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Review Questions from the book

Which of the following features are found almost exclusively on laptop computers (choose all that apply) pg21
a. PCIe slot
b. ExpressCard slot
c. USB ports
d. DVD drive
e. port cluster
f. touchpad

B, F

Which of the following features may be visible from the front of a desktop computer? (Choose all that apply.) pg22
a. Card reader
b. DVI-D port
c. USB ports
d. DVD drive
e. port cluster
f. audio ports

A, C, D, F

You are preparing to upgrade the firmware in a system. Which of the following devices are likely to include a firmware chip? (Choose all that apply.)
a. DVD drive
b. USB card
c. RAID host adapter
d. motherboard
e. port cluster
f. touchpad

A, C, D

You are examining a possibly failed motherboard to determine whether the motherboard itself or a component connected to it has failed. Which of the following points of failure are likely to be found on the motheroard (Choose all that apply.)
a. CMOS battery
b. DVD drive
c. capacitors
d. SATA cable
e. Power supply
f. ROM BIOS

A, C

You are evaluating a collection of add-on cards to determine which cards should be retained as spares. Obsolete cards that will be discarded include ISA cards and EISA cards for desktops and, for laptops, PC Cards that must use a special device to enable a tetwork or modem cable to be connected to the card. The extension is known as a
a. header cable
b. gener ghanger
c. port adapter
d. Express Card
e. dongle
f. PCMCIA Card

E

The CompTIA six-step troubleshooting process includes a step in which you "verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures." Which number is this step?
a. Step 2
b. Step 1
c. Step 6
d. Step 5
e. Step 4
f. Step 3

D

You are checking the contents of your computer toolkit before performing internal upgrades on a desktop computer. Which of the following tools in your toolkit should be used to prevent ESD damage to internal components?
a. Cable tester
b. Wrist strap
c. Loopback plugs
d. Torx drivers
e. multimeter
f. Crimper

B

You are checking the contents of your computer toolkit before performing upgrades on a desktop computer. Which of the following tools in your toolkit should be used to verify proper operation of the power supply?
a. Cable tester
b. Wrist strap
c. Loopback plugs
d. Torx drivers
e. multimeter
f. Crimper

E

Which of the following are considered expansion slots? (Choose all that apply.)
a. PCI
b. FireWire
c. AGP
d. USB

A, C. All others are connections for external devices

Which of the following expansion slots provides the fastest performance for 3D video and graphics?
a. AGP 8x
b. PCI-X 2.0
c. PCI
d. PCIe x16

D. PCI-X 2.0 is used for mass storage and high-speed network adapters on workstations and servers.

Which of the following motherboards would you select if you need the largest number of expansion slots?
a. ATX
b. microATX
c. Mini-ITX
d. FlexATX

A. ATX has 7 expansion slots while the rest have four or less.

Which of the following ports is not found in a port cluster?
a. SATA port
b. Network port
c. USB port
d. PS/2 mouse and keyboard

A. The eSATA port, not the SATA port, is found in typical port clusters.

You must specifiy a multicore processor for a client's system. The client prefers at least six cores. Which of the following product families will meet this requirement? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Core i3
b. Core 2 Extreme
c. Phenom II
d. Core i7 9xx

C, D. The AMD Phenom II X6 and the Intel Core i7 9xx have six cores.

On a recent system, which of the following is typically configured with jumper block on the motherboard?
a. PATA master/slave
b. CMOS memory
c. SATA speed
d. PnP BIOS

B. A motherboard jumper is used to retain or clear CMOS memory on most systems. PATA master/slave jumpering is performed on each drive connected to the PATA port. Some SATA drives can be configured for slower speeds with a jumper block on the drive.

Which of the following best describes hyperthreading?
a. Overclocking your CPU.
b. Processing two execution threads simultaneously.
c. Having more than one processor.
d. None of these options are correct.

B. A hyperthreaded CPU processes two execution threads at the same time.

If you remove the processor from the motherboard, what device should you remove first?
a. Power supply
b. RAM chip
c. Heat sink
d. Thermal compound

C. The exception is for some third-party heat sinks that require the motherboard to be removed first.

You are installing a new motherboard. Which of the following headers should you use for the CPU fan?
a. Three-pin fan
b. USB
c. Front-panel header
d. Four-pin fan

D. The four-pin fan headed uses the fourth pin for speed control, whereas the three-pin fan header provides power and speed monitoring only.

Your client's PC needs an upgraded CPU. The current socket is an LGA 1155. Which of the following CPUs are most likely to be compatible?
a. AMD A8 series
b. Intel Core i7 2700K
c. Intel Core i7 990X
d. Intel Core 2 Extreme

B. The Intel Core i7 2700K is the only one of the processors listed that can fit into an LGA 1155.

You are installing a new CPU and bundled heat sink. Which of the following steps should you follow to ensure proper cooling?
a. Remove protective tape from top of CPU
b. Apply thermal paste to heat sink.
c. Apply thermal paste to top of CPU.
d. Remove protective tape from bottom of the heat sink.

D. Heat sinks supplied with boxed processors have pre-applied thermal material. Remove the tape before installing the heat sink.

The system cannot retain correct data and time information. Which of the following should you replace first?
a. Video card
b. RAM
c. CMOS Battery
d. Motherboard

C. A bad CMOS battery will prevent the system from retaining date and time information.

What is the CMOS memory used for?
a. Keeping the time.
b. Storing BIOS settings.
c. Booting the computer.
d. None of these options is correct.

B. This nonvolatile memory is used to store BIOS settings and should not be confused with system memory

What happens when the CMOS battery fails?
a. All the CMOS configuration information is lost.
b. The computer won't boot.
c. The computer is destroyed.
d. The motherboard is dead.

A. If the CMOS battery fails, it will lose all information, such as time/date, CPU information, and drive types.

If your system does not display the correct key to press to enter the BIOS setup program on startup, which of the following actions might work?
a. Press the F2 key.
b. Run compmgmt.msc in Windows.
c. Press the F8 key.
d. Press Ctrl+Alt+Del.

A. F8 is for advanced boot options and usually it is either F2 or Del key.

Which BIOS settings will allow you to automatically configure your system? (Choose all that apply.)
a. BIOS defaults
b. Setup defaults
c. Turbo
d. Function

A, B, C. Many BIOS versions enable you to automatically configure your system with a choice of these options from the main menu.

Which of the following can be used if you are working with a UEFI-based system to configure or view BIOS settings? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Touch screen
b. The Enter key
c. The + key
d. The mouse

B, C, D. Touch screens are the only thing not supported on UEFI-based systems.

Of the following system information, which can be viewed in the BIOS? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Installed memory (RAM)
b. BIOS information
c. Number of expansion slots
d. Processor speed
e. Video card memory size
f. Feature settings

A, B, D. The type and speed of the processor, amount of RAM, and the details of the BIOS program can all be viewed from within the BIOS setup. The number of expansion slots can be determined by physical examination of the computer or by using a hardware testing program such as SiSoftware Sandra.

Which features can typically be found in the advancedBIOS settings? (Choose two.)
a. Enable quick boot
b. Change the clock
c. View information
d. Enable boot sector protection

A, D. Some of the features available are quick boot - skip memory and drive testing for faster booting - and protection against boot sector viruses.

In recent systems, what common feature is used to help prevent excessive heat from damaging your computer?
a. Task Manager
b. System Monitor
c. Hardware Monitor
d. Drive Lock

C. The Hardware Monitor screen (sometimes referred to as PC Health) is a common feature in most recent systems.

Which of the following security features are included in many of the currently used BIOS programs?
a. BIOS password
b. Power on password
c. Chassis intrusion
d. Boot sector protection
e. All these options are correct.

E. Security features of various types are scattered around the typical system BIOS dialogs.

Which option would you use if you are in the BIOS of your computer and you want to exit without making any changes?
a. Save Configuration
b. Discard Changes.
c. Press the ESC key
d. Pres F8 to return to the desktop.

B, C. When you are in the BIOS and are not planning on making any changes, be sure to choose Discard Changes to prevent accidental changes to the BIOS settings.

When you start your computer, it performs an important test. What is this test known as?
a. CPU Processing
b. POST
c. A CMOS test
d. Hard drive test

B. Power-on Self Test (POST).

What are BIOS beep codes used for? (Choose two.)
a. A fatal error
b. A system message
c. A serious error
d. A warning message

A, C. Fatal errors are errors that are so serious the computer cannot continue the boot process. Serious errors will allow the computer to boot through them but should be addressed.

If you are installing a larger memory module than is listed as compatible and it is not detected at full capacity, which of the following is most likely to solve the problem?
a. Update the BIOS.
b. Contact the manufacturer of the module.
c. Set memory timings manually.
d. Run Windows Update.

A. Sometimes a BIOS may not support newer technologies. Updating the BIOS can patch the firmware and allow for this support.

What is the process called when upgrading the BIOS?
a. Putting a new BIOS chip on the motherboard
b. Removing the CMOS battery
c. Flashing the BIOS
d. Windows Update

C. When it is time for a BIOS update, go to the system or motherboard manufacturer's website to see whether a new update has been released.

Which of the following would you use to keep the power supply working properly? (Choose Two.)
a. Surge protector
b. Extra power supply
c. UPS units
d. Multimeter

A, C. To prevent damage from power surges, you should use a surge protector. The UPS will supply power for a short period of time to the computer system in case of total power outage.

Power supplies are rated using which of the following units?
a. Amps
b. Volts
c. Watts
d. Output

C. Power supplies are rated in watts, and the more watts the power supply provides, the more devices it can safely power.

Newer tower-case computers' power supplies typically have which of the followin power output ratings?
a. 300 watts
b 400 watts
c. 250 watts
d. 500 watts or higher

D. Most newer tower computers have 500 watt or larger power supplies in them because of the greater number of drives and expansion cards available.

Most power supplies in use today are designed to handle which two voltage ranges? (Choose Two.)
a. 115
b. 300
c. 230
d. 450

A, C. Standard North American power is 115 volts and power in most paets of Asia and Europe is 230.

Which of the following are causes of power supply overheating?
a. Overloading the power supply.
b. Fan failure
c. Dirt or dust
d. All of these options are correct.

D. All of the listed reasons can cause damage to the power supply.

How many pins are used for the main power connection by recent ATX/BTX motherboards with ATX12V 2.2 power supplies?
a. 24
b. 48
c. 32
d. 16

A. Most of the newer power supplies in use today have 24-pins.

What is the four-pin square power connector on the motherboard used for?
a. Extra power to PCIe slots
b. 5-vold power for fans
c. 12-volt power for processors
d. 12-volt power for fans

C. This connector is the ATX12V connector which provides dedicated power to the processor

What is the six-pin power lead on the power supply used for?
a. Extra power to PCIe x16 cards
b. Extra power for PCI cards
c. Power for case fans
d. Power supply diagnostics

A. The six-pin (or 6+2-pin) power supply lead provides additonal power needed by high-performance PCIe x16 cards, such as those used for SLI or for CrossFire X multi-GPU installations.

Which of the following steps would you use to remove a power supply?
a. Shut down the comptuer. If the power supply has an on/off switch, turn it off as well.
b. Disconnect the AC power cord from the computer.
c. Disconnect power connections from the motherboard, hard drives, and optical drives.
d. All of these options are correct.

D. All of the listed answers are correct.

To avoid power supply hazards, you must never do which of the following?
a. Disassemble the power supply.
b. Put metal tools through the openings.
c. Switch the voltage to 220.
d. Put a smaller power supply in the comptuer.

A, B. The capacitors inside the power supply retain potentially fatal voltage. Leave it alone!

Which device provides emergency power to a computer in case of a complete power failure?
a. UTP
b. UPS
c. Power strip
d. Surge protector

B. Uninterruptible power supply will keep a standard desktop up and running in the case of a complete power outage.

What is the minimum time recommendation for a UPS to supply power for an individidual workstation?
a. 30 minutes
b. 45 minutes
c. 1 hour
d. 15 minutes

D. This is considered long enough for a formal shut down.

Which of the following correctly describes an SPS? (Choose all that apply.)
a. The bsttery on an SPS is only used when the AC power fails.
b. An SPS is on all the time.
c. A momentary gap in power occurs between loss of AC power and when the SPS comes online.
d. An SPS is far less expensive than a UPS.

A, C, D. When an SPS is used there is a momentary gap of about 1 ms or less. They are also less expensive and not used all the time.

When a system is dead and gives no signs of life when you turn on the computer, which of the following might be the cause? (Chose all that apply.)
a. Defects in AC power to the system.
b. Power supply failure or misconfiguration.
c. Temporary short circuits in internal or external components
d. Power button or other component failure

A, B, C, D. When turning on a system that shows no signs of life, you must consider all of these as potential problems.

Processors and other components use a finned metal device to help with cooling. What is this device called? (Choose two.)
a. Passive heat sink
b. Thermal compound
c. Active heat sink
d. Chassis heat sink

A, C. All processors require a heat sink. An active heat sink has a fan and a passive has a channel of air to cool the heat sink.

What is the purpose of thermal compound?
a. Provides the best possible thermal transfer between a component and its heat sink.
b. Provides the best possible thermal transfer between a component's heat sink and it's fan.
c. To negate the effects of thermal contraction and expansion in adapter cards.
d. Provides the best possible thermal transfer between the northbridge and its fan.

A. It allows the transfer of heat from the CPU to the heat sink without causing damage to the CPU. No other elements should be coated in thermal compound.

Which of the following are popular standards for USB ports? (Choose two.)
a. USB 1.2
b. USB 3.0
c. USB 2.1
d. USB 2.0

B, D. USB 2.0 is the established USB standard found on most PCs whereas USB 3.0 is a high-performance version.

You need to connect a USB 3.0 hard disk to the motherboard, but the port cluster has no USB 3.0 ports. Which of the following options should you shoose to add the needed port? (Choose one.)
a. Cable header to motherboard
b. PCIe card with USB 3.0 ports
c. PCI card with USB 3.0 ports
d. USB 3.0 to USB 2.0 converter

B. You cannot use a cable header if the motherboard has no provision for USB 3.0 ports. PCI is too slow to support USB 3.0 performance. USB 3.0 devices can plug into USB 2.0 ports without a converter but perform only at USB 2.0 levels.

Which port is known as IEEE 1394?
a. USB
b. Parallel port
c. FireWire
d. PS/2

C. Another term for the IEEE 1394 and FireWire orts is i.LINK (used by Sony to refer to a four-pin implementation of IEEE 1394a).

An IEEE 1394b bilingual port supports which of the following? (Choose all that apply.)
a. IEEE 1394a
b. i.LINK
c. IEEE 1284
d. IEEE 1394b

A, B, D. A bilingual port can connect to either IEEE 1394b or 1394a and i.LINK devices by using the appropriate cable.

When daisy-chaining SCSI devices, what must each drive have? (Choose two.)
a. Each device must have a unique SCSI device ID.
b. Each device must have a separate bus.
c. Each end of the daisy chain must be terminated.
d. Each device requires its own adapter.

A, C. The SCSI device ID is used to identify the different devices on the SCSI bus. Terminating each end of the bus prevents signal problems.

A serial port can hook up devices such as external modems and label printers. What is this port usually called?
a. SCSI port
b. COM port
c. PS/2 port
d. Parallel port

B. Another name for the serial port is the COM (short for communications) port.

If you need to connect a printer and a scanner to a parallel port, which of the following should you select in port setup?
a. PS/2 mode
b. LPT mode
c. ECP mode
d. Compatible mode

C. ECP mode enables printers and devices such as scanners to operate in daisy-chain mode on a parallel port.

A PS/2 port marked in green and purple means you can which of the following devices?
a. Mouse only
b. Keyboard only
c. Touchpad only
d. Mouse and keyboard

D. Green is the PC99 color standard for PS/2 mice and purple is the PC99 color standard for PS/2 keyboards. A port marked with both colors can work with either device, or with both if a Y-adapter cable is used.

If you need to connect audio sources using RCA jacks to audio jacks on the computer, you need an adapter from RCA to which of the following sizes?
a. 6mm
b. 1/8 inch
c. 1/4 inch
d. 1 inch

B. The 1/8-inch audio mini-jack is used by sound card and motherboard-integrated sound for speakers, microphone, and line-in jacks. Also, to avoid confusion, most recent systems have color-coded jacks.

A PS/2 mouse plugged in to a computer has stopped working. It isn't feasible to shut down the computer at this time. Which of the following procedures is most likely to enable the user to keep working as usual?
a. Disconnect the PS/2 mouse, and plug in another PS/2 mouse.
b. Connect a USB mouse.
c. Use a game controller.
d. Use touch screen interface.

B. You can hot-connect a USB mouse, but PS/2 mice can be safely connected and disconnected only if the system is shut down and disconnected from AC power. A game controller does not emulate a mouse, and there is no indication this system has a touchscreen.

If you need to connect a bar code reader to a computer that does not have a serial port or a USB port, which of the following do you need to install?
a. Mouse emulator
b. Keyboard wedge
c. Bar code interface card
d. Keyboard emulator

B. To connect a bar code reader to a computer via the keyboard port, you must also connect a keyboard wedge.

You need to select a keyboard that can be hot-swapped as needed for use on a computer. Which of the following interfaces should you use?
a. 1/8 inch mini-jack
b. PS/2 connector
c. USB connector
d. PS/3 connector

C. A USB keyboard can be hot-swapped (assuming the system is configured to use a USB keyboard in the system BIOS). The 1/8-inch jack is used for audio, PS/2 keyboards cannot be hot-swapped, and there is no PS/3 connector.

Which of the following can cause problems with keyboards? (Choose all that apply.)
a. A damaged keyboard connector on the computer.
b. A damaged keyboard cable.
c. Dirt, dust, or gunk in the keyboard.
d. None of these apply.

A, B, C. These are mostly simple causes that can occur. You also want to make sure that you never plug a PS/2 keyboard in while the power is on. It could destroy the motherboard.

Which of the following would you check first when troubleshooting multiple USB devices that are not recognized by Windows?
a. Disable the device in Windows.
b. Reinstall the driver.
c. Enable USB ports in the BIOS.
d. Flash the BIOS.

C. When more than one USB device is not recognized by Windows, one possible reason is that the USB ports have not been enabled in the BIOS program. Disabling the device in Windows only makes Windows ignore the device regardless of what you do in the BIOS, thus making the problem worse. Reinstalling the driver could be a possible solution if only one USB device is malfunction or is not recognized properly by Windows. Flashing the BIOS isn't necessary in a scenario like this and is definitely not the first thing to check.

You have been informed by a user that his mouse is not working correctly. Which of the following questions should you ask before asking the user to unplug and reconnect the mouse?
a. What is the type of mouse (ball, optical, or laser)?
b. Are you using a mouse pad?
c. Is the mouse connector round or flat?
d. What brand is the mouse?

C. A flat mouse connector is a USB connector, meaning that the mouse can be hot-swapped safely. The other questions would applyto further troubleshooting.

Which of the following loses its contents when you shut down the computer?
a. Hard disk drive.
b. USB flash drive
c. RAM
d. ROM

C. Random access memory (RAM) loses its contents when the computer shuts down Hard disk drives, USB flash drives, and read-only memory (ROM) are designed to retain their contents even if they are not receiving power.

Which type of memory chip is much bulkier and more expensive than DRAM?
a. SDRAM
b. SRAM
c. DRAM
d. DDR

B. SRAM or Static RAM is bulkier and more expensive than DRAM. It does not require electricity as often as DRAM.

What type of RAM must be installed in pairs?
a. DDR
b. SDRAM
c. DDR2
d. Rambus

D. Rambus memory that uses 32-bit RIMMs must be used in pairs and unused sockets must be occupied by a continuity module.

Which type of memory was the first to run in sync with the memory bus?
a. DDR2
b. SDRAM
c. SRAM
d. Rambus

B. SDRAM was the first memory type that was in sync with the motherboard's memory bus.

What two methods are used to protect the reliability of memory? (Select the two best answers.)
a. Parity checking
b. System checking
d. ECC (error-correcting code)
d. Smart checking

A, C. Parity memory and ECC have an additional memory chip added for parity.

Most types of desktop memory modules use which kind of memory?
a. Unbuffered memory
b. No memory
c. SIMM module
d. Stable memory

A. Unbuffered memory is used in most desktop computers sold in the market. This kind of memory is also used in some servers and workstations.

Which of the following bus types are used for video cards? (Choose all that apply.)
a. PCI
b. AGP
c. DMI
d. PCI Express

A, B, D. Currently, video cards use the following bus types: PCI, AGP, and the newer PCI Express (PCIe).

Which of the following are used to keep the video card cool? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Passive heat sinks
b. Thermal glue
c. Cooling fans
d. Shrouds

A, C, D. Cooling can be provided through passive heat sinks or through cooling fans and fan shrouds. The material used to transfer heat between the processor and the heat sink is thermal paste, not thermal glue.

When installing a new video card, there are three phases. What are they? Select the best three answers.
a. Configuring the BIOS for the video card being installed.
b. Physically installing the video card.
c. Making sure the video card is in the protective antistatic bag.
d. Installing drivers for the video card.

A, B, D. With the addition of the plug and play BIOS, most of the time you will be able to skip the BIOS configuration. But some cards might not be recognized and you must configure the BIOS manually.

When you install a new video card in your system, but are not getting features, what would you need to do to correct the problem?
a. Reboot the computer.
b. Install the device driver.
c. Take the card out and put it back in.
d. Call a technician.

B. Without the device driver installed, you will not be able tuo use all the features that come with it. Most of the time you get an install disc when you purchase a new card.

What are three major types of display devices in use in today's industry? (Choose all that apply)
a. CRT monitors
b. LCD monitors
c. Data projectors
d. USB monitors

A, B, C. The three main types of display devices in use today are LCD monitors, CRT monitors, and data projectors.

Identify three types of video connectors.
a. VGA type
b. DVI type
c. HDMI type
d. USB type

A, B, C. VGA, DVI, and HDMI are the three main types of connectors you will be dealing with. You can also use S-Video for a connection.

If you are installing a new LCD monitor, what current standard port will you need for digital signals?
a. LCD monitor
b. AGP slot
c. A DVI port on the video card
d. A VGA video port

C. The DVI port is the current standard for digital LCD monitors. The DVI port comes in two forms: DVI-D supports only digital signals and is found on digital LCD displays. DVI-I provides both digital and analog output and supports the use of a VGA/DVI-I adapter for use with analog displays.

What two tabs can you utilize to configure the vertical refresh in Windows 7?
a. Adapter tab
b. Troubleshoot tab
c. Monitor tab
d. Color Management tab

A, C. The vertical refresh in Windows 7 can be adjusted by accessing the Screen Resolution window, and then clicking on the Advanced Settings link. From there, use the Adapter or Monitor tabs. The Troubleshoot tab is used to have Win7 guide you through the troubleshooting process of your display driver and settings.

When installing a new monitor, what should you do first? (Choose the best answer.)
a. Determine what type of cable is compatible with your video card.
b. Go to the advanced dialog screen and choose a resolution.
c. Connect the cable to the video card.
d. None of these options are correct.

A. The three steps listed are all ways to install a monitor; however, if you have a monitor that your video card does not support, you must either get another cable or a new video card that supports the cable you have.

If the colors are flickering on your monitor, what is most likely the problem?
a. Refresh rate too slow.
b. Refresh rate too fast.
c. Loose video cable.
d. The monitor is bad.

C. Most of the time if you see the colors flickering on the monitor, you can turn off the monitor and the system, tightening the cable, and restarting your computer.

If your monitor has low contrast and brightness, what might you do to correct the problem?
a. Change the refresh rate.
b. Reinstall the monitor.
c. Check the connection.
d. Use the OSB buttons on the front of the monitor.

D. When installing a new monitor it might not accept the current settings, so using the buttons on the front of the monitor, you can adjust your picture size.

Which of the following steps should you take when maintaining monitors? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Do not block ventilation holes in CRT and LCD displays.
b. Use antistatic cleaners made for electronics to clean screens and other surfaces.
c. Do not spray cleaners directly onto screens or enclosures.
d. Use thumbscrews to hold CGA and DVI cables in place on displays, projectors, and video cards.
e. When a system is opened for upgrades or service, check the condition of the cooling features of the video card. Remove hair, dust, or durt in or on the heat sink, cooling fan, fan shroud, or heat pipe radiator. Make sure airflow around and behind the video card is not obstructed by cables, dirt, dust, or other components.
f. Allow plenty of clearance around the video card slot. Don't use the slot next to the video card if the card would limit airflow to the video card's cooling features.

A, B, C, D, E, F. It is recommended that you use all of the solutions listed to help prevent problems with you monitor as well as with your video card.

Where would you go to set your display resolution in Windows XP?
a. My Computer
b. Display Properties
c. Screen Saver tab
d. Appearance tab

B. Right-clicking on the desktop and selecting Properties opens the Display Properties window. Select the Settings tab to modify the display resolution.

What is the difference between LCD monitors and LED monitors?
a. LCD monitors use organic material.
b. LED monitors use electrically charged ionized gas.
c. LCD monitors project images on a screen or wall.
d. LED monitors use light emitting diodes instead of CCFLs.

D. LED monitors use light-emitting diodes instead of cold cathode fluorescent lamps (CCFLs) such as LCDs use. It is OLEDs that use organic materials. Plasma uses the electrically charged ionized gas. Data projectors will project images onto a screen / wall.

Which of the following video types use a packet transmission scheme similar to Ethernet?
a. HDMI
b. DisplayPort
c. VGA
d. DVI

B. DisplayPort uses a packet transmission scheme similar to Ethernet or USB. It is the first of the listed answers to rely on this kind of transmission of video data.

Critical applications and network servers have a special type of memory. What is it called?
a. ECC memory
b. Unbuffered memory
c. Static memory
d. Desktop memory

A. ECC memory enables the system to correct single-bit errors and notify you of larger errors.

To correctly install a DIMM or Rambus module, what should you do? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Line up the module connectors with the socket.
b. Verify that the locking tabs on the socket are swiveled to the outside (open) positon.
c. Verify that the module is lined up correctly with the socket. Then, push the module straight down until the locks on each end of the socket snap into place at the top corners of the module.
d. None of these options are correct.

A, B, C. To correctly insert the memory modules, you should follow all the steps listed. You might also have to use a fair amount of pressure to securely lock these modules in place.

Which of the following is the name for running the processor or memory at speeds faster than what is recommended?
a. CPU tweaking
b. Overclocking
c. Memory leak
d. CPU duplicating

B. Overclocking is the process in which you can set the speeds of the CPU or memory to run at a faster rate than normal. It can lead to overheating and system crashes.

Which of the following type of RAM can transmit 6,400 MBps?
a. DDR3-800
b. DDR3-1066
c. DDR3-1333
d. DDR3-1600

A. DDR3-800 can transmit 6,400 MBps. DDR3-1066 transmits 8,533 MBps. DDR3-1333 transmits 10,667 MBps. DDR3-1600 transmits 12,800 MBps.

Which of the following are utilities used to check memory? (Choose all that apply.)
a. CheckIT
b. AMIDiag
c. Windows Memory Diagnostic Too
d. All of these options are correct.

D. CheckIT, AMIDiag, and the Windows Memory Diagnostic TOol can all be used to test memory.

To prevent overheating memory modules, which of the following tasks should you perform? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Keep the surfaces of the modules clean. You can use compressed air or a data-rated vacuum cleaner to remove dust.
b. Make sure you are using the recommended voltage level for the memory installed if your system's BIOS setup permits voltage adjustments.
c. Install additional case fans over or behind the location of memory modules to pull hot air of out of the system.
d. All of these options are correct.

D. All of these can be done to help prevent any memory issues, such as over heating.

Which of the following statements is correct when comparing DDR3 memory to DDR2 memory?
a. DDR3 has the same pinouts as DDR2.
b. DDR3 and DDR2 both use 240-pin connectors.
c. DDR3 uses higher voltages than DDR2.
d. All of these options are correct

B. DDR3 and DDR2 both use 240-pin connectors is the only correct answer. While DDR3 and DDR2 both use 240-pin connectors, the connectors use different pinouts and are keyed differently to avoid installing DDR3 in the DDR2 slot or vice-sersa. DDR3 (1.5V, DC) uses lower voltage than DDR2 (1.8V, DC).

You are required to install a DDR2 memory module that can transfer 6,400 MBps. Which kinf of DDR2 memory module should you select?
a. PC2- 5300
b. PC2-6400
c. PC3-6400
d. DDR2-667

B. This is the type of DDR2 memory module that can transfer 6,400 MBps. It is based on the DDR2-800 standard. PC2-5300 can only transfer 5,333 MBps; that is known as DDR2-667.

How much data can DDR3-1333 transfer per second?
a. 6,400 MBps
b. 8,533 MBps
c. 10,667 MBps
d. 12,800 MBps

C. DDR3-1333 is the DDR3 standard that allows for up to 10,667 MBps data transfer rates.

Which of the following media types are used by a Super Multi DVD drive? (Select all that apply.)
a. Blu-ray (BD)
b. DVD+RW
c. DVD-R DL
d. LS-240 SuperDisk

B, C.

Which of the following interfaces are typically used for internal hard disks on desktop PCs? (select all that apply.)
a. USB 3.0
b. PATA
c. eSATA
d. SATA

B, D. Super Multi DVD drives can use any type of DVD recordable or rewritable media as well as CD. LS-240 SuperDisk is an obsolete floppy disk type and BD (Blu-ray) is a higher-capacity optical media than DVD.

Select the correct statement about PATA drives.
a. PATA drives can use only 80-wire cables.
b. PATA drives run at top speed when used with 40-wire cables.
c. PATA UDMA133 drives are the only drives that require an 80-wire cable.
d. PATA UDMA66 and faster drives require an 80-wire cable.

D. PATA drives can use either 40-wire or 80-wire cables, but performance on newer drives is reduced when a 40-wire cable is used. UDMA133 drives are the fastest of the three drive classes that require the 80-wire cable.

Select the correct statement about SATA drives.
a. The slowest SATA drive runs at 1.0 Gbps.
b. SATA hard disks must use locking cables.
c. SATA 3Gbps drives are compatible with slower SATA ports.
d. SATA is used only by hard disk drives.

C. SATA 3Gbps drives can be used at any speed of SATA port but might need to be jumpered to reduce performance to avoid data loss when used with 1.5 Gbps ports (the slowest SATA speed). Sata is also used by DVD and Blu-ray drives.

You have just installed an eSATA hard disk on your system by using an eSATA/SATA header cable. If you want to hot-swap the drive, which of the following configuration settings are needed in the system BIOS for the SATA port?
a. Configure port for IDE mode.
b. No changes needed in any event.
c. Configure port for UDMA mode.
d. Configure port for AHCI mode.

D. AHCI mode enables hot-swapping. IDE mode forces the drive to emulate PATA drives (which cannot be hot-swapped). UDMA mode is used by PATA drives, not SATA drives.

You have installed an SSD in a new Windows 7 system, and its performance is no faster than the hard disk it replaced. Which of the following steps should you perform to improve performance? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Configure SATA port for IDE mode.
b. Install new drivers in Windows.
c. Upgrade drive to newest firmware version.
d. Use tweaking utility for SSD drives.

C, D. SSD drives don't require different drivers in Windows. IDE mode disables NCQ, TRIM, and other advanced features not supported by PATA drives. Firmware updates are essential to enabling SSD drives to run as fast as possible and a tweaking utility for Windows helps ensure best performance.

You are upgrading a system with a tape backup drive from Windows XP to Windows 7. To ensure that existing tapes can be read by Windows 7, what else do you need to install?
a. Removable Storage Manager for Windows 7.
b. New drive firmware.
c. Configure backup program to run in Windows XP compatibility mode.
d. Windows 7 drivers for drive.

D. Windows 7 does not include Removable Storage Manager (RSM) and RSM is not available for Win7. The only way to use a tape drive under Windows 7 is to install a Win7-compatible driver or create a Win XP virtual machine (VM) and use the drive inside the VM to read the data.

You need to install a RAID 1 array for a client. The client needs a minimum capacity of 500GB in the array and offers two available drives for possible use: 750GB and 1TB. Which of the following is the best solution?
a. Use the 1TB drive and partition it into two drive letters to create the array.
b. Can't be created with current drives; must purchase at least one additional hard disk with a 750GB or 1TB capacity.
c. Partion both drives to have 500GB primary partitions and use them in the array.
d. Create a 750GB RAID 1 disk array using the hard disks.

D. You must have two physical hard disks to create a RAID array. You can use different sizes of drives but the array is limited to the size of the smaller drive. No partitioning needed.

You have used a bus-powered USB drive to make a backup copy of files you need to restore to a different system. When you plug the drive into a USB hub, it cannot be recognized. Which of the following is your best solution?
a. Attach an AC adapter to the hub.
b. Attach an AC adapter to the drive.
c. Connect the drive directly to one of the USB ports on the computer.
d. Use a longer USB cable between the drive and the hub.

C. A USB root hub (USB port on the computer) has the best chance of success. A USB hub that is bus powered usually doesn't have an AC adapter. In some cases, a shorter USB cable can transmit enough power from a USB root hub or self-powered hub to enable a bus-powered drive to work.

Your client has a Windows XP computer with a Super Multi DVD drive, however, the user reports an inability to burn DVDs but can read DVD data discs. Which of the following could be accurate statements?
a. DVD laser has failed.
b. User needs to use third-party software to burn DVDs.
c. Drive not designed to burn DVDs.
d. User should install Windows Move Maker to get better DVD support.

B. Windows XP can burn CDs, but not DVDs, in a DVD drive. If the DVD laser has vailed, the drive could not read DVDs. A Super Multi DVD drive will burn DVDs. Windows Movie Maker for XP does not include DVD support.

Your client wants to use an external hard disk to perform backups. Which of the following interfaces is the fastest?
a. USB 2.0
b. FireWire 800 (IEEE 1394b)
c. eSATA 1.5Gbps
d. USB 3.0

D. USB 3.0 is the fastest (5 Gbps) of the ports listed here. Note: some older backup programs don't support USB 3.0.

A computer's SATA RAID array is missing and the onboard clock is slow. Which of the following steps should be taken to restore the system? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Replace the CMOS battery.
b. Enable SATA RAID.
c. Reset clock
d. Format hard disks.

A, B, C. The slow clock is a symptom of a dead or dying CMOS battery. When system settings are lost, the RAID settings in the BIOS may be lost. However, the hard disks' contents are not affected.

Which of the following technologies is the graphical user interface used by default in Windows Vista and Windows 7?
a. Windows PowerGUI
b. Windows Aero
c. Windows GUI version II
d. Windows PowerShell

B. Windows Aero is the default desktop in Windows Vista and Windows 7. It features translucent windows, window animations, three-dimensional viewing of windows, and a modified taskbar. You can make modifications to the look of Aero by right-clicking the desktop and selecting Personalization. Then select Windows Color and Appearance. There you can modify features such as the transparency of windows. Note: Aero is not available in Windows Vista Home Basic or Windows 7 Starter.

You are the PC technician for your company. You are upgrading your computers to Windows 7. There are certain users who have older applications that will run only in Windows XP. Which combination of products will enable you to run these programs with support for USB storage devices?
a. Windows 7 Professional, Virtual PC 2007, Windows XP as VM.
b. Windows 7 Professional, Windows Virtual PC, Windows XP Mode.
c. Program Compatibility Wizard
d. None of the above

B. To enable applications that will not run on any operating system newer than Windows XP to run on a Windows 7 computer, use XP Mode under Windows Virtual PC. Windows Virtual PC supports XP Mode (a virtualized copy of Windows XP Professional), whereas the older Virtual PC 2007 does not (and does not work with USB-connected storage devices).

You are working on a computer using Windows XP. You need to back up the current user's pictures. Whcih of the follwoing locations is the most likely location for the user's My Pictures folder?
a. C:\Users\
b. C:\Program Files (x86)
C:\Documents and Settings\Username\My Documents
d. Homegroup

C. Folders such as My Pictures are stored under the My Documents folder in Windows XP. Later versions of Windows place documents, pictures and music folders at the same level.

You need to copy files from one folder to another folder on the same computer. Which of the following command-line utilities will enable you to do this with a sincle command?
a. XCOPY
b. Drag and Drop
c. COPY
d. DISKPART

A. The XCOPY command copies folders and files and is run from the command line.

You are setting up an external drive for use with scheduled backups in Windows 7. The drive uses the FAT32 file system. Which of the following should you do to make the drive ready to use?
a. Nothing.
b. Use Disk Management
c. use CONVERT.EXE.
d. Format.

C. Windows Backup requires the use of a hard disk drive using NTFS for scheudling backups. CONVERT.EXE is designed to convert the file system from FAT32 to NTFS without deleting files.

You need to create a list of 32-bit services that can be imported into Microsoft Excel for analysis. Which of the following programs should you use?
a. Taskkill.exe
b. Services.msc
c. Explorer.exe
d. Tasklist.exe

D. The TASKLIST.EXE program has an option to create a CSV (.csv) listing of 32-bit services. The file can be imported into Microsoft Excel.

You have just setup a procedure to run every Wednesday evening with Windows 7. Where will you find this task?
a. Documents library
b. Task Scheduler library
c. Windows\System32 folder
d. C:\Temp folder

B. The Task Scheduler Library stores all scheduled tasks in Windows 7.

A client's system drive (which is formatted as NTFS) is running low on space, but there isn't time to take the computer out of service to install a larger hard drive. Which of the following procedures would enable you to add an external drive that will be used in Windows as if it's part of the C: drive?
a. Format an external drive as NTFS and assign it to a library.
b. Use the CONVERT.EXE utility.
c. Run the Mount Drive subroutine in Disk Management.
d. Use Change Drive Letters and Paths to assign the drive to an empty folder on the system drive.

D. By using Change Drive Letters and Path, you can mount an external hard disk into an empty folder on an NTFS drive. Windows views the external drive's capacity as an extension of the host drive's capacity as an extension of the host drive's capacity.

You are using the Windows Vista/7 Recovery Environment's command prompt to copy files from a system that won't start. Assuming you've logged into C:\, which of the following commands can copy all files, folders, and subfolders, including empty folders, from the current location to the TEST folder on an external drive?
a. xcopy . f:\ test /T
a. xcopy . f:\ test /S
c. xcopy . f:\ test /E
d. xcopy . f:\ test \ T

C. /E is needed to copy the files, directories, subdirectories, including empty subdirectories. /S will copy files, directories, and subdirectories, but not empty subdirectories. If you add /T to the end, you will get just the empty directories copied. \T is not a valid switch.

You are providing some phone support for your clients. The secondary display on a computer running Windows Vista is not displaying a picture. The clients have already verified the display is connected to the computer and turned on. Which of the following options is most likely to make the secondary display available?
a. Display Properties
b. Screensaver
c. Personalization
d. Display Theme

C. In Windows Vista, Personalization is used the same way that display properties were used in Windows XP. In Windows 7, Display properties would be used for this task.

You are contacted by a client that is having problems because her computer is running slowly. You need to run a utility to see whether the system needs to have more memory installed. Which of the following utilities should you use?
a. Performance Monitor
b. System Performance Wizard
c. Memory Tasks Wizard
d. System Configuration Utility

A. You can use the performance monitor by going to the Run command (Windows XP) or Search box (Windows Vista, 7) and typing perfmon. This utility can help you diagnose memory bottlenecks.

What is the minimum processor requirement for Windows 7?
a. 133 MHz
b. 233 MHz
c. 800 MHz
d. 1 GHz

D. Windows 7 requires at least 1 GHz processor, althoguh faster processors will improve performance.

What is the minimum RAM requirement for Windows 7 32-bit version?
a. 256 MB
b. 512 MB
c. 1024 MB
d. 2048 MB

C. 1024MB (1GB) of RAM is the minimum needed for the 32-bit version of Windows 7. However, 2048MB (2GB) is the minimum needed for the 64-bit version of Windows 7.

You need to configure several hardware components on a computer running Windows 7. Which of the following Control Panel options provides quick access to most computer hardware?
a. Device Manager
b. Computer Management
c. Device and Printers
d. Action Centers

A. Devices and Printers enable you to browse drives, set device settings, and view problem devices when used to view your computer.

You need to shut down a service that is interfering with another program. Which of the following can you use to perform this task? (Choose all that apply)

D. TASKKILL.EXE, Services.msc, the Task Manager can all be used to shut down a service.

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