Microbiology Lecture Final

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Uses glucose for carbon and energy.
A) Chemoautotroph
B) Chemoheterotroph
C) Photoautotroph
D) Photoheterotroph
E) None of the above

B) Chemoheterotroph

Has bacteriochlorophylls and uses alcohols for carbon.
A) Chemoautotroph
B) Chemoheterotroph
C) Photoautotroph
D) Photoheterotroph
E) None of the above

D) Photoheterotroph

Cyanobacteria are an example of this type.
A) Chemoautotroph
B) Chemoheterotroph
C) Photoautotroph
D) Photoheterotroph
E) None of the above

C) Photoautotroph

The term facultative anaerobe refers to an organism that
A) Doesn't use oxygen but tolerates it.
B) Is killed by oxygen.
C) Uses oxygen or grows without oxygen.
D) Requires less oxygen than is present in air.
E) Prefers to grow without oxygen.

C) Uses oxygen or grows without oxygen.

Which enzyme catalyzes the reaction: H2O2 + 2H+ > 2H2O?
A) Catalase
B) Oxidase
C) Peroxidase
D) Superoxide dismutase
E) None of the above

C) Peroxidase

A culture medium on which only gram-positive organisms grow and a yellow halo surrounds Staphylococcus aureus colonies is called a(n)
A) Selective medium.
B) Differential medium.
C) Enrichment culture.
D) B and C.
E) A and B.

E) A and B.

During which growth phase will gram-positive bacteria be most susceptible to penicillin?
A) Death phase
B) Stationary phase
C) Lag phase
D) Log phase
E) The culture is equally susceptible during all phases.

D) Log phase

Thirty-six colonies grew in nutrient agar from 1.0 ml of undiluted sample in a standard plate count. How many cells were in the original sample?
A) 4
B) 72
C) 9
D) 18
E) 36

E) 36

An experiment began with 4 cells and ended with 128 cells. How many generations did the cells go through?
A) 64
B) 5
C) 6
D) 32
E) 4

B) 5

The nonsulfur photosynthetic bacteria use organic compounds as
A) Electron donors to reduce CO2.
B) Electron acceptors.
C) Energy sources.
D) Carbon sources.
E) All of the above.

D) Carbon sources.

In order to be synthesized, which of the following organic compounds need a source of usable nitrogen? (more than one answer may be selected)
A) carbohydrate
B) lipid
C) protein
D) nucleic acids

C) protein
D) nucleic acids

Which of the following organisms is using sulfur as a source of energy?
A) Thiobacillus: H2S > S0
B) Desulfovibrio: SO4 2- > H2S
C) Proteus: Amino acids > H2S
D) Redwood tree: SO42- > Amino acids
E) None of the above

A) Thiobacillus: H2S > S0

The addition of untreated sewage to a freshwater lake would cause the biochemical oxygen demand to
A) Increase.
B) Decrease.
C) Stay the same.
D) Can't tell.

A) Increase.

Biochemical oxygen demand is a measure of
A) The number of bacteria present in a water sample.
B) The amount of oxygen present in a water sample.
C) The amount of organic matter present in a water sample.
D) The amount of undissolved solid matter present in a water sample.
E) All of the above.

C) The amount of organic matter present in a water sample.

Which of the following terms describes NO3- > N2?
A) Ammonification
B) Denitrification
C) Nitrification
D) Nitrogen fixation
E) None of the above

B) Denitrification

Which of the following terms describes NH4+ > NO2- > NO3-?
A) Ammonification
B) Denitrification
C) Nitrification
D) Nitrogen fixation
E) None of the above

C) Nitrification

Which of the following terms describes Amino acids (-NH2) > NH3?
A) Ammonification
B) Denitrification
C) Nitrification
D) Nitrogen fixation
E) None of the above

A) Ammonification

Which of the following do not fix atmospheric nitrogen?
A) Cyanobacteria
B) Lichens
C) Mycorrhizae
D) Frankia
E) Azotobacter

C) Mycorrhizae

Sedimentation of sludge occurs in
A) Anaerobic sludge digestion
B) Primary sewage treatment.
C) Secondary sewage treatment.
D) Tertiary sewage treatment.
E) Water treatment

B) Primary sewage treatment.

Bioremediation of petroleum
A) Takes place under aerobic conditions.
B) Takes place under anaerobic conditions.
C) The amount of oxygen doesn't make any difference.

A) Takes place under aerobic conditions.

Which of the following is not a symbiotic pair of organisms?
A) Orchid and mycorrhizae
B) Bean plant and Rhizobium
C) Elk and rumen bacteria
D) Sulfur and Thiobacillus
E) Onions and arbuscules

D) Sulfur and Thiobacillus

Which wastewater treatment process is responsible for removal of most of the BOD in sewage?
A) Anaerobic sludge digestion
B) Primary sewage treatment
C) Secondary sewage treatment
D) Tertiary sewage treatment
E) Water treatment

C) Secondary sewage treatment

Bacteria can increase the Earth's temperature by
A) Generating a great deal of heat in metabolism.
B) Oxidizing CH4.
C) Using the greenhouse gas CO2.
D) Providing nutrients for plant growth.
E) Producing CH4, which is a greenhouse gas.

E) Producing CH4, which is a greenhouse gas.

Nitrogen fixation
A) Requires aerobic conditions.
B) Requires anaerobic conditions.
C) The amount of oxygen doesn't make any difference.

B) Requires anaerobic conditions.

All of the following statements about fungi are true except
A) All fungi are unicellular.
B) All fungi have eukaryotic cells.
C) Fungi are heterotrophic.
D) Most fungi are aerobic.
E) Few fungi are pathogenic to humans.

A) All fungi are unicellular.

Which of the following statements about normal microbiota is NOT true?
A) The normal microbiota can prevent pathogens from causing an infection.
B) Normal microbiota have a commensalistic or mutualistic relationship with the human cells that support their growth.
C) Transient microbiota are microbes that are present for various periods and then disappear.
D) Normal microbiota may become opprotunistic pathogens under special conditions.
E) Disease is a normal relationship between normal microbiota and human host cells.

E) Disease is a normal relationship between normal microbiota and human host cells.

Which of the following statements is not true?
A) A lichen doesn't exist if the fungal and algal partners are separated.
B) Lichens are parasites.
C) In a lichen, the alga produces carbohydrates.
D) In a lichen, the fungus provides the holdfast.
E) Lichens are important soil producers.

B) Lichens are parasites.

Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
A) Plasmogamy - union of two haploid cells.
B) Karyogamy - fusion of nuclei.
C) Meiosis - cell division resulting in haploid cells.
D) Anamorph - produces asexual spores.
E) None of the above

E) None of the above

Which of the following statements is false?
A) Fungi produce sexual spores.
B) Fungi produce asexual spores.
C) Fungal spores are used in identification of fungi.
D) Fungal spores are resting spores to protect the fungus from adverse environmental conditions.
E) Fungal spores are for reproduction.

D) Fungal spores are resting spores to protect the fungus from adverse environmental conditions.

Which of the following pairs are mismatched?
1. Arthrospore - formed by fragmentation
2. Sporangiospore - formed within hyphae
3. Conidiospore - formed in a chain
4. Blastoconidium - formed from a bud
5. Chlamydospore - formed in a sac
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 2 and 5
D) 3 and 4
E) 4 and 5

C) 2 and 5

All of the following statements about algae are true except
A) They use light as their energy source.
B) They use CO2 as their carbon source.
C) They produce oxygen from hydrolysis of water.
D) All are unicellular.
E) Some are capable of sexual reproduction.

D) All are unicellular.

Which of the following statements about algae is true?
A) All algae are unicellular.
B) Algae are plants.
C) All algae are green.
D) Algae are photoautotrophs.
E) All of the above.

D) Algae are photoautotrophs.

Which of the following is not caused by an alga?
A) Domoic acid intoxication
B) Possible estuary-associated syndrome
C) Cyclosporidial diarrhea
D) Paralytic shellfish poisoning
E) Ciguatera

C) Cyclosporidial diarrhea

All of the following groups of algae produce compounds that are toxic to humans except
A) Diatoms.
B) Dinoflagellates.
C) Green algae.
D) Red algae.
E) All of the above produce toxic compounds

C) Green algae.

Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (select all that apply)
A) AgNO3 (silver nitrate) & newborns' eyes
B) Merthiolate & open wounds
C) CuSO4 (Copper Sulfate)& algicide
D) H2O2 (Hydrogen Peroxide) & open wounds

B) Merthiolate & open wounds
D) H2O2 (Hydrogen Peroxide) & open wounds

Which of the following does not contain a heavy metal?
A) Silver nitrate
B) Mercurochrome
C) Merthiolate
D) Copper sulfate
E) Chlorine

E) Chlorine

Which of the following does not achieve sterilization?
A) Dry heat
B) Pasteurization
C) Autoclave
D) Formaldehyde
E) Ethylene oxide

B) Pasteurization

Which of the following organisms would most likely be sensitive to natural penicillin?
A) L forms
B) Streptococcus pyogenes
C) Penicillinase-producing Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D) Penicillium
E) Mycoplasma

B) Streptococcus pyogenes

Niclosamide prevents ATP generation in mitochondria. You would expect this drug to be effective against
A) Gram-negative bacteria.
B) Gram-positive bacteria.
C) Helminths.
D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
E) Viruses.

C) Helminths.

Which one of the following is most useful for disinfecting medical instruments?
A) Benzoic acid
B) Glutaraldehyde
C) Chlorine
D) Phenol

B) Glutaraldehyde

Iodophors differ from iodine (I2) in that iodophors
A) Don't stain.
B) Are less irritating.
C) Are longer lasting.
D) Are combined with a nonionic detergent.
E) All of the above.

E) All of the above.

Select the reasons mentioned on the video for the prevalence of infectious disease in third world nations. (select each correct response).
A) contaminated water
B) synergism
C) lack of education
D) poor hygiene

A) contaminated water
C) lack of education
D) poor hygiene

Select each factor that would influence the effectiveness of antimicrobial treatments. Choose all that are correct.
A) The dosage of microbes (number of organisms to start with)
B) Temperature of environment
C) Nature of suspending medium and presence of organic matter
D) Time of exposure
E) Microbial characteristics

A) The dosage of microbes (number of organisms to start with)
B) Temperature of environment
C) Nature of suspending medium and presence of organic matter
D) Time of exposure
E) Microbial characteristics

The ID50 is a
A) Measure of pathogenicity.
B) Dose that will cause an infection in 50% of the test population.
C) Dose that will kill some of the test population.
D) Dose that will cause an infection in some of the test population.
E) Dose that will kill 50% of the test population.

B) Dose that will cause an infection in 50% of the test population.

Endotoxins are
A) Associated with gram-positive bacteria.
B) Specific in their method of action.
C) Part of the gram-negative cell wall.
D) Excreted from the cell.
E) None of the above.

C) Part of the gram-negative cell wall.

Which of the following is not an effect of complement activation?
A) Interference with viral replication
B) Bacterial cell lysis
C) Opsonization
D) Increased phagocytic activity
E) Increased blood vessel permeability

A) Interference with viral replication

Which of the following statements is true?
A) There are no more than twenty complement proteins.
B) All of the complement proteins are activated in serum.
C) Factors B and D are complement proteins.
D) Complement activity is antigen specific.
E) Complement increases after immunization

C) Factors B and D are complement proteins.

Bacteria have siderophores to capture iron; humans counter this by
A) Producing iron.
B) Transferrins.
C) Toxin production.
D) Iron-degrading enzymes.
E) None of the above.

B) Transferrins

Bacterial enzymes such as catalase and superoxide dismutase can protect bacteria from
A) Complement.
B) Histamine.
C) Interferon.
D) Phagocytic digestion.
E) Phagocytic ingestion.

D) Phagocytic digestion.

Type of immunity resulting from vaccination.
A) Innate resistance
B) Naturally acquired active immunity
C) Naturally acquired passive immunity
D) Artificially acquired active immunity
E) Artificially acquired passive immunity

D) Artificially acquired active immunity

Plasma cells are activated by a(n)
A) Antigen.
B) T cell.
C) B cell.
D) Memory cell.
E) None of the above.

A) Antigen.

The best definition of an antibody is
A) A serum protein.
B) A protein that inactivates or kills an antigen.
C) A protein made in response to an antigen that can combine with that antigen.
D) An immunoglobulin.
E) None of the above.

C) A protein made in response to an antigen that can combine with that antigen.

Chemical signals are sent between leukocytes by
A) Colony-stimulating factor.
B) Interferons.
C) Interleukins.
D) Tumor necrosis factor.

C) Interleukins.

The major significance of Koch's work was that
A) Microorganisms are present in a diseased animal.
B) Diseases can be transmitted from one animal to another.
C) Microorganisms can be cultured.
D) Microorganisms cause disease.
E) Microorganisms are the result of disease.

D) Microorganisms cause disease.

Nosocomial infections are most often caused by

A) Escherichia coli.
B) Staphylococcus.
C) Enterococcus.
D) Pseudomonas.
E) Klebsiella.

B) Staphylococcus.

Which of the following statements about nosocomial infections is not true?
A) They can occur in compromised patients.
B) They are caused by opportunists.
C) They are caused by drug-resistant bacteria.
D) They are caused by normal microbiota.
E) All of the above are true

E) All of the above are true

A needlestick.
A) Direct contact
B) Droplet transmission
C) Indirect contact
D) Vector
E) Vehicle transmission

C) Indirect contact

All of the following are communicable diseases except
A) Malaria.
B) AIDS.
C) Tuberculosis.
D) Tetanus.
E) Typhoid fever

D) Tetanus.

Which of the following definitions is incorrect?
A) Acute - a short-lasting primary infection
B) Inapparent - infection characteristic of a carrier state
C) Chronic -a disease that develops slowly and lasts for months
D) Primary infection - an initial illness
E) Secondary infection - a long-lasting illness

E) Secondary infection - a long-lasting illness

A cold transmitted by a facial tissue.
A) Direct contact
B) Droplet transmission
C) Fomite
D) Vector
E) Vehicle transmission

E) Vehicle transmission

A sexually transmitted disease.
A) Direct contact
B) Droplet transmission
C) Fomite
D) Vector
E) Vehicle transmission

A) Direct contact

Emergence of infectious diseases can be due to all of the following except
A) Antibiotic resistance.
B) Climatic changes.
C) Digging up soil.
D) Microbes trying to cause disease.
E) Travel.

D) Microbes trying to cause disease.

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