When highly acidic chyme enters the duodenum, which hormone stimulates the release of pancreatic secretions that contains very high bicarbonate ion content?
Which of the following statements applies to bile salts?
They emulsify lipids and lipid-soluble vitamins.
105. Which of the following applies to the act of swallowing?
requires coordination of cranial nerves V, IX, X, and XII
108. Why does herpes simplex infection tend to recur?
The virus persists in latent form in sensory nerve ganglia.
What does the pathophysiology of chronic gastritis include?
atrophy of the gastric mucosa with decreased secretions
110. Which of the following individuals is likely to develop acute gastritis?
an individual with an allergy to shellfish
112. Which of the following describes the supply of bile following a cholecystectomy?
Small amounts of bile are continuously secreted and flow into the duodenum.
Which of the following is a major cause of primary hepatocellular cancer?
long-term exposure to certain chemicals
114. How does iron-deficiency anemia frequently develop with ulcerative colitis?
chronic blood loss in stools
116. With acute appendicitis, localized pain and tenderness in the lower right quadrant results from:
local inflammation of the parietal peritoneum
118. Partial obstruction of the sigmoid colon resulting from diverticular disease would likely:
result in a small, hard stool
What causes hypovolemic shock to develop with intestinal obstruction?
continued vomiting and fluid shift into the intestine
120. When dehydration reduces the compensation possible for acidosis resulting from prolonged diarrhea, what significant change in arterial blood gases indicates this?
serum bicarbonate levels would decrease, serum pH would drop below 7.35
An individual with peptic ulcer disease exhibits hematemesis. What does this probably indicate?
erosion of a large blood vessel
Which of the following is NOT a common predisposing factor to gastric carcinoma?
anti-inflammatory medications such as ASA
Which of the following is NOT usually present during the icteric stage of viral hepatitis?
126. Which of the following are related to post-hepatic jaundice?
pruritic skin and light-colored stools
127. What is the initial pathological change in alcoholic liver disease?
accumulation of fat in hepatocytes with hepatomegaly
128. When a portion of the proximal stomach and the paraesophageal junction move above the diaphragm, this is called a:
Which of the following applies to gastric cancer?
Most cases involve an adenocarcinoma of the mucous glands.
131. Which of the following structures is most likely to be located in the renal medulla?
loop of Henle
132. Under what circumstances do cells in the kidneys secrete renin?
Blood flow in the afferent arteriole decreases.
From the following, choose the substance likely to appear in the urine when the glomerulus is inflamed.
Which of the following functions would be impaired when tubular epithelial cells have been damaged?
reabsorbing the plasma proteins
Renal disease frequently causes hypertension because:
congestion and ischemia stimulates release of renin
139. When acidosis becomes decompensated in renal failure, a key indicator is:
serum pH dropping below 7.35
141. Choose the basic cause of osteodystrophy associated with chronic renal failure.
failure of the kidney to activate vitamin D
What would be the effect of damage to the auditory association area in the left hemisphere?
inability to understand what is heard
146. What does a vegetative state refer to?
loss of awareness and intellectual function but continued brainstem function
What is the rationale for vomiting with increased intracranial pressure?
pressure on the emetic center in the medulla
148. What is the typical change in blood pressure with increased intracranial pressure?
increasing pulse pressure
150. Which of the following characteristics indicates that the CSF is normal?
clear and colorless fluid
151. In the weeks following CVA, why might some neurologic function return?
1, 2, 3, 41. presence of collateral circulation2. immediate therapy to dissolve thrombi and maintain perfusion3. reduced inflammation in the area4. development of alternative neuronal pathways
152. How does a depressed skull fracture cause brain damage?
A section of skull bone is displaced below the level of the skull, causing pressure on the brain.
An accurate assessment of the extent of permanent spinal cord damage can usually be completed:
approximately 10 days to 2 weeks following injury if no complications arise
Common manifestations of rabies infection include:
headache, foaming at the mouth, and difficulty swallowing
Which statement is TRUE about tetanus infection?
Infection usually develops in deep puncture wounds.
157. How is the presence of spina bifida diagnosed?
prenatally by ultrasound or detection of AFP in maternal blood or amniotic fluid
Which of the following are common early signs of multiple sclerosis?
tremors, weakness in the legs, visual problems
Which disease is associated with excessive dopamine secretion, decreased gray matter in the temporal lobes, and abnormal hippocampal cells in the brain?
Which statement does NOT apply to status epilepticus?
This condition occurs only in idiopathic seizures.
164. What causes loss of consciousness in a person with diabetic ketoacidosis?
acidosis and hypovolemia
165. Which of the following applies to diabetic macro-angiography?
2, 32. It is related to elevated serum lipids.3. It leads to increased risk of myocardial infarction and peripheral vascular disease.
What is caused by hypocalcemia due to hypoparathyroidism?
1, 21. skeletal muscle twitching or spasm2. weak cardiac contraction
Characteristics of Cushing's syndrome include all of the following EXCEPT:
staring eyes with infrequent blinking
172. Which of the following is recommended for immediate treatment of hypoglycemic shock?
1, 21. if conscious, immediately give sweet fruit juice, honey, candy, or sugar2. if unconscious, give nothing by mouth (require intravenous glucose 50%)
Which of the following best describes the typical bone pain caused by osteogenic sarcoma?
steady, severe, and persisting with rest
What is the basic pathology of rheumatoid arthritis?
a systemic inflammatory disorder due to an autoimmune reaction
What is a common outcome of fibrosis, calcification, and fusion of the spine in ankylosing spondylitis?
rigidity, postural changes, and osteoporosis
What is the likely immediate result of fat emboli from a broken femur?
pulmonary inflammation and obstruction
184. Which of the following is a common effect of a type I hypersensitivity response to ingested substances?
Which of the following best describes the typical lesion of psoriasis?
silvery plaques on an erythematous base
186. How are antiviral drugs effective in treating infection?
limiting the acute stage and viral shedding
Which of the following apply to actinic keratosis?
They arise on skin exposed to ultraviolet radiation.
190. The cause of contact dermatitis can often be identified by:
noting the location and size of the lesion
191. Which of the following may result from cryptorchidism?
both a and binfertilitytesticular cancer
Why does severe pain occur with each menstrual cycle in endometriosis?
inflammation around ectopic endometrial tissue
193. Which of the following is a common complication of leiomyomas?
abnormal bleeding such as menorrhagia
Which is considered to be the stage of carcinoma in situ in cervical cancer?
non invasive severe dysplasia
Adjuvant chemotherapy and radiation may be used in cases of breast cancer in order to:
prevent any micrometases
199. Ovarian cancer has a poor prognosis because:
vague signs and hidden location lead to late diagnosis