform endotracheal intubation.
D. maintain stabilization of his head, open his airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver, ventilate with a BVM, and prepare to intubate him.
48. You have attempted to intubate a 66-year-old male twice without success. Medical control is unable to be contacted. Your MOST appropriate action should be to:
A. insert an oral airway, ventilate with a BVM, and transport.
B. have your partner attempt to successfully intubate the patient.
C. preoxygenate with a BVM and insert a multilumen airway device.
D. continue intubation attempts until medical control has been contacted.
49. A 50-year-old female is found semiconscious by her son. Your assessment reveals that her respirations are slow and shallow and there is vomitus draining from her mouth. When you attempt to suction her oropharynx, she begins to gag. You should:
A. ensure that her airway is patent, attempt to insert a nasopharyngeal airway, and assist her ventilations with a BVM device.
B. abort the suction attempt at once, preoxygenate her with a BVM device, and prepare to perform endotracheal intubation.
C. continue to suction her airway until the secretions are clear, insert an oropharyngeal airway, and ventilate with a BVM device.
D. remove the suction catheter immediately, insert a nasopharyngeal airway, and administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
50. After performing endotracheal intubation on an elderly male in cardiac arrest, you think you hear breath sounds, but also hear gurgling over the epigastrium. You should:
A. withdraw the ET tube approximately 1 inch and then reauscultate over the epigastrium.
B. attach an end-tidal CO2 detector to the ET tube and observe for the appropriate color change.
C. remove the ET tube at once, ventilate with a BVM for 2 to 3 minutes, and reattempt intubation.
D. secure the tube with the proper device, continue ventilations, and confirm placement with an esophageal bulb.